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Hepatitis Transmission and Nursing Care, Exams of Nursing

University of Denver (DU)Nursing

Information on the transmission of hepatitis a and b, as well as nursing care considerations for administering medications, blood products, and caring for clients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (copd) and depression. Topics such as fecal-oral transmission of hepatitis a, body fluid transmission of hepatitis b, medication administration best practices, blood product administration, and therapeutic communication in mental health settings. The information presented could be useful for nursing students or healthcare professionals to understand the modes of transmission for different types of hepatitis, proper medication administration techniques, and effective communication strategies when caring for clients with various health conditions.

Typology: Exams

2023/2024

Available from 08/05/2024

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Alternate Format Test 4 (SATA) Actual Exam
Questions | 100% Correct Answers | Verified
2024 Version
The nurse notes that a patient is positive for the hepatitis B surface antigen. Which questions should the
nurse include in the patient's assessment to help determine the source of the infection?
Select all that apply.
1. "Have you been anywhere where the water may have been contaminated?"
2. "Have you eaten any food in areas where the workers may not have had access to hand washing?"
3. "Have you had unprotected sex with anyone who has hepatitis B?"
4. "Have you eaten any raw shellfish lately?"
5. "Have you had a recent blood transfusion?"
6. "Do you share needles with anyone?" - ✔✔Show/hide explanation
1) hepatitis A is spread through the fecal-oral route by ingestion of fecal contaminants
2) hepatitis A is spread through the fecal-oral route by ingestion of fecal contaminants
3) CORRECT - hepatitis B is shed in the body fluid of infected individuals; a mode of transmission of
hepatitis B is from unprotected sex with someone who is infected
4) refers to transmission hepatitis A
5) CORRECT - hepatitis B is shed in the body fluid of infected individuals; a mode of transmission of
hepatitis B is from blood transfusions
6) CORRECT - hepatitis B is shed in the body fluid of infected individuals; a mode of transmission of
hepatitis B is needle sharing
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Download Hepatitis Transmission and Nursing Care and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!

Alternate Format Test 4 (SATA) Actual Exam

Questions | 100% Correct Answers | Verified

2024 Version

The nurse notes that a patient is positive for the hepatitis B surface antigen. Which questions should the nurse include in the patient's assessment to help determine the source of the infection? Select all that apply.

  1. "Have you been anywhere where the water may have been contaminated?"
  2. "Have you eaten any food in areas where the workers may not have had access to hand washing?"
  3. "Have you had unprotected sex with anyone who has hepatitis B?"
  4. "Have you eaten any raw shellfish lately?"
  5. "Have you had a recent blood transfusion?"
  6. "Do you share needles with anyone?" - ✔✔Show/hide explanation
  1. hepatitis A is spread through the fecal-oral route by ingestion of fecal contaminants
  2. hepatitis A is spread through the fecal-oral route by ingestion of fecal contaminants
  3. CORRECT - hepatitis B is shed in the body fluid of infected individuals; a mode of transmission of hepatitis B is from unprotected sex with someone who is infected
  4. refers to transmission hepatitis A
  5. CORRECT - hepatitis B is shed in the body fluid of infected individuals; a mode of transmission of hepatitis B is from blood transfusions
  6. CORRECT - hepatitis B is shed in the body fluid of infected individuals; a mode of transmission of hepatitis B is needle sharing

The nurse provides care for a newly delivered infant with a temperature of 97.2 °F (36.2°C). Which actions will the nurse take when caring for this newborn? Select all that apply.

  1. Place the newborn skin-to-skin on the mother's chest.
  2. Double wrap the newborn in blankets from the clean linen cart.
  3. Place a hat/cap on the newborn's head.
  4. Place the dry and diapered newborn under a radiant warmer.
  5. Bathe the newborn in warm water while protecting the umbilical stump. - ✔✔Show/hide explanation
  1. CORRECT- Infant needs to be warmed. Skin-to-skin maternal-infant contact can help raise the infant's temperature.
  2. Cover the couplet with a warmed blanket. Blankets for newborns with a low temperature need to be pre-warmed; blankets from the linen cart are not pre-warmed.
  3. CORRECT - Covering the newborn's head with a hat/cap, or swaddling in a blanket with its head covered, will help prevent heat loss from the head.
  4. CORRECT - Newborns need to wear only a diaper under a radiant warmer; this action increases the surface area to absorb the radiant heat.
  5. Newborns need to be thermodynamically stable prior to the first bath. The newborn will lose heat due to evaporation during the bath. The client was recently admitted from the emergency department. The nurse prepares the client's prescribed medications. Which steps does the nurse take to ensure the client receives the correct medication? Select all that apply.
  1. Notify the nurse's attorney.
  2. Complete an occurrence report. - ✔✔Show/hide explanation
  1. CORRECT - One of the nurse's role is evaluation of therapeutic modalities, even if the patient receives an incorrect treatment.
  2. CORRECT - The nurse needs to notify the health care provider, the patient, and the charge nurse/nurse manager all need to be informed of the error.
  3. Risk Management will be informed via the occurrence/incident report. The department does not need to be informed separately. If the error is significant, e.g. resulted in a death, then the nurse manager will need to contact the Risk Manager.
  4. CORRECT - Appropriate action.
  5. An attorney needs to be involved only if the patient is harmed. There is no information indicating harm, and harm is not automatically assumed in the event of an erroneous medication administration.
  6. CORRECT - The nurse needs to complete an occurrence/incident report. The nurse prepares a dose of enoxaparin (Lovenox) for the patient after a hip replacement. Which supplies will the nurse need to best deliver the prescribed medication from a multi-dose vial? Select all that apply.
  1. A 3 mL syringe.
  2. A 28 gauge needle.
  3. A medication cup.
  4. Alcohol swabs.
  5. A medication label. - ✔✔Show/hide explanation
  1. Lovenox is only administered subcutaneously (SQ). A routine dose of Lovenox is less than 1 mL and is most safely administered from a 1 mL syringe.
  1. CORRECT - A smaller gauge needle is appropriate because the medication is delivered subcutaneously.
  2. A medication cup is not necessary because the medication is delivered SQ.
  3. CORRECT - Alcohol swabs are needed to prepare the skin prior to administration.
  4. CORRECT - For safety reasons, the medication must be labeled after it is drawn. An 88-year-old client has two units of packed blood cells ordered for transfusion. The client does not have an IV. Which supplies does the nurse gather when preparing to administer the blood? Select all that apply.
  1. Secondary solution of 5% dextrose solution.
  2. Filtered piggyback tubing.
  3. 20 gauge IV cannula.
  4. Blood pressure cuff.
  5. Thermometer.
  6. Glucometer. - ✔✔Show/hide explanation
  1. when administering blood, the secondary solution is normal saline, which reduces the risk of hemolysis of the red cells
  2. CORRECT — blood is administered with a 20-micron in-line filter
  3. CORRECT — age consideration for this client is the administration of blood through a smaller-bore cannula (20 or 22 gauge); nursing care will require a slower administration of the blood
  4. CORRECT — frequent vital signs are required when administering blood
  1. CORRECT— Two client identifiers must be determined before administering any medication. Using a bar code system is an appropriate action. The patient is admitted to the ambulatory care unit for cataract removal and lens replacement. The nurse marks the patient's left eye after verifying the consent with the patient. During the immediate pre- operative period, the nurse calls for a "time out." Which actions will be included in the "time out"? Select all that apply.
  1. The surgeon will indicate the left eye is the operative eye.
  2. The anesthesiologist will verify the consent has been signed.
  3. The scrub nurse will only use instruments indicated for the left eye.
  4. The patient will indicate cataract removal of the left eye.
  5. The circulating nurse will identify the patient by name and date of birth.
  6. The circulating nurse and the surgeon will agree that the left eye is the operative eye. - ✔✔Show/hide explanation
  1. CORRECT— A "time out" is called before the initiation of any surgical procedure. Cataract surgery is conducted with a local anesthetic and sedation. Before sedation, the patient can be involved in the "time out" procedure. The goals of the "time out" are to correctly identify the patient, correctly identify the operative site and side, and verify that the OR team is in agreement on the procedure to be performed.
  2. Verification of the consent is performed before arrival in the OR.
  3. Instruments are not identified as right- and left-sided.
  4. CORRECT— Part of the time out procedure.
  5. CORRECT— Part of the time out procedure.
  1. CORRECT—The goals of the "time out" are to correctly identify the patient, correctly identify the operative site and side, and verify that the OR team is in agreement on the procedure to be performed. The nurse manager of the newborn nursery notes an increase in the number of newborns readmitted to the hospital. The infants are diagnosed with infections acquired during their initial stays in the newborn nursery. The nurse manager decides to review medical asepsis with the nursery staff. Which actions should be included in the review? Select all that apply.
  1. Use of betadine on the prepuce of the penis before circumcision.
  2. Three-minute hand scrub before entering the nursery.
  3. Consistent use of hand sanitizer between caring for different newborns.
  4. Use of sterile gloves when providing newborn care before the newborn's bath.
  5. Changing the linen in the crib once a day. - ✔✔Show/hide explanation
  1. Medical asepsis is known as clean technique; uses techniques that inhibit growth and spread of pathogens. Using betadine prior to circumcision applies the principles of surgical asepsis.
  2. CORRECT— A 3-minute scrub is particular to the newborn nursery area and included in medical asepsis.
  3. CORRECT— Hand hygiene is included in medical asepsis.
  4. Non-sterile gloves are used.
  5. CORRECT— Changing linen is included in medical asepsis. The facility-wide nursing management team is concerned about the rise in the number of hospital acquired infections identified during the past year. The team decides to review the hospital policies that include sterile technique. Which policies will the team review?
  1. Contact the healthcare provider.
  2. Take pictures of the affected area.
  3. Scrub the perineal area with a bacteriostatic solution.
  4. Document the condition of the perineal area. - ✔✔Show/hide explanation
  1. Indwelling catheters increase the risk for infection.
  2. CORRECT— The healthcare provider needs to be informed. Cultures need to be ordered so the non- hospital acquired infection may be documented and treated accordingly. An infection is the likely cause for the agitation and confusion.
  3. Pictures of the peri area are not included in the standard of care.
  4. A bacteriostatic solution kills the microorganisms before an appropriate treatment plan can be determined.
  5. CORRECT—Appropriate action. The charge nurse reviews a list of patients admitted to an inpatient acute care unit. During the hand-off report, the nurse plans to alert the staff to the patients who are at highest risk for developing methicillin- resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). Which patients will the nurse include in the alert? Select all that apply.
  1. The patient who has had an indwelling Foley catheter in place for 48 hours.
  2. The patient who is receiving vincristine (Oncovin) through an indwelling port.
  3. The patient admitted with elevated troponin levels.
  4. The patient with a CD4 (T-cell) count of 200.
  5. The patient who is recovering from a closed fractured femur.
  6. The patient with a temperature of 100° F (37.7° C). - ✔✔Show/hide explanation
  1. CORRECT— MRSA is spread by direct contact and invades patients who have an existing portal of entry, such as a Foley catheter, a vascular access devise, and an endotracheal tube.
  1. CORRECT— MRSA is spread by direct contact and invades patients who have an existing portal of entry, such as a Foley catheter, a vascular access devise, and an endotracheal tube.
  2. The patient with the elevated troponin level has had a myocardial infarction and has no additional risk for MRSA.
  3. CORRECT— Immunocompromised people are at risk for MRSA. T-cell counts are generally between 500 - 1000; if below 400, the patient is immunocompromised.
  4. There is no additional information about the patient with the fractured femur to indicate additional risk of MRSA.
  5. There is no additional information about the patient with the fever to indicate additional risk of MRSA. A 78-year-old patient is transferred within an acute care facility to long-term care with the diagnosis of a stroke. The patient has become increasingly confused over the past 2 days. Multiple laboratory tests are prescribed. Which findings would cause the nurse to contact the healthcare provider? Select all that apply.
  1. Heart rate of 86 beats per minute.
  2. Blood glucose level of 96 mg/dL.
  3. Urinalysis positive for nitrites.
  4. Potassium of 3.8 mEq/L.
  5. Temperature of 101.3⁰ F (38.5⁰ C).
  6. White blood cell count of 18,000/mm3. - ✔✔Show/hide explanation
  1. The heart rate, blood glucose, and potassium levels are within normal limits.
  2. The heart rate, blood glucose, and potassium levels are within normal limits.
  1. wearing mask is part of standard precautions; wear mask, eye protection, face shield if there is danger of splashes or sprays of blood, bodily fluids, or excretions; does not apply when administering oral medication
  2. wearing eyewear is part of standard precautions; wear mask, eye protection, face shield if there is danger of splashes or sprays of blood, bodily fluids, or excretions; does not apply when administering oral medication
  3. foot covers not required
  4. hair cover not required The client recently diagnosed with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) prepares for discharge. The nurse coordinates the client's discharge with the case manager. Which items will the nurse request so the client's home care needs are met? Select all that apply.
  1. An apnea alarm.
  2. An incentive spirometer (IS).
  3. Oxygen therapy.
  4. Nebulizer equipment.
  5. A medical alert bracelet.
  6. A smoke alarm. - ✔✔Show/hide explanation
  1. Apnea is not a problem with COPD. Therefore, an alarm is not necessary.
  2. An incentive spirometer is used to increase inspiratory lung volume. COPD is a restrictive disease. Incentive spirometry is sustanined maximal inspiration used postoperatively to prevent or treat atelectasis.
  3. CORRECT— Oxygen therapy necessary for the client to help improve oxygenation.
  1. CORRECT— Nebulizer necessary for the client to help improve oxygenation.
  2. CORRECT— A medical alert bracelet is necessary for notification of the patient's condition.
  3. Home care nurse should assess for presence of smoke alarm. This is not the responsibility of the staff nurse. The nurse instructs the parents of a child recently diagnosed with cystic fibrosis (CF) about how to perform percussion and postural drainage. The nurse determines teaching is appropriate if the parents state which of the following? Select all that apply.
  1. "I shall position my child in a side lying position with the right side of the chest elevated on pillows."
  2. "I shall place my child in a prone with thorax and abdomen elevated."
  3. "I shall place my child supine with head elevated 20 degrees."
  4. "I shall place my child in a knee-chest position and place pillows under the chest."
  5. "I shall place my child in an upright position." - ✔✔Show/hide explanation
  1. CORRECT— The goal of postural drainage is to facilitate the movement of the thick secretions from the lungs that are prevalent in cystic fibrosis. Head is in dependent position which facilitates the movement of secretions.
  2. CORRECT — Head in dependent position which facilitates the movement of secretions.
  3. Head not in dependent position.
  4. CORRECT— Head in dependent position which will facilitate the movement of secretions from the lungs.
  5. Client sitting upright, head not in dependent position.

The patient presents to the emergency department reporting chest pain and heaviness in the chest. Which of the following will the nurse include in the patient's focused assessment for reports of chest pain? Select all that apply.

  1. Overall skin tone and color.
  2. Subcutaneous emphysema.
  3. Neck vein distention.
  4. Edema to the lower extremities.
  5. Capillary refill to the fingers and toes.
  6. Aphasia. - ✔✔Show/hide explanation
  1. CORRECT— Skin tone and color indicates overall circulatory patterns.
  2. Subcutaneous emphysema occurs with the rupture of alveoli and is seen with or before the development of a pneumothorax. The patient would display severe shortness of breath with a pneumothorax.
  3. CORRECT— Right-sided heart failure can cause neck vein distention when the patient changes from a supine to upright position.
  4. CORRECT— Edema to the lower extremities is a sign of right-sided failure.
  5. CORRECT— Peripheral perfusion is assessed with capillary refill.
  6. Aphasia is the loss of the ability to speak and is not associated with chest pain. The emergency department nurse reviews discharge instructions for the client diagnosed with angina. The nurse instructs the client about the difference between chest pain caused by angina and myocardial infarction. The nurse determines teaching is effective if the client makes which statement?

Select all that apply.

  1. "Pain caused by angina causes an intense stabbing pain."
  2. "Exertion may cause angina pain."
  3. "Pain caused by angina is relieved by sitting upright."
  4. "Pain caused by angina often occurs early in the morning."
  5. "Anginal pain is relieved with the administration of nitroglycerine (NTG)." - ✔✔Show/hide explanation
  1. Angina pain is characterized as a squeezing or viselike pain. Intense stabbing pain is more closely associated with a myocardial infarction (MI).
  2. CORRECT— Exertion, emotion, and/or extremes in temperature are precipitating factors in angina pain.
  3. Pericarditis is often relived by sitting upright, whereas angina pain is relieved with rest.
  4. MI pain more closely correlates with the morning hours.
  5. CORRECT— NTG often relieves angina pain. The nurse plans to teach about the benefits of probiotic therapy to the members of a local garden club. The nurse states that people diagnosed with which disorders benefit most from probiotic therapy? Select all that apply.
  1. Antibiotic-associated diarrhea.
  2. Coronary artery disease.
  3. Transient ischemic attacks.
  4. Irritable bowel syndrome.
  5. Lactose intolerance.
  1. isolation is a problem among the elderly, and they need to be encouraged to socialize in healthy and safe environments, such as a local senior center; clients should not socialize exclusively with one group
  2. CORRECT — vitamin D is necessary for calcium absorption; the easiest way to facilitate production of vitamin D is through limited exposure to the sun
  3. the tetanus booster is needed every 10 years; an influenza vaccination is needed annually; the pneumococcal vaccination is administered to high-risk groups younger than 65 years and to others at 65 years and every 5 years thereafter
  4. calcium intake should be 1000-1500 mg daily The nurse cares for the client reporting generalized fatigue despite getting 7 to 8 hours of sleep a night. The client's lab values are as follows: albumin 4.2 g/dL, sodium 142 mEq/L, hematocrit is 31%, and hemoglobin is 9.6 g/dL. Based on these lab values, the nurse should encourage the client to increase intake of which foods? Select all that apply.
  1. Chicken breast.
  2. Instant oatmeal.
  3. Steamed clams.
  4. Steamed green beans.
  5. Corn on the cob.
  6. Tuna. - ✔✔Show/hide explanation
  1. Client has indications of anemia which is decrease in red cells or hemoglobin content or altered hemoglobin function; caused by decreased red cell production, blood loss, or increased destruction of red cells. Tissue hypoxia causes fatigue, pallor of the skin and mucous membranes, increased respiratory rate and depth, dizziness, difficulty concentrating, cold intolerance. Organ meats are high in iron. Should encourage chicken giblets rather than the chicken breast.
  2. CORRECT— Fortified cereals good source of iron.
  1. CORRECT— Oysters, clams, and scallops (mollusks) are a top-ten source of iron.
  2. Dark, leafy vegetables such as spinach and collards are good sources of iron.
  3. Corn-on-the-cob is a carbohydrate food and not a good source of iron.
  4. Mollusks, red meat, egg yolks, and poultry giblets are good sources of iron. The clinic nurse instructs the client schedule for a hip replacement about the necessary devices needed at home after the procedure. The nurse determines teaching is successful if the client makes which statements? Select all that apply.
  1. "I will use an elevated toilet seat."
  2. "I will borrow a wheel chair from my neighbor."
  3. "I will have a hand brake installed on my car."
  4. "I will use a shower chair and a hand-held shower."
  5. "I have practiced using a grabber."
  6. "I will obtain a glucometer." - ✔✔Show/hide explanation
  1. CORRECT— After a hip replacement, it is important that the client prevent hip flexion and promote stability. Using an elevated toilet seat prevents hip flexion
  2. Client may require a walker, but under usual circumstances a wheelchair is not necessary.
  3. By the time the postoperative client can drive a car, a hand brake is not be necessary.
  4. CORRECT— Provides for safety and stability. Instruct client to avoiding bending to prevent hip flexion.