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General Practice Exam-MD Accident
Health EXAM 2025 | ALL CURRENT
EXAM VERSIONS 2025 | ACCURATE
REAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS | ACCURATE AND VERIFIED
FOR GUARANTEED PASS | GRADED A
Medicare Supplement Core Benefits will cover how many pints of blood? A. The first pint B. The first three C. The first five D. All pints after the first 5
- ANSWER The first three Issue age policy premiums will increase in regard to which of the following? A. Increased benefits B. Occupation C. Age D. Inflation - ANSWER Increased benefits A large group plan must provide primary coverage for their disabled employee under which circumstance? A. Age 65 and retired B. Age 59 1/2 and retired C. Age 62 and retired D. Age 65 and not retired - ANSWER Age 65 and not retired Which of the following is not an enrollment period for Part A? A. Special B. Initial C. General D. Preliminary - ANSWER Preliminary When are an employee's Medical benefits exempt from income taxes? A. Never B. Only after satisfying a waiting period
C. Group Medical benefits are received tax free to an employee D. After an employee's elimination period has been satisfied
- ANSWER Group Medical benefits are received tax free to an employee Ed wants a Health Savings Account with his employer. What kind of insurance plan will be most likely associated with the HSA? A. High deductible B. Basic deductible C. No deductible D. First dollar deductible - ANSWER High deductible The IRC Section 125 is what type of plan? A. Cafeteria Plan B. Disability Plan C. Buy Sell Plan D. Business Overhead Plan - ANSWER Cafeteria Plan The exclusion ratio is used with which of the following? A. Mutual funds B. Stock investments C. Annuities D. Dividends - ANSWER Annuities Medicaid is a funded needs based program. How does Medicaid receive its funds? A. State Government B. County Government C. FICA payments D. State and Federal Governments - ANSWER State and Federal Governments The federal government's role was increased when Medicaid was created by allowing the state to do which of the following? A. To receive matching funds to expand public assistance programs like offering eyeglasses, prescription drugs and medical supplies. B. To allow low cost deductibles C. To permit all citizens of the state medical assistance D. To avoid income status qualifiers - ANSWER To receive matching funds to expand public assistance programs like offering eyeglasses, prescription drugs and medical supplies.
D. Certified Benefits – ANSWER Coordination of Benefits Larry's is disabled and his group Health policy was terminated. How long will he receive an extension of benefits provided by his employer? A. 3 months B. 6 months C. 12 months D. 18 months
- ANSWER 12 months Which of the following is incorrect about an association? A. Hold annual meetings B. Be active for 2 years C. Have 100 members D. Be formed for the purpose of buying coverage - ANSWER Be formed for the purpose of buying coverage An individual with severe gingivitis should seek what kind of treatment? A. Periodontics B. Orthodontics C. Endodontics D. Restorative - ANSWER Periodontics Every year Frank's policy's premium increases. What kind of policy does this describe? A. Acquired Age rated B. Issue Age Rated C. Attained Age rated D. Assumed Age rated - ANSWER Attained Age rated In order for a stockholder to receive a dividend resulting from profits of their insurer she must own shares in a: A. Indemnity Insurer B. Stock Insurance Company C. Fraternal Insurance Exchange D. Mutual Insurance Company - ANSWER Stock Insurance Company A statement made on an insurance application by a client become a part of an insurance contract and are considered to be: A. A representation B. A hazard
C. A warranty D. A binding act
- ANSWER A representation E.R.I.S.A., the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974, was passed by: A. The Governor B. Congress C. Popular Vote D. The Senate - ANSWER Congress If a producer makes untrue statements on an application, it is considered to be a(n): A. Omission B. Warranty breach C. Negligence D. Misrepresentation - ANSWER Misrepresentation Which statement best describes the primary difference between a mutual insurance company and a stock insurance company? A. A mutual company is regulated by the state and federal government and a stock company is regulated only by the state B. A mutual company is owned by stockholders and a stock is owned by Surplus Lines C. A stock company is owned by shareholders and a mutual company is owned by policyholders D. A stock company is regulated by an authorized insurer and a mutual company is an unauthorized insurer - ANSWER A stock company is owned by shareholders and a mutual company is owned by policyholders In regard to an insurance contract, which part generally defines or indicates the value that each party gives to each other? A. Offer and Acceptance B. Legal Purpose C. Competent Party D. Consideration - ANSWER Consideration Fraud is grounds for voiding a Life Insurance contract if it is discovered during the first _____ years. A. Ten B. Three C. Five
A replacing Life insurer must maintain a register for a replaced policy for how many years? A. 2 years B. 4 years C. 5 years D. 3 years
- ANSWER 5 years What is a terminally ill person that sells their insurance policy for a percentage called? A. Investor B. Subscriber C. Beneficiary D. Viator - ANSWER Viator Which of the following types of insurance policies would perform the function of cash accumulation? A. Property B. Life C. Stock D. Health - ANSWER Life Who makes the final decision regarding a risk? A. Underwriters B. Field Investigators C. Executive Officers D. The Commissioner - ANSWER Underwriters When an application for Life Insurance is taken that replaces an existing life insurance policy, the applicant must be given a Disclosure Statement. The Disclosure Statement must include all of the following EXCEPT: A. Premium mode B. Insurer's name C. Date of application D. Producer's name - ANSWER Premium mode The duties of a producer where replacement is involved include all of the following except: A. Leaving a copy or original of all solicitation material used for presentation to an applicant
B. Submit all expenses to creditors C. Provide the replacing insurer a copy of all soliciting material D. Provide the replacing insurer a statement signed by the applicant as to whether or not he or she has existing Life insurance
- ANSWER Submit all expenses to creditors Who is the owner and the beneficiary of a Key Person Life Insurance Policy? A. The Key Person is the owner and the employer is the beneficiary B. The employer is the owner and beneficiary of the policy C. The employer is the owner and the Key Person is the beneficiary D. The Key Person is the owner and beneficiary ANSWER The employer is the owner and beneficiary of the policy An Industrial Life Insurance Policy has a face amount that is: A. $3,000 or less B. $1,000 or less C. $2,500 or less D. $5,000 or less - ANSWER $1,000 or less What approach helps with the prediction of an individual's earning potential and how much of it would be devoted to their dependents? A. Needs B. Human Life C. Retirement D. Social Security - ANSWER Human Life Within how many months must a person be expected to die from a sickness in order to be classified as terminally ill? A. 3 B. 24 C. 6 D. 12 - ANSWER 24 Who has jurisdiction with the Commissioner over alleged discrimination factors? A. Human Rights Commission B. Human Resource Commission C. Human Relations Commission D. Human Research Commission - ANSWER Human Relations Commission What happens to premiums of a Graded Premium Whole Life policy after their increase period? A. Continue to increase for 3 to 5 years B. Begin to decrease C. Discontinue
A. Annually Renewable Term B. Increasing Term C. Decreasing Term D. Level Term - ANSWER Annually Renewable Term What Universal Life policy would have the IRS require a corridor between the cash value and the death benefit? A. Universal Life Option A B. Universal Life Option B C. Universal Life Option II D. Universal Life Option III - ANSWER Universal Life Option A Larry used a Decreasing Term policy to cover the cost of his car loan of $79,000. What will be his balance at the end of its term? A. $79, B. There is not enough information to determine the balance C. Zero D. $9,000 - ANSWER Zero What happens to the premium of an Annually Renewable Term policy? A. It remains level B. It expires annually C. It increases yearly D. It varies depending on inflation - ANSWER It increases yearly Which of the following is a factor M&B insurer would consider when determining whether to accept a group life plan? A. Average age B. Free Look period C. Dependents of employee D. Beneficiaries - ANSWER Average age Why does the corridor of a Universal Life policy raise the death benefit? A. To avoid losing tax advantages B. To provide a tax exchange C. To avoid the lapse of the policy D. To provide a beneficiary change - ANSWER To avoid losing tax advantages Kate had a $50,000 Life policy with a $65.00 premium. Last month, 14 days after her policy premium was due, she died of a heart attack. What will her beneficiary receive from her death benefit? A. Nothing B. $50, C. $65.
D. $49,935 - ANSWER $49,
Jerry committed suicide one year after his policy was issued. What will his insurer do in this situation? A. His insurer will not pay anything to his beneficiary B. His insurer will refund his paid premiums C. His insurer will keep the paid premiums D. His insurer will pay the full death benefit to their beneficiary - ANSWER His insurer will refund his paid premiums Jenny took out a Life insurance policy and six years later she died. While processing her claim, her insurer discovers that Jenny understated her age on her policy's application. In regard to the Misstatement of Age provision, her insurer will do which of the following? A. Pay her benefit in full B. Deny her claim C. Adjust her benefit to a reduced amount D. Pay only part of her death benefit - ANSWER Adjust her benefit to a reduced amount What important information can be found in a Life insurance policy's Consideration Clause? A. Policy summary B. Entire contract C. Indemnity of benefits D. Premium amount and payment due date - ANSWER Premium amount and payment due date What determines how long benefits will be received under a Fixed Amount Settlement Option? A. Interest amount B. Income period C. Size of installment D. Length of contract - ANSWER Size of installment L&D Insurer can contest Dan's Life insurance contract due to a fraudulent statement made on his application within what time? A. 30 days B. 60 days C. 2 years D. 5 years - ANSWER 2 years Mr. J has a Life insurance policy with a rider that ensures to pay his premium if he becomes disabled. What is the name of the rider?
C. Liquidation Phase D. Pay Out Period - ANSWER Depreciation Phase What type of annuity covers two lives and the payments stop upon the first death? A. Single and Dependent B. Life with 20 Year Certain C. Joint Life D. Joint and Survivor - ANSWER Joint Life This type of annuity does not have a named beneficiary. What is it called? A. Life with 20 Year Certain B. Life with 10 Year Certain C. Life with 15 Year Certain D. Life without Period Certain - ANSWER Life without Period Certain When an annuitant dies with cash refund option, what will their beneficiary receive? A. Nothing B. A refund of the original amount, minus the payments already made C. Half of the payments made D. Any cash amount made - ANSWER A refund of the original amount, minus the payments already made Barbara has a fixed annuity. Who bears the risk of her account? A. Barbara B. Barbara's beneficiary C. Barbara's annuitant D. Barbara's insurance company - ANSWER Barbara's insurance company Michael has an annuity and his insurance company bears its risk. What type of annuity does Michael have in his possession? A. Fixed B. Variable C. Flexible D. General - ANSWER Fixed Which of the following is not considered in recommending a suitable annuity? A. Income B. Taxes C. Financial interest D. Beneficiary's age - ANSWER Beneficiary's age M&G Company is disqualified from receiving favorable tax treatment. What is the reason?
A. It is temporary B. It has a vesting schedule C. It is formed for its employees and their beneficiaries D. The contributions are applied without regard to income - ANSWER It is temporary An exclusion ratio is best associated with which of the following? A. Annuity payments B. Dividends C. Mutual funds D. Provisions - ANSWER Annuity payments Which of the following best relates to a nontaxable transaction? A. 1035 B. 425 C. 401 D. 1052 - ANSWER 1035 Within how many days must a rollover be completed to avoid being taxed as current income? A. 10 B. 20 C. 40 D. 60 - ANSWER 60 Fred, a 58 year old, has a Modified Endowment Contract and he wants to withdraw some money to pay for his son's education. Which of the following will apply to Fred? A. He will not be able to withdraw money for education B. He will not be able to withdraw money for any purpose C. He will have to pay a 10% penalty D. He will have to pay a 10% penalty and a 10% surcharge - ANSWER He will have to pay a 10% penalty Earned income is all of the following except: A. Commissions B. Salary C. Part time wages D. Unemployment benefits - ANSWER Unemployment benefits In a Non-Qualified annuity, what is true regarding the tax consequences of a withdrawal during its accumulation period? A. Taxable interest will be withdrawn first and a 10% penalty will be imposed if an annuitant is under age 59 ½ B. There are no tax consequences C. The principal is not taxed
An underwriter's attitude toward group risks can be ____ restrictive than with individual policies, because the group policies are subject to annual reevaluations. A. More B. Less C. Liberally D. Conservatively - ANSWER Less Which of the following is a source that releases coded information to insurers for underwriting purposes? A. NAIC B. MIB C. CIA D. Protection Guild - ANSWER MIB Joe has just been diagnosed with a quickly-spreading, fatal form of cancer; his doctor predicts that he will live for a month. He applied for an individual Health Insurance policy. What risk classification will he most likely receive? A. Declined B. Substandard C. Poor D. Provisional - ANSWER Declined A Dread Disease policy would be best used for which of the following: A. Prescription Drugs B. Dental C. Vision D. Cancer - ANSWER Cancer How is a Hospital Indemnity Policy based? A. On the type of surgery B. On the number of days an insured is confined in a hospital C. On the geographic area D. On the patient's condition - ANSWER On the number of days an insured is confined in a hospital Dina submitted a claim to her insurance company on May 1, 2013. Her company denied her claim so she talked to her attorney about being legal action against her insurer. When is the earliest she can bring legal action against her insurer? A. May 2, 2013 B. June 1, 2013 C. May 1, 2014 D. July 1, 2013 - ANSWER July 1, 2013
What provision will allow Sam to inspect his policy and if dissatisfied, be able to return it for a full refund? A. Grace Period B. Free Look C. Payment of Premium D. Consideration - ANSWER Free Look What makes up an application and the printed contract? A. Entire Contract B. Full Contract C. Submitted Contract D. Provisional Contract - ANSWER Entire Contract When can a company change the wording of a uniform policy provision? A. If it is approved by their Board of Directors B. If it is directed by an insured C. If the wording is not less favorable to an insured D. Never - ANSWER If the wording is not less favorable to an insured What is the Social Security elimination period for disability benefits? A. 2 months B. 3 months C. 4 months D. 5 months - ANSWER 5 months Which of the following would not be considered a qualifier for disability income? A. Being confined to one's house B. Be under the care of a doctor C. Proof of a disability D. A certain income status before a disability - ANSWER A certain income status before a disability Mary is a single mother with an 8 year old daughter named Amanda. Mary wants her and her daughter to be financially protected if she became disabled. What plan is best suited for Mary's needs? A. Total Disability Plan B. Income Benefit Family Plan C. Residual Family Benefit Plan D. Coordination of Benefits Family Plan - ANSWER Total Disability Plan What is used the most to determine the extent of disability benefits? A. Income B. Age
A. High Maximum benefits B. Low Maximum benefits C. Deductible benefits D. Indemnity benefits - ANSWER High Maximum benefits Eddie has a health insurance plan with a deductible of $500 and an 80/20 coinsurance. How much will he pay if he has a loss of $1,500? A. $ B. $ C. $ D. $1,200 - ANSWER $ Federal government _____ assist in the cost of health insurance coverage in several different ways. A. Navigators B. Exchanges C. Subsidies D. Marketplaces - ANSWER Subsidies Which of the following describes the purpose for a Certificate of Coverage? A. To reduce the 6 month waiting period for pre-existing conditions B. To reduce the 5 month waiting period for pre-existing conditions C. To reduce the 1 year waiting period for pre-existing conditions D. To reduce and discontinue coverage - ANSWER To reduce the 1 year waiting period for pre-existing conditions Betty has a health insurance plan that states she must pay a certain amount out of pocket before any benefits are paid in a calendar year. What does this describe? A. Stop loss provision B. Flat deductible C. Integrated deductible D. Calendar year deductible - ANSWER Calendar year deductible Tri-Care refers to a Health Care system exclusively designed for which of the following? A. Military personnel B. Needy and impoverished individuals C. Individuals over the age of 65 D. Employees in organizations with fewer than 50 people - ANSWER Military personnel Which of the following must be provided by an HMO plan? A. Eye Care B. Dental Care C. Long Term Care D. Preventive Care - ANSWER Preventive Care
Which term best describes what health plans must be to fit the Affordable Care Act's standards? A. National B. Qualified C. Expert D. Independent - ANSWER Qualified Employees that are actively working on the date of the transfer of their coverage to another company are covered: A. After a 30 day waiting period B. Automatically and are exempt from a probationary period C. After working 90 days D. Automatically after satisfying a probationary period - ANSWER Automatically and are exempt from a probationary period Which of the following is not a characteristic of a group premium? A. Skill level B. Age C. Sex D. Occupation - ANSWER Skill level Carol is insured under her employer's insurance plan. She works full time and her employer pays the premiums for her coverage. This describes which kind of plan? A. A Comprehensive Plan B. A Contributory Plan C. A Deductible Plan D. A Non-Contributory Plan - ANSWER A Non-Contributory Plan Under a group plan, which of the following would qualify as a dependent? A. A 32 year old man incapable of self support B. A 28 year old woman in post graduate school C. A young professional D. A 27 year old young man in technical school - ANSWER A 32 year old man incapable of self support Bringing back the functional use of teeth refers to which of the following? A. Restorative B. Orthodontics C. Endodontics D. Prosthodontics - ANSWER Restorative Medicare Supplement policies relate to all of the following except: A. Medigap covers the cost of extended Nursing Care
