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Various aspects of security and safety in healthcare facilities, including planning and preparation, response procedures, regulatory bodies, property boundaries, preventative maintenance, team building, tactical evaluation, incident reporting, legal considerations, facility design, pharmacy operations, visitor management, infant abduction prevention, access control, identity theft prevention, emergency management, and risk assessment. It provides guidance on best practices, regulatory requirements, and strategies to ensure the safety and security of patients, staff, and visitors in healthcare settings.
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Which of these does The Joint Commission deem a critical area of the emergency management plan? A. Communications B. Food C. Mortuary services D. Decontamination - -----CORRECT ANSWER---------------A. The Joint Commission deems COMMUNICATIONS to be a critical area of the emergency management plan. Which of these are required in exercising the organization's emergency management plan? A. Monthly testing B. Two exercises yearly C. An exercise with actual patients D. An exercise using a medical evacuation helicopter ------CORRECT ANSWER---------------B. TWO EXERCISES YEARLY are required in exercising the organization's emergency management plan. Which of these is an operational function of security officers during emergency situations? A. Patient treatment B. Crowd Control C. Spokesperson to the media D. Initiation of facility evacuation ------CORRECT ANSWER---------------B. CROWD CONTROL is an operational function of Security Officers during emergency situations. What are the two key elements in civil disturbance planning?
A. Planning and preparation B. Planning and response C. Preparation and response D. Preparation and documentation. ------CORRECT ANSWER---------------B. PLANNING AND RESPONSE are the two key elements in civil disturbance planning. Which of the following is NOT a valid assumption when developing a plan for response to a civil disturbance? A. Availability of adequate staffing may be affected B. Planning and coordination will be an ongoing activity C. Outside services such as transportation and deliveries will not be affected D. Needed response by police and fire may be delayed ------CORRECT ANSWER---------------C. OUTSIDE SERVICES SUCH AS TRANSPORTATION AND DELIVERIES WILL NOT BE AFFECTED is NOT a valid assumption when developing a plan for response to a civil disturbance. Who should handle any demonstrator action on public sidewalks and streets? A. Administration B. Security C. Facility personnel D. Local law enforcement ------CORRECT ANSWER---------------D. LOCAL LAW ENFORCEMENT should handle any demonstrator action on public sidewalks and streets. Which of the following is a HIPPA violation?
Theft of film for its silver content is a risk for which department? A. Plan services B. Housekeeping C. Radiology D. Laboratory ------CORRECT ANSWER---------------C. Theft of film for its silver content is a risk for the RADIOLOGY department. Employees of which department are found all over the facility and often unlock all doors to the department they are working in at the time? A. Radiology B. Materials management C. Bio-medical engineering D. Housekeeping ------CORRECT ANSWER---------------D. HOUSEKEEPING employees are found all over the facility and often unlock all doors to the department they are working in at the time. The security department is considered which type of department? A. Support B. Clinical C. Direct patient care B. Service ------CORRECT ANSWER---------------A. The security department is considered a SUPPORT department. Which of the following defines vulnerability? A. The act of being physically wounded B. Something with the potential to be physically wounded or open to attack or damage C. Possibility of loss
D. The act of being attacked ------CORRECT ANSWER---------------B. Vulnerability is defined as SOMETHING WITH THE POTENTIAL TO BE PHYSICALLY WOUNDED OR OPEN TO ATTACK OR DAMAGE. Which of the following is NOT an important risk measurement tool? A. Security inspections and surveys B. Security patrol and incident reports C. Law enforcement crime statistic reports and analyses D. Irregular patrols by untrained personnel ------CORRECT ANSWER-------- -------D. IRREGULAR PATROLS BY UNTRAINED PERSONNEL is NOT an important risk measurement tool. Which of the following is NOT an appropriate response to a disturbance? A. Call for medical, security backup, or local police assistance, if required B. Observe or identify the person(s) causing the disturbance, and provide area and crowd control C. Step up to the people without backup D. Notify your supervisor other appropriate facility personnel per policy ------ CORRECT ANSWER---------------C. STEP UP TO THE PEOPLE WITHOUT BACKUP is NOT an appropriate response to a disturbance. Which agency issued guidelines for workplace violence? A. The Joint Commission B. OSHA C. NFPA
Which of the following describes the basic functions of lock sets? A. Manual, office, classroom, storage and passage B. Classroom, electronic, storage, privacy and passage C. Office, classroom, storage, privacy and passage D. Keyless, office, storage, privacy and passage ------CORRECT ANSWER---------------C. OFFICE, CLASSROOM, STORAGE, PRIVACY AND PASSAGE describes the basic functions of lock sets. What three components make up the Access Control Triad? A. Identification systems, staff education and training, and badging B. Identification systems, staff education and training, and physical security safeguards C. Staff education and training, video surveillance, and physical security safeguards D. Identification systems, proprietary logo usage, and staff education and training ------CORRECT ANSWER---------------B. The three components making up the Access Control Triad are IDENTIFICATION SYSTEMS, STAFF EDUCATION AND TRAINING AND PHYSICAL SECURITY SAFEGUARDS. Which of the following greatly improves the effectiveness of an access control system? A. Signage B. Magnetic locks C. Magnetic swipe cards D. Fences ------CORRECT ANSWER---------------A. SIGNAGE greatly improves the effectiveness of an access control system.
What is the number one factor in determining if the security force should be armed with firearms? A. A needs assessment B. The type of weapon C. Which state your facility is in D. How large a staff in the security force ------CORRECT ANSWER----------- ----A. A NEEDS ASSESSMENT is the number one factor in determining if the security force should be armed with firearms. What is the most important piece of equipment a security officer carries? A. Handcuffs B. Baton C. Two-way radio D. Keys ------CORRECT ANSWER---------------C. The TWO-WAY RADIO is the most important piece of equipment a security officer carries. What two things should be used regardless of the type of vehicle patrol used? A. Helmets and preventative maintenance B. Preventative maintenance program and shift-by-shift inspections C. Supervisor inspections and helmets D. Battery maintenance and inspections ------CORRECT ANSWER----------- ----B. PREVENTATIVE MAINTENANCE PROGRAM AND SHIFT-BY- SHIFT INSPECTIONS should be used regardless of the type of vehicle patrol used. Which of the following is NOT one of the classifications of healthcare organizations? A. Proprietary or for-profit B. Not for-profit C. Government-supported D. Individual healthcare ------CORRECT ANSWER---------------D. INDIVIDUAL HEALTHCARE is NOT one of the classifications of healthcare organizations.
How should friendships and inter-personal relationships between security officers and staff members from other departments be treated? A. Discouraged B. Encouraged C. Encouraged, but monitored D. Encouraged, but security staff educated about ethics and avoiding favoritism ------CORRECT ANSWER---------------D. Friendships and inter- personal relationships between security officers and staff members from other departments should be ENCOURAGED, BUT SECURITY STAFF EDUCATED ABOUT ETHICS AND AVOIDING FAVORITISM. Which of the following allows a department to assess its cost-effectiveness within an organization? A. Crime analysis B. Risk assessment C. Benchmarking D. Evaluation surveys ------CORRECT ANSWER---------------C. BENCHMARKING allows a department to assess its cost-effectiveness within an organization. What must the primary overriding concern of any security department be? A. Its image B. The safety and well-being of anyone in the facility. C. The goals and mission of the entity employing the security services D. Cost-effectiveness ------CORRECT ANSWER---------------B. The safety and well-being of anyone in the facility must the primary overriding concern of any security department. Which of the following are skills a security professional should have and use at all times? A. Good observation skills B. Good communications skills
C. Tolerance D. All of the Above ------CORRECT ANSWER---------------D. ALL OF THE ABOVE: A security professional should have and use GOOD OBSERVATION SKILLS, GOOD COMMUNICATIONS SKILLS AND TOLERANCE at all times. Why are vendors potentially a high security risk to a healthcare facility? A. Vendors often have access to sensitive areas yet staff of the healthcare organization may know very little about vendors' backgrounds B. Vendors typically drive large vehicles that can conceal large amounts of stolen property or contraband. C. Competing vendors may clash at a facility D. Vendors may be bringing in high-demand products that could be targeted for theft. ------CORRECT ANSWER---------------A. Vendors are potentially a high security risk to a healthcare facility because VENDORS OFTEN HAVE ACCESS TO SENSITIVE AREAS YET STAFF OF THE HEALTHCARE ORGANIZATION MAY KNOW VERY LITTLE ABOUT VENDORS' BACKGROUNDS. In the patient- and family-centered care philosophy, who determines which individuals are part of the patient's family? A. Patient's parents or legal guardians B. Nursing staff C. Attending physician D. The patient, provided he or she is developmentally mature and competent to do so. ------CORRECT ANSWER---------------D. In the patient- and family-centered care philosophy, THE PATIENT, determines which individuals are part of the patient's family, PROVIDED HE OR SHE IS DEVELOPMENTALLY MATURE AND COMPETENT TO DO SO.
Which of the following may union members NOT do during picketing? A. Carry signs B. Protest management decisions C. Block entrances to the facility D. Congregate outside the facility ------CORRECT ANSWER---------------C. Union members may not BLOCK ENTRANCES TO THE FACILITY during picketing. Which of the following is NOT a true statement about customers' perceptions of their experience? A. Interaction is subject to personal interpretation B. Interaction can only be perceived by the words stated C. Interaction is affected by body language D. Interaction is affected by all of your actions ------CORRECT ANSWER---- -----------B. INTERACTION CAN ONLY BE PERCEIVED BY THE WORDS STATED is NOT a true statement about customer's perception of their experience.. Which of the following is NOT one of the three powerful, personal reasons to provide great customer service? A. More job satisfaction B. Less stress and hassle C. Trying to impress your supervisor D. More job success ------CORRECT ANSWER---------------C. TRYING TO IMPRESS YOUR SUPERVISOR is NOT one of the three powerful, personal reasons to provide great customer service. Which of the following describes the main objective of good customer service? A. To make the customer walk away with a positive feeling
B. To help the customer see that someone tried, even though the customer's wants were not met C. To make the customer think that no one cares about the concern raised by the customer D. To help the customer walk away with a neutral feeling ------CORRECT ANSWER---------------A. The main objective of good customer service is TO MAKE THE CUSTOMER WALK AWAY WITH A POSITIVE FEELING [about the encounter]. Which of the following is the definition of a customer? A. External paying customer B. Internal customer C. Non-paying external customer D. Anyone with whom you interact ------CORRECT ANSWER---------------D. A customer is defined as ANYONE WITH WHOM YOU INTERACT. Which of the following is NOT a common technique to use when providing good customer service? A. Acknowledge the customer's needs B. Use inappropriate body language C. Provide alternatives D. Say thank you ------CORRECT ANSWER---------------B. USING INAPPROPRIATE BODY LANGUAGE is NOT a common technique to use when providing good customer service. Which of the following is NOT a true statement? A. Team building encourages employee involvement in planning, problem solving, and decision making within the organization. B. Team building promotes a better understanding of decisions.
A. No clearly defined purpose or goals B. Lack of employee buy-in to team building C. Employees conditioned to value individual achievement D. Any of the above ------CORRECT ANSWER---------------A. Failure of teams can usually be attributed to NO CLEARLY DEFINED PURPOSE OR GOALS. Which of the following is NOT an opportunity derived from patrol? A. Getting to know the community B. Establishing positive relationships and partnerships C. Improving communications D. Using the security vehicle to go offsite ------CORRECT ANSWER---------- -----D. USING THE SECURITY VEHICLE TO GO OFFSITE is NOT an opportunity derived from patrol. Which is the most common patrol approach? A. Inconspicuous B. Routine C. Conspicuous D. Foot ------CORRECT ANSWER---------------C. CONSPICUOUS is most common patrol approach. Which of the following are the three key elements of a good patrol? A. Hearing, documentation, and memory B. Observation, perception and memory C. Perception, memory, and documentation D. Time, memory and perception ------CORRECT ANSWER---------------B. OBSERVATION, PERCEPTION, AND MEMORY are the three key elements of a good patrol. What type of patrol covers all areas equally with high visibility? A. Selective
B. Directed C. Vehicle D. Routine ------CORRECT ANSWER---------------D. ROUTINE is the type of patrol that covers all areas equally with high visibility. Which of the following is an example of something you should do while patrolling? A. Let employees know you are in the area B. Get careless C. Be a hero unnecessarily D. Get separated from your equipment ------CORRECT ANSWER------------- --A. LETTING EMPLOYEES KNOW THAT YOU ARE IN THE AREA is an example of something you should do while patrolling. Security Officers must interact in a professional manner with which group of people? A. Patients B. Visitors C. Employees D. Physicians E. All of the above ------CORRECT ANSWER---------------E. ALL OF THE ABOVE: Security Officers must interact in a professional manner with PATIENTS, VISITORS, EMPLOYEES, and PHYSICIANS. Which trait or skill is NOT desirable for a security officer to possess? A. Strong communications skills B. Compassion C. Ability to speak loudly D. Ability to express care and understanding. ------CORRECT ANSWER---- -----------C. The ABILITY TO SPEAK LOUDLY is NOT a desirable trait or skill for a security officer to possess.
D. American Society of Healthcare Engineers (ASHE) ------CORRECT ANSWER---------------A. The accreditation body that mandates the provision of a secure healthcare environment is THE JOINT COMMISSION. Generally a security officer does what during a robbery? A. Confronts the criminal B. Observes and reports C. Enters the area with the police D. Leaves the area unattended ------CORRECT ANSWER---------------B. Generally, a security officer OBSERVES AND REPORTS during a robbery. Which of the following is NOT a disadvantage of a protective vest? A. Relative short life B. Expense C. Discomfort and restrictiveness D. Avoiding or minimizing injury ------CORRECT ANSWER---------------D. AVOIDING OR MINIMIZING INJURY is NOT a disadvantage of a protective vest. Which of the following items is NOT security equipment? A. Flashlight B. Portable radio C. Handcuffs D. CPR pocket mask ------CORRECT ANSWER---------------D. CPR POCKET MASK is NOT security equipment. Which of the following does NOT apply when an officer has decided to use force for self-defense or to defend another person? A. Must be reasonable B. Must be prudent C. Must be able to inflict pain
D. Must be defensible ------CORRECT ANSWER---------------C. MUST BE ABLE TO INFLICT PAIN does NOT apply when an officer has decided to use force for self-defense or to defend another person. Which of the following is a professional attribute? A. Image B. Posture C. Attitude D. Initiative E. All of the above ------CORRECT ANSWER---------------E. ALL OF THE ABOVE: IMAGE, POSTUIRE, ATTITUDE, AND INITIATIVE are all professional attributes. The self-disciplined officer does NOT do which of the following? A. Take an interest in the job B. Look for ways to improve safety C. Call a routine duty a waste of time D. Look for ways to improve recommended procedures ------CORRECT ANSWER---------------C. The self-disciplined officer does NOT CALL A ROUTINE DUTY A WASTE OF TIME. Non-verbal communication accounts for what percentage of communication? A. 57 percent B. 49 percent C. 89 percent D. 94 percent ------CORRECT ANSWER---------------D. Non-verbal communication accounts for 94 percent of communication. Which organization developed a code of ethics for healthcare security? A. International Association for Healthcare Safety and Security (IAHSS) B. National Fire Protection Agency (NFPA)