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Firefighter 2 Final Exam Prep 366 Questions & Answers
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1. Divisions of labor...
A. Outlines how things are to be done and usually how far a person can go
without requesting further guidance
B. Relates to the number of people one person can supervise effectively
C. Assigns a task to an individual to make that person responsible for
completing the task
D. Is the idea that each firefighter answers to only one supervisor
ANS C. Assigns a task to an individual to make that person responsible for completing the task
2. The incident management system defines span of control as
ANS
A. organizing an incident by breaking down the overall strategy into smaller
tasks
B. having the ability to start small and expand if an incident becomes more
complex
C. the number of subordinate who report to one supervisor
D. each person having only one supervisor
ANS C. the number of subordinate who report to one supervisor
3. Firefighters perform duties and responsibilities in accordance with the
who establishes the minimum standards for firefighters.
A. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
B. Federal Emergency Management Association (FEMA)
C. National Fire Protection Association (NFPA)
D. National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH)
ANS C. National Fire Protection Association (NFPA)
4. National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) is the standard that
contains minimum requirements and procedures for a safety and health program. A. 1901 B. 1932 C. 1001 D. 1500 ANS D. 1500
5. What does an initial radio report provide?
A. Transfer of command
B. Description of conditions as they appear
C. Procedure for requesting a special alarm
D. Operations from a legal and statistical standpoint
ANS B. Description of condi- tions as they appear
ability report (PAR)?
A. The primary search is started
B. A secondary search is completed
C. An emergency evacuation is ordered
D. The public information officer requests it
ANS C. An emergency evacuation is ordered
11. Which of following BEST explains why information is gathered for a post
incident report?
A. reviewing tactical operations errors
B. Determining trends in firefighter injuries
C. Suggesting locations that need preincident surveys
D. Providing information to media before the official report
ANS B. Determining trends in firefighter injuries
12. What does the National Fire Incident Reporting System (NFIRS) do? (122)
A. Informs other responding units of current conditions
B. Gives description of conditions as they appear on scene
C. Outlines necessary information needed to complete incident reports
D. Provides telecommunications center with continuous record of actions at
scene ANS C. Outlines necessary information needed to complete incident reports
13. What general information is in a postincident report? (122-123)
A. Witness names
B. Dispatch transmissions
C. Estimated cost of damage
D. Number of people interviewed
ANS C. Estimated cost of damage
14. Which statement regarding fire incident reorts is correct?
A. Reports are used only for statistical information.
B. Reports are collected nationally and then reported to each state.
C. Paper reports are preferred over computer reports since they are signed.
D. Local fire information becomes part of the national database.
ANS D. Local fire information becomes part of the national database
15. National Fire Incident Reporting System information is
ANS
A. used to help reduce the loss of life and property by fire.
B. confidential.
C. limited to fire incidents only.
D. only to be shared internally.
ANS A. Used to help reduce the loss of life and property by fire
16. Knowing types of doors and door hardware can help firefighters
ANS (190)
18. Fuel loading is defined as the maximum heat produced if
ANS (191)
A. no combustible materials are present.
B. all combustible materials in a given area burn.
C. nothing but combustible materials are present.
D. none of the combustible materials in a given area burn.
ANS B. All combustible materials in a given area burn
19. What is the most effective defense against heavy content fuel loading? (191-
A. Proper inspection and code enforcement
B. Restricting the types of combustible materials used
C. Adopting local standards that limit multistory buildings
D. Not allowing the use of combustible materials in construction
ANS A. Proper inspection and code enforcement
20. Vertical tactical ventilation can be defined as channeling smoke from the
ANS (192)
A. lowest point in a building.
B. highest point in a building.
C. point in a building that has the most windows.
D. point in a building that has the least windows.
ANS B. Highest point in a building
21. The critical temperature for steel trusses is
ANS (193) A. 300°F (149°C).
B. 500°F (260°C).
C. 900°F (482°C).
D. 1,000°F (538°C).
ANS D. 1,000 °F (538°C)
22. Which type of roof is used whenever large open floor spaces with limited
interior support is needed? (193)
A. Lantern
B. Mansard
C. Sawtooth
D. Bowstring truss
ANS D. Bowstring truss
23. Which of the following BEST describes a possible construction hazard? (194)
A. Fire detection systems may be damaged.
B. Furnishings may contribute to fire spread.
C. The building is subject to rapid fire spread because protective features are
not in place.
D. Danger increases because occupants and belongings remain in one part
D. 10.22 pounds (4.63 kilograms)
ANS C. 8.33 pounds (3.69 kg)
28. When a collapse is imminent, personnel in the collapse zone. (199)
A. should never work
B. are allowed to work
C. may stay for twenty minutes
D. may cautiously place an unstaffed master stream
ANS D. May cautiously place an unstaffed master stream
29. Which of the following BEST describes where the collapse zone is estab-
lished? (199)
A. Adjacent to any exposed interior walls
B. Adjacent to any exposed exterior walls
C. Near any area that is 10 feet (3.04 m) from exterior walls
D. Near any area that is 20 feet (6.09 m) from exterior walls
ANS B. Adjacent to any exposed exterior walls
30. For which type of construction is flying glass the primary collapse zone
hazard concern? (199)
A. Type I
B. Type III
C. Type IV
D. Type V
ANS A. Type I
31. When exposed to temperatures above unprotected steel will expand
and twist. (199) A. 300°F (149°C) B. 500°F (260°C) C. 900°F (482°C) D. 1,000°F (538°C) ANS D. 1,000°F (538°C)
32. A collapse zone for a Type IV structure should be established when
ANS (200)
A. its veneer begins to curtain collapse.
B. walls begin to shift because the building is twisting.
C. the structure has been weakened by repeated fires over time.
D. it has been determined that glass shards will be directed at on-scene
personnel. ANS C. The structure has been weakened by repeated fires over time
33. A collapse zone must be established when
ANS (201)
A. a defensive strategy has been adopted.
B. there is no evidence of structural instability.
C. mortar between masonry shows no sign of deterioration.
C. lack of walls.
D. construction design.
ANS B. Contents of the structure
36. Spalling of concrete could lead to early collapse in Type I buildings
because ANS
A. loss of moisture in concrete reduces its fire rating.
B. the added weight of broken pieces may cauase overload.
C. it could create void spaces.
D. reinforcing steel is exposed to the heat of the fire.
ANS D. Reinforcing steel is exposed to the heat of the fire
37. Firefighters should know that fire in Type V construction presents
ANS
A. shortening of steel components
B. breakdown of the concrete members due to the heat buildup.
C. extensive spalling
D. high potential for fire extension within the building.
ANS D. high potential for fire extension within the building
38. One of the most serious building construction hazards facing firefighters
today is the ANS
A. increased use of noncombustible materials.
B. increased use of lightweight and trussed support systems.
C. heavy content of fire loading.
D. presence of combustible furnishings and finishes.
ANS B. Increased use of lightweight and trussed support systems
39. Conventional glass
ANS
A. is not an effective barrier to fire extension.
B. is a good barrier to fire extension.
C. will not crack due to the heat.
D. will contain the fire to that area.
ANS A. is not an effective barrier to a fire extension
40. A(an) is designed to prevent the spread of fire within a
structure or between adjacent structures.
A. stop
B. partition
C. truss
D. fire wall
ANS D. Fire wall
41. A connecting plate used in truss construction that can be made of flat steel
stock, light gauge metal, or plywood is the definition of a ANS
A. joint.
B. gusset plate.
D. Oxygen
ANS B. Hydrogen Cyanide
46. A Class K system is used for
ANS
A. metal rims.
B. flammable solids.
C. cooking oils.
D. electrical boxes.
ANS C. cooking oils
47. Which of the following BEST describes when to replace a spark plug on an
electrical generator?
A. When it is damaged
B. After three months of use
C. During routine maintenance
D. After five to eight months of use
ANS A. When it is damaged
48. Which of the following BEST describes the result of running a generator for a
long period of time without a load?
A. May contaminate fuel
B. Can damage electrical system
C. Will overheat and damage generator
D. Allows equipment to warm-up before use
ANS C. Will overheat and damage generator
49. If a bulb must be replaced while hot, wear to prevent being burned.
A.latex gloves
B. cotton gloves
C. leather gloves
D. synthetic gloves
ANS C. Leather gloves
50. Which of the following rescue tool uses includes tools to drag materials away
to free victims?
A. Lifting
B. Pulling
C. Cutting
D. Stabilizing
ANS B. Pulling
51. Tool capabilities vary depending on
ANS (486)
A. age of tool.
B. user ability.
C. age of tool and power source.
D. manufacturer and power source.
ANS D. Manufacturer and power source
52. Which rescue tool power source is typically powered by pumps? (488)
B. Cutting tools
C. Power rescue tools
D. Pneumatic and manual rescue tools
ANS D. Pneumatic and manual rescue tools
55. What type of saw is often used for delicate cutting operations? (492)
A. Rotary saw
B. Circular saw
C. Whizzer saw
D. Reciprocating saw
ANS C. Whizzer saw
56. During vehicle extrication operations what is the BEST type of surface to place
a jack on? (493)
A. A flat, level surface
B. A soft, angled surface
C. The surface closest to the vehicle
D. The surface farthest from the vehicle
ANS A. A flat, level surface
57. Which type of jack is operated by using the jack to tighten and support a
shoring/stabilizing system? (494)
A. Screw jack
B. Hydraulic jack
C. Trench screw jack
D. Ratchet-lever jack
ANS C. Trench screw jack
58. What stabilizing tool uses a system of at least three posts wedged
between the ground and a vehicle resting on its side or top? (495)
A. Hydraulic jack
B. Wheel chocks
C. Ratchet-lever jack
D. Buttress tension system
ANS D. Buttress tension system
59. Which of the following stabilizing tools must comply with both NFPA® and
Society of Automotive Engineers standards? (495)
A. Wheel chocks
B. Hydraulic jack
C. Cribbing materials
D. Buttress tension system
ANS A. Wheel chocks
60. Which of the following BEST describes why plastic cribbing may be
preferred over wooden cribbing? (496)
A. It is less expensive to buy.
B. It is lighter and lasts longer.
