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MCQs for Final Review (Patho II)
Week 8: The oral Cavity and the Gastrointestinal Tract Health Problems
Which of the following is a common cause of peptic ulcers in the gastrointestinal tract? A. Excessive consumption of dairy products B. Infection with Helicobacter pylori C. Lack of vitamin C D. Overactive salivary glands Answer: B Gingivitis is an inflammation of which part of the oral cavity? A. Teeth B. Tongue C. Gums D. Palate Answer: C Celiac disease, a gastrointestinal disorder, is triggered by the body’s reaction to: A. Gluten B. Lactose C. Sucrose D. Fructose Answer: A Which of the following symptoms is characteristic of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)? A. Chest pain during exercise B. Heartburn and regurgitation C. Muscle cramps in the legs D. Blurred vision
Answer: B Oral thrush, a common oral cavity problem, is caused by an overgrowth of: A. Bacteria B. Viruses C. Fungi (Candida albicans) D. Parasites Answer: C Which digestive enzyme in the stomach helps break down proteins? A. Amylase B. Lipase C. Pepsin D. Lactase Answer: C Diverticulitis occurs when small pouches in the colon become: A. Enlarged B. Inflamed or infected C. Shrunken D. Disconnected Answer: B What is the main function of saliva in the oral cavity? A. To cool the mouth B. To dissolve food particles and aid in digestion C. To moisten the lips only D. To produce antibodies Answer: B Irritable Bowel Syndrome (IBS) is often associated with: A. Changes in bowel habits and abdominal pain B. High blood pressure
Which of the following is a risk factor for developing gastrointestinal cancers? A. Regular exercise B. A diet high in fruits and vegetables C. Chronic smoking and excessive alcohol consumption D. Adequate sleep Answer: C Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) includes which two main conditions? A. Gastritis and peptic ulcers B. Celiac disease and diverticulitis C. Crohn's disease and ulcerative colitis D. Irritable bowel syndrome and acid reflux Answer: C
Week 9: The liver and the Biliary Tract Health Problems
Which of the following functions is NOT performed by the liver? A. Filtering toxins from the blood B. Producing insulin C. Storing glycogen D. Producing bile Answer: B Jaundice, a common symptom related to liver and biliary tract problems, is characterized by: A. Yellowing of the skin and eyes B. Reddening of the skin C. Blue discoloration of the nails D. White patches on the skin Answer: A Gallstones are primarily composed of:
A. Calcium B. Cholesterol or bilirubin C. Iron D. Magnesium Answer: B Hepatitis can be caused by: A. Viruses (e.g., Hepatitis A, B, C) B. Bacterial infections C. Alcohol abuse D. All of the above Answer: D The bile duct is responsible for transporting bile from the liver to the: A. Stomach B. Small intestine C. Large intestine D. Pancreas Answer: B Cirrhosis of the liver is a progressive disease that results in: A. The formation of scar tissue in the liver B. Enlargement of the liver cells C. Decreased production of red blood cells D. Increased production of digestive enzymes Answer: A Which diagnostic test is commonly used to visualize the liver and biliary tract? A. Electrocardiogram (ECG) B. X - ray of the chest C. Ultrasound D. Blood pressure measurement
C. Hepatitis C D. Hepatitis D Answer: A Treatment for gallstones may include: A. Dietary changes B. Medication to dissolve the stones C. Surgical removal of the gallbladder D. All of the above Answer: D Autoimmune hepatitis occurs when the body's immune system: A. Attacks the liver B. Protects the liver C. Produces too much bile D. Produces too little bile Answer: A Which of the following lifestyle factors can help maintain a healthy liver? A. Limiting alcohol intake B. Eating a balanced diet C. Avoiding exposure to toxins D. All of the above Answer: D
Week 10: The Male Genital system Health Problems
Which of the following is a common symptom of testicular torsion? A. Swelling and severe pain in the testicle B. Frequent urination C. Hair loss on the scalp D. Muscle weakness in the legs Answer: A
Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) typically affects: A. Young boys B. Men over the age of 50 C. Teenage males D. All men equally Answer: B The primary function of the epididymis is to: A. Produce sperm B. Store and mature sperm C. Transport urine D. Secrete hormones Answer: B Which sexually transmitted infection (STI) can cause painful urination, discharge, and may lead to infertility in men if left untreated? A. Herpes simplex virus B. Human papillomavirus (HPV) C. Chlamydia D. HIV Answer: C Testicular cancer often presents as: A. A painless lump in the testicle B. Itchy skin around the groin C. Excessive sweating in the genital area D. Swelling of the feet Answer: A The prostate gland produces a fluid that: A. Makes up part of semen B. Helps in digestion C. Regulates blood pressure
B. Abnormal sperm motility C. Blockage in the reproductive tract D. All of the above Answer: D A varicocele is an abnormal enlargement of the veins in the: A. Penis B. Prostate C. Scrotum D. Bladder Answer: C Which vaccine can help prevent some strains of HPV, which can cause genital warts in men? A. MMR vaccine B. Tdap vaccine C. HPV vaccine D. Pneumococcal vaccine Answer: C Prostatitis is the inflammation of the: A. Penis B. Testicles C. Prostate gland D. Bladder Answer: C Which of the following lifestyle changes may help reduce the risk of male genital system problems? A. Maintaining a healthy weight B. Practicing safe sex C. Regular exercise D. All of the above
Answer: D
Week 11: The Female genital system and Breast Health Problems
Which of the following is a common symptom of a yeast infection in the female genital system? A. Itchy and painful vulva with white, cottage - cheese - like discharge B. Heavy menstrual bleeding C. Frequent urination with burning sensation D. Lower abdominal pain Answer: A Breast cancer can often be detected early through: A. Self - breast examination B. Mammography C. Clinical breast examination by a healthcare provider D. All of the above Answer: D Endometriosis occurs when the tissue similar to the lining of the uterus grows: A. Only inside the uterus B. Outside the uterus, in places like the ovaries, fallopian tubes, or pelvis C. In the breasts D. In the bladder Answer: B The cervix is the lower, narrow part of the: A. Uterus B. Vagina C. Ovary D. Fallopian tube Answer: A
D. All of the above Answer: D Vaginitis can be caused by: A. Bacterial overgrowth B. Fungal infections (e.g., Candida) C. Parasitic infections (e.g., Trichomonas) D. All of the above Answer: D A mammogram is an X - ray image of the: A. Uterus B. Breasts C. Ovaries D. Pelvis Answer: B Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) is associated with: A. Cysts on the ovaries, irregular periods, and hormonal imbalances B. Painful periods C. Breast enlargement D. Vaginal dryness Answer: A Which type of birth control method may reduce the risk of pelvic inflammatory disease? A. Intrauterine devices (IUDs) B. Birth control pills C. Condoms D. Diaphragms Answer: C Ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS) is a type of: A. Breast cancer that is confined to the milk ducts
B. Cervical cancer C. Ovarian cancer D. Uterine cancer Answer: A Regular Pap smears are used to screen for: A. Breast cancer B. Ovarian cancer C. Cervical cancer and precancerous changes D. Uterine fibroids Answer: C Week 12: The Endocrine System Health Problems Which of the following is a common symptom of hypothyroidism? A. Weight loss B. Tachycardia C. Fatigue D. Heat intolerance Answer: C Hyperthyroidism can be caused by: A. Autoimmune disorders such as Graves' disease B. Pituitary gland tumors C. Thyroid - stimulating hormone deficiency D. Iodine deficiency Answer: A What is the main treatment for diabetes mellitus type 1? A. Oral hypoglycemic agents B. Insulin injections C. Dietary modification only
B. Hypocalcemia C. Hyperkalemia D. Hypokalemia Answer: B Which of the following tests is used to diagnose diabetes? A. Fasting blood glucose test B. Complete blood count C. Liver function test D. Urinalysis for protein Answer: A Symptoms of hypoglycemia include: A. Polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia B. Shakiness, sweating, rapid heartbeat C. Weight gain, constipation, cold intolerance D. Headache, blurred vision, nausea Answer: B The primary function of the adrenal cortex is to produce: A. Epinephrine and norepinephrine B. Insulin and glucagon C. Cortisol, aldosterone, and sex hormones D. Thyroxine and triiodothyronine Answer: C Which of the following conditions is associated with an overproduction of growth hormone in adults? A. Dwarfism B. Gigantism C. Acromegaly D. Cretinism Answer: C
A common complication of long - term diabetes mellitus is: A. Renal failure B. Lung cancer C. Osteoporosis D. Migraine headaches Answer: A Which hormone helps regulate blood calcium levels? A. Insulin B. Calcitonin C. Glucagon D. Adrenaline Answer: B In type 2 diabetes, the body's cells become: A. Hypersensitive to insulin B. Resistant to insulin C. Unable to produce glucagon D. Overproducing thyroxine Answer: B Which of the following is a sign of hyperaldosteronism? A. Hypotension B. Hyperkalemia C. Hypertension and hypokalemia D. Hypoglycemia Answer: C The treatment for hyperthyroidism may include: A. Thyroid - stimulating hormone replacement B. Radioactive iodine therapy C. Insulin injections D. Calcium supplements
A. Joint deformity B. Loss of sensation C. Pain, swelling, and muscle spasms D. Numbness in the extremities Answer: C Osteoarthritis is characterized by: A. Inflammation of the synovial membrane B. Degeneration of joint cartilage C. Autoimmune destruction of joints D. Abnormal bone growth Answer: B A fracture that breaks the skin is called: A. Greenstick fracture B. Compound fracture C. Simple fracture D. Comminuted fracture Answer: B Which of the following is a risk factor for developing gout? A. Low - purine diet B. High alcohol consumption C. Regular exercise D. Low body mass index Answer: B Rickets in children is caused by a deficiency of: A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin C C. Vitamin D D. Vitamin K Answer: C
The main treatment for a mild sprained ankle is the RICE method, which stands for: A. Rest, Ice, Compression, Elevation B. Relax, Immobilize, Cool, Exercise C. Recover, Incline, Compress, Energize D. Rest, Inhibit, Compress, Elevate Answer: A A disease that causes progressive muscle weakness due to an autoimmune disorder is: A. Muscular dystrophy B. Myasthenia gravis C. Osteomalacia D. Fibromyalgia Answer: B Which of the following is a sign of a dislocated joint? A. Normal range of motion B. Deformity, pain, and inability to move the joint C. Mild discomfort and swelling D. Bruising without pain Answer: B The most common site for a stress fracture is in the: A. Femur B. Tibia C. Humerus D. Radius Answer: B Which of the following is a treatment for osteoporosis? A. Bisphosphonates B. Antibiotics
