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FNP Certification Exam EXAM 2025 |
ALL CURRENT EXAM VERSIONS 2025 |
ACCURATE REAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS | ACCURATE AND VERIFIED
FOR GUARANTEED PASS | GRADED A
1. Funduscopic finding in angle-closure glaucoma Which of the following is most likely to be found on the funduscopic exam in a person with angle-closure glaucoma? A. A deeply-cupped optic disc B. Arteriovenous nicking C. Papilledema D. Hemorrhagic lesions ✔ Correct Answer: A. A deeply-cupped optic disc Rationale: A deeply cupped optic disc is a classic finding in glaucoma due to progressive optic nerve damage from elevated intraocular pressure. 2. Vision alteration and etiology matching Match each vision alteration with the most likely etiology: 1. Peripheral vision loss 2. Floating spots in visual field 3. Central vision loss A. Macular degeneration B. Untreated open-angle glaucoma C. Proliferative diabetic retinopathy A. 1-B 2-C 3-A B. 1-A 2-B 3-C C. 1-C 2-B 3-A D. 1-B 2-A 3-C ✔ Correct Answer: A. 1-B 2-C 3-A Rationale: Glaucoma affects peripheral vision; diabetic retinopathy causes floaters due to retinal hemorrhages; macular degeneration affects central vision.
3. Ophthalmologic test matching Match the test to its function: 1. Evaluation of anterior eye structures 2. General visual acuity screen 3. Early detection of macular degeneration 4. Measurement of intraocular pressure A. Amsler grid test B. Snellen chart C. Slit-lamp examination D. Tonometry A. 1-B 2-C 3-D 4-A B. 1-C 2-B 3-A 4-D C. 1-A 2-C 3-B 4-D D. 1-D 2-C 3-B 4-A ✔ Correct Answer: B. 1-C 2-B 3-A 4-D Rationale: Slit-lamp evaluates the front of the eye, Snellen tests acuity, Amsler grid screens macular degeneration, and tonometry checks eye pressure. 4. Communication with presbycusis patient Which of the following will NOT enhance communication with a patient with presbycusis? A. Maintaining eye contact B. Ensuring the patient can see the NP’s face C. Playing soft music in the background D. Providing adequate illumination ✔ Correct Answer: C. Playing soft music in the background Rationale: Background noise hinders hearing; visual cues and clear speech are more effective. 5. Initial treatment for ABRS What is the initial treatment for a 23-year-old man with acute bacterial rhinosinusitis (ABRS), no antibiotic use in 3+ months, and no allergies? A. Ampicillin B. Amoxicillin-clavulanate (Augmentin®) C. Ciprofloxacin (Cipro®) D. Levofloxacin (Levaquin®) ✔ Correct Answer: B. Amoxicillin-clavulanate Rationale: Augmentin is the first-line treatment due to its coverage of DRSP and beta- lactamase-producing organisms. 6. DRSP risk factors Which is NOT a risk factor for drug-resistant Streptococcus pneumoniae (DRSP) in ABRS?
- Lip spot — flat, discolored
- Neck lesion — dome-shaped, fluid-filled
- Scaly plaques on knees — bleeding when picked A. Macule B. Papule C. Plaque D. Cyst E. Wheal F. Purpura ✔ Correct Answer: 1-B 2-A 3-D 4-C 5-F 6-E Rationale: 1 = Papule, 2 = Macule, 3 = Cyst, 4 = Plaque, 5 = Purpura (bleeding), 6 = Wheal (transient swelling). 11. Dermatologic pattern matching Match term to pattern:
- In streaks
- Grouped lesions (e.g., HSV)
- Generalized rash
- Merging lesions
- Ring pattern (e.g., Lyme) A. Annular B. Scattered C. Confluent D. Clustered E. Linear ✔ Correct Answer: C. 1-E 2-D 3-B 4-C 5-A Rationale: 1 = Linear from contact, 2 = Clustered (HSV), 3 = Scattered (viral), 4 = Confluent (psoriasis), 5 = Annular (Lyme). 12. Biopsy needed in which dermatologic lesion? Which condition requires biopsy for confirmation?
A. Clustered flesh-colored lesions on hand B. Itchy coin-shaped plaques on legs C. Painless ulcerated lesion on sternum D. Salmon-colored wrinkled patch on trunk ✔ Correct Answer: C. Painless ulcerated lesion Rationale: Non-healing ulcers raise suspicion for skin cancer and need biopsy.
13. Treatment matching (skin conditions) Match treatment to condition: 1. Psoriasis Vulgaris 2. Scabies 3. Verruca Vulgaris 4. Tinea Pedis 5. Rosacea A. Permethrin lotion B. Medium-potency topical corticosteroid C. Imiquimod cream D. Topical ketoconazole E. Topical metronidazole ✔ Correct Answer: 1-B 2-A 3-C 4-D 5-E Rationale: Psoriasis: corticosteroids; Scabies: permethrin; Warts: imiquimod; Tinea: antifungal; Rosacea: metronidazole. 14. Skin lesion type – Description Match (continued) (Additional items assumed from context based on standard dermatologic descriptors) 5. Non-blanching, purplish lesion >0.5 cm, no surface elevation __ 6. Raised, itchy, transient lesion with irregular borders (e.g., hives) __ A. Macule B. Papule C. Plaque D. Cyst E. Wheal F. Purpura ✔ Correct Answer: 5-F, 6-E Rationale: 5 = Purpura , often from vascular or platelet abnormalities, non-blanching. 6 = Wheal , typical of allergic reactions, transient and edematous.
✔ Correct Answer: D. 1-B 2-A 3-C 4-D 5-E Rationale:
- Psoriasis : Treated with topical corticosteroids.
- Scabies : Requires scabicidal agent like permethrin.
- Verruca (warts) : Treated with immune modulators like imiquimod.
- Tinea : Antifungal cream (ketoconazole).
- Rosacea : Metronidazole reduces inflammation and erythema. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in Matthew's care? Based on the below scenario: Matthew is a 29-year-old man who presents with a 6-hour history of sudden onset of inability to raise his eyebrow or smile on the right side. He also reports decreased lacrimation in the right eye and difficulty closing the right eyelid. The rest of his health history and physical examination is otherwise unremarkable. Emergent referral for neuroimaging Initiating a course of oral corticosteroids Prescribing a short course of high-dose antiviral therapy Referral to a neurology specialist within the next 24‒48 hours Feedback
- Ans - Ans: Initiating a course of oral corticosteroids You see a 55-year-old woman who presents for a health maintenance visit. She has longstanding myopia and newer-onset presbyopia, both corrected with eyeglasses. She is normotensive and without ocular complaint. You anticipate the following on today's eye exam: Retinal arteries wider than veins.
Equal, sluggish pupillary response. Sharp disc margins. Lid ectropion.
- Ans - Ans: Sharp disc margins. dentify each condition with the most likely location. A. Pityriasis rosea B. Psoriasis vulgaris C. Actinic keratosis D. Scabies E. Eczema
- Antecubital fossa __
- Anterior surface of knees __
- Sun-exposed areas __
- Over waistband area __
- Usually preceded by herald patch on the trunk __ 1 - A 2-B 3-D 4-E 5-C 1 - E 2-B 3-C 4-D 5-A 1 - C 2 - B 3-D 4-E 5-A
Based on the Evaluation Below: Ana is a 22-year-old well woman who presents with a four-day history of an intense itch with skin lesions on hands and arms as well as her right cheek. She has used an over-the-counter hydrocortisone cream on the affected area with little effect, and denies any other symptoms or previous history of similar rash. Ana denies recent travel and exposure to new creams, soaps, or medications. She works as a landscaper. Topical application of a medium-potency corticosteroid cream An oral antihistamine A systemic corticosteroid A topical antihistamine - Ans - Ans: A systemic corticosteroid Across North America, brown recluse spider bites are the most common reason for new-onset ulcerating skin lesion. True False - Ans - Ans: False A 28-year-old woman who works in food service presents with a chief complaint of an on-thejob injury caused when her right forearm was accidentally exposed to steam. Approximately 2% body surface area is involved. You assess the injury as a partial thickness (second degree) burn and describe the skin lesion as appearing: Reddened easily blanched with gentle pressure
Red, moist with peeling borders and scattered bulla Thickened, hypopigmented tissue Vesicular with hyperpigmentation - Ans - Ans: Red, moist with peeling borders and scattered bulla You see a 20-year-old college wrestler with purulent cellulitis. He reports that a couple of his teammates were recently diagnosed with MRSA skin infections. Initial treatment options would include all of the following except: Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim®) Clindamycin (Cleocin®) Doxycycline (Doryx®) Levofloxacin (Levaquin®) - Ans - Ans: Levofloxacin (Levaquin®) A first-line treatment for uncomplicated skin infection due to S. aureus in a patient with no identifiable risk factors for MRSA is: Ciprofloxacin (Cipro®) Dicloxacillin Linezolid (Zyvox®)
- Dry Skin __
- Fine tremor __
- Hypoactive deep tendon reflexes (DTR) __
- Mood or mentation change __
- Menorrhagia __
- Exophath1- Hyper 3-Hyper 4-Hypo/Hyper 5-Hypo 6-Hypo/Hyperalmos __ 1 - Hyper 2-Hyper 3-Hyper 4-Hypo/Hyper 5-Hypo 6-Hypo/Hyper 1 - Hypo/Hyper 2-Hypo 3-Hyper 4-Hypo/Hyper 5-Hypo 6-Hypo/Hyper 1 - Hypo 2-Hyper 3-Hypo 4-Hypo/Hyper 5-Hypo 6-Hyper 1 - Hyper 2-Hypo 3-Hypo/Hyper 4-Hypo 5-Hypo 6-Hypo/Hyper 1 - Hypo 2-Hyper 3-Hyper 4-Hypo/Hyper 5-Hypo 6-Hypo/Hyper - Ans - Ans: 1-Hypo 2-Hyper 3- Hypo 4-Hypo/Hyper 5-Hypo 6-Hyper You see a 38-year-old woman with hypothyroidism who is currently taking levothyroxine 75 mcg/d with excellent adherence, stating, "I take the medicine every morning on an empty stomach with a big glass of water." She is feeling well. Results of today's laboratory testing includes a TSH=4.5 mIU/mL. The next best step in her care is to: Continue on the same levothyroxine dose and obtain a repeat TSH in 1 year Decrease the levothyroxine dose by 25 mcg/d and repeat a TSH in 1 month
Increase the levothyroxine dose by 25 mcg/d and repeat a TSH in 2 months Provide counseling to take the medication with breakfast - Ans - Ans: ncrease the levothyroxine dose by 25 mcg/d and repeat a TSH in 2 months Mrs. Lange is a 79-year-old woman with a >20-year history of well-controlled hypertension and dyslipidemia, currently taking an ACE inhibitor, low-dose thiazide diuretic, and a statin. She presents today with a chief complaint of a 6-month history of progressive symptoms, including fatigue, difficulty initiating and maintaining sleep, increased difficulty with raising her arms above her head, and a sensation of "my heart not beating right, sometimes I feel like it's going to hop right out of my chest." She denies shortness of breath, chest pain, cough, or difficulty breathing when supine and admits to "losing weight without even trying." Cardiac examination reveals an irregularly irregular cardiac rhythm, without S3, S4, or murmur and no neck vein distention.The result of Mrs. Lange's electrocardiogram is consistent with: Sinus tachycardia Multifocal atrial tachycardia First-degree heart block Atrial fibrillatio - Ans - Ans: Atrial Fibrillation The remainder of her physical examination reveals flat affect, fine tremor, 3-4+ DTR response, mild proximal muscle weakness, symmetric thyroid enlargement without tenderness or mass and a 10-lb (4.5-kg) weight loss since her last visit 8 months ago. The remainder of Mrs. Lange's examination is at her baseline. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? Based on the Physical Examination Below:
Intestinal malabsorption. - Ans - Ans: Primary hyperparathyroidism. When evaluating a patient for a potential thyroid disorder, which of the following is the least informative test to be used during evaluation? Free T Total T Free T TSH - Ans - Ans: Total T Examination of a 56-year-old woman identifies a palpable thyroid mass of relatively fixed position. TSH level is within normal limits. Ultrasound reveals a solid mass of approximately 5 cm in size. Which of the following is the most appropriate next course of action? Watch and wait with rescan in 6 months Initiate levothyroxine therapy Refer for fine-needle aspiration biopsy Refer for radioiodine ablation - Ans - Ans: Refer for fine-needle aspiration biopsy You see a 46-year-old woman with hypothyroidism who is currently being treated with levothyroxine at 100 mcg/d. She insists that she takes her medicine every morning. A laboratory test reveals that her TSH is 0.3 mIU/L (NL=0.4-4.0 mIU/L). You recommend:
Maintaining the levothyroxine dose and reevaluate in 2 months Increasing the levothyroxine dose and reevaluate in 2 months Decreasing the levothyroxine dose and reevaluate in 2 months Discontinuing levothyroxine therapy and reevaluate in 6 months - Ans - ans: Decreasing the levothyroxine dose and reevaluate in 2 months Katie is a 33-year-old woman who reports a 10-year history of unilateral, pulsing headache that lasts about 6-10 hours, occurring 3-4 times per month. The headache is typically preceded by a gradual onset of paresthesia affecting the ipsilateral face and arm, which lasts about 20 minutes. She reports severe photophobia and phonophobia as well as left-sided cephalgia during the 610 h headache duration. She states the headaches appear randomly. As a result of her headaches, Katie typically needs to either call in sick or leave work early at least once a month due to headache. Katie has used OTC medications with partial relief of pain but continued photo- and phonophobia. She is currently headache-free and neurological exam is within normal limits. Katie's presentation is consistent with: Migraine with aura Tension-type headache Cluster headache Intracranial lesion - Ans - Ans: Migraine with aura
An oral triptan Migraine prophylactic therap - Ans - Ans: An oral triptan, Migraine prophylactic therapy An oral NSAID Katie requests advice on family planning. She has not been pregnant in the past. Given her history, which of the following is the least desirable contraceptive form for Katie? Based on the Scenario Below: Katie is a 33-year-old woman who reports a 10-year history of unilateral, pulsing headache that lasts about 6-10 hours, occurring 3?4 times per month. The headache is typically preceded by a gradual onset of paresthesia affecting the ipsilateral face and arm, which lasts about 20 minutes. She reports severe photophobia and phonophobia as well as left-sided cephalgia during the 610 h headache duration. She states the headaches appear randomly. As a result of her headaches, Katie typically needs to either call in sick or leave work early at least once a month due to headache. Katie has used OTC medications with partial relief of pain but continued photo-and phonophobia. She is currently headache-free and neurologica - Ans - Ans: Combined estrogenprogestin oral contraceptive. The NP considers that which of the following dietary components is the least likely to trigger migraine. Sourdough bread Cheddar cheese Pickled herring
Ricotta cheese - Ans - Ans: Ricotta cheese When considering evidence-based practice (EBP) recommendations for the use of prophylactic migraine treatment, which of the following is the preferred agent? Propranolol. Ergotamine. Rizatriptan. Verapamil. - Ans - Ans: Propranolol. Which of the following represents the best choice of abortive migraine therapy for a 55-year-old woman with hypertension that is currently not adequately controlled due to poor medication adherence? Verapamil. Ergotamine. Acetaminophen. Almotriptan. - Ans - Ans: Acetaminophen. According to the EBP recommendations, nutraceutical options for the prevention of recurrent migraine include the use of all of the following except:
