Download HESI A2 Critical Thinking Questions and certified answers. Qs During a nutritional assess and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!
HESI A2 Critical Thinking Questions and
certified answers.
Qs During a nutritional assessment, why is it important for the nurse to ask a patient what medications he or she is taking? A) Certain drugs can affect the metabolism of nutrients. B) The nurse needs to assess the patient for allergic reactions. C) Medications need to be documented on the record for the physician's review. D) Medications can affect one's memory and ability to identify food eaten in the last 24 hours. - n Ans✔ A) Certain drugs can affect the metabolism of nutrients. Page: 183 Analgesics, antacids, anticonvulsants, antibiotics, diuretics, laxatives, antineoplastic drugs, steroids, and oral contraceptives are drugs that can interact with nutrients, impairing their digestion, absorption, metabolism, or use. The other responses are not correct. Qs The nurse is reviewing the nutritional assessment of an 82-year-old patient. Which of these factors is most likely to affect the nutritional status of an elderly person? A) Increase in taste and smell B) Living alone on a fixed income C) Change in cardiovascular status D) Increase in gastrointestinal motility and absorption - n
Ans✔ B) Living alone on a fixed income Page: 176. Socioeconomic conditions frequently affect the nutritional status of the aging adult; these factors should be closely evaluated. Physical limitations, income, and social isolation are frequent problems that interfere with the acquisition of a balanced diet. A decrease in taste and smell and decreased gastrointestinal motility and absorption occur with aging. Cardiovascular status is not a factor that affects an elderly person's nutritional status. Qs
. When the mid-upper arm circumference and triceps skinfold of an 82-year-old man are evaluated, which is important for the nurse to remember? A) These measurements are no longer necessary for the elderly. B) Derived weight measures may be difficult to interpret because of wide ranges of normal. C) These measurements may not be accurate because of changes in skin and fat distribution. D) Measurements may be difficult to obtain if the patient is unable to flex his elbow to at least 90 degrees. - n Ans✔ C) These measurements may not be accurate because of changes in skin and fat distribution. Page: 191 Accurate mid-upper arm circumference and triceps skinfold measurements are difficult to obtain and interpret in older adults because of sagging skin, changes in fat distribution, and declining muscle mass. Body mass index and waist-to-hip ratio are better indicators of obesity in the elderly.
diminished olfactory and taste sensitivity, decreased saliva production, decreased visual acuity, and poor dentition. Qs
. The nurse keeps in mind that a thorough skin assessment is very important because the skin holds information about a person's: A) support systems. B) circulatory status. C) socioeconomic status. D) psychological wellness. - n Ans✔ B) circulatory status. Page: 211. The skin holds information about the body's circulation, nutritional status, and signs of systemic diseases as well as topical data on the integument itself. Qs . A patient tells the nurse that he has noticed that one of his moles has started to burn and bleed. When assessing his skin, the nurse would pay special attention to the danger signs for pigmented lesions and would be concerned with which additional finding? A) Color variation B) Border regularity C) Symmetry of lesions D) Diameter less than 6 mm - n Ans✔ A) Color variation
Pages: 212-213. Abnormal characteristics of pigmented lesions are summarized in the mnemonic ABCD: asymmetry of pigmented lesion, border irregularity, color variation, and diameter greater than 6 mm. Qs
. An elderly woman is brought to the emergency department after being found lying on the kitchen floor 2 days, and she is extremely dehydrated. What would the nurse expect to see upon examination? A) Smooth mucous membranes and lips B) Dry mucous membranes and cracked lips C) Pale mucous membranes D) White patches on the mucous membranes - n Ans✔ B) Dry mucous membranes and cracked lips Page: 215. With dehydration, mucous membranes look dry and lips look parched and cracked. The other responses are not found in dehydration. Qs A 65-year-old man with emphysema and bronchitis has come to the clinic for a follow-up appointment. On assessment, the nurse might expect to see which assessment finding? A) Anasarca B) Scleroderma C) Pedal erythema D) Clubbing of the nails - n Ans✔
C) ask additional questions regarding environmental irritants that may have caused this condition. D) suspect that this is a compound nevus, which is very common in young to middle-aged adults. - n Ans✔ B) refer the patient because of the suspicion of melanoma on the basis of her symptoms. The ABCD danger signs of melanoma are asymmetry, border irregularity, color variation, and diameter. In addition, individuals may report a change in size, development of itching, burning, bleeding, or a new-pigmented lesion. Any of these signs raise suspicion of malignant melanoma and warrant immediate referral. Qs
. The nurse is assessing for clubbing of the fingernails and would expect to find: A) a nail base that is firm and slightly tender. B) curved nails with a convex profile and ridges across the nail. C) a nail base that feels spongy with an angle of the nail base of 150 degrees. D) an angle of the nail base of 180 degrees or greater with a nail base that feels spongy. - n Ans✔ D) an angle of the nail base of 180 degrees or greater with a nail base that feels spongy. Pages: 217-218. The normal nail is firm at its base and has an angle of 160 degrees. In clubbing, the angle straightens to 180 degrees or greater and the nail base feels spongy. Qs 58. A patient has been admitted for severe psoriasis. The nurse can expect to see what finding in the patient's fingernails?
A) Splinter hemorrhages B) Paronychia C) Pitting D) Beau lines - n Ans✔ C) Pitting Pages: 248-250. Pitting nails are characterized by sharply defined pitting and crumbling of the nails with distal detachment, and they are associated with psoriasis. See Table 12- for descriptions of the other terms. Qs
- The nurse suspects that a patient has hyperthyroidism and laboratory data indicate that the patient's thyroxine and tri-iodothyronine hormone levels are elevated. Which of these findings would the nurse most likely find on examination? A) Tachycardia B) Constipation C) Rapid dyspnea D) Atrophied nodular thyroid - n Ans✔ A) Tachycardia Thyroxine and tri-iodothyronine are thyroid hormones that stimulate the rate of cellular metabolism, resulting in tachycardia. With an enlarged thyroid as in hyperthyroidism, the nurse might expect to find diffuse enlargement (goiter) or a nodular lump, but not an atrophied gland. Dyspnea and constipation are not findings associated with hyperthyroidism.
Pages: 276-277. Myxedema (hypothyroidism) is a deficiency of thyroid hormone that, when severe, causes a nonpitting edema or myxedema. The patient will have a puffy edematous face especially around eyes (periorbital edema), coarse facial features, dry skin, and dry, coarse hair and eyebrows. See Table 13-4, Abnormal Facial Appearances with Chronic Illnesses, for descriptions of the other responses. Qs
- The physician reports that a patient with a neck tumor has a tracheal shift. The nurse is aware that this means that the patient's trachea is: A) pulled to the affected side. B) pushed to the unaffected side. C) pulled downward. D) pulled downward in a rhythmic pattern. - n Ans✔ B) pushed to the unaffected side. Pages: 262-263. The trachea is pushed to the unaffected side with an aortic aneurysm, a tumor, unilateral thyroid lobe enlargement, and pneumothorax. The trachea is pulled to the affected side with large atelectasis, pleural adhesions, or fibrosis. Tracheal tug is a rhythmic downward pull that is synchronous with systole and occurs with aortic arch aneurysm. Qs
- During an assessment of an infant, the nurse notes that the fontanels are depressed and sunken. The nurse suspects which condition? A) Rickets B) Dehydration C) Mental retardation
D) Increased intracranial pressure - n Ans✔ B) Dehydration Pages: 265-266. Depressed and sunken fontanels occur with dehydration or malnutrition. Mental retardation and rickets have no effect on fontanels. Increased intracranial pressure would cause tense or bulging, and possibly pulsating fontanels. Qs
- The nurse is performing an assessment on a 7-year-old child who has symptoms of chronic watery eyes, sneezing, and clear nasal drainage. The nurse notices the presence of a transverse line across the bridge of the nose, dark blue shadows below the eyes, and a double crease on the lower eyelids. These findings are characteristic of: A) allergies. B) a sinus infection. C) nasal congestion. D) an upper respiratory infection. - n Ans✔ A) allergies. Page: 275. Chronic allergies often develop chronic facial characteristics. These include blue shadows below the eyes, a double or single crease on the lower eyelids, open-mouth breathing, and a transverse line on the nose. Qs
- A mother asks when her newborn infant's eyesight will be developed. The nurse should reply:
- The nurse notices the presence of periorbital edema when performing an eye assessment on a 70-year-old patient. The nurse should: A) check for the presence of exophthalmos. B) suspect that the patient has hyperthyroidism. C) ask the patient if he or she has a history of heart failure. D) assess for blepharitis because this is often associated with periorbital edema. - n Ans✔ C) ask the patient if he or she has a history of heart failure. Page: 312. Periorbital edema occurs with local infections, crying, and systemic conditions such as heart failure, renal failure, allergy, and hypothyroidism. Periorbital edema is not associated with blepharitis. Qs
- A patient comes to the emergency department after a boxing match, and his left eye is swollen almost shut. He has bruises on his face and neck. He says he is worried because he "can't see well" from his left eye. The physician suspects retinal damage. The nurse recognizes that signs of retinal detachment include: A) loss of central vision. B) shadow or diminished vision in one quadrant or one half of the visual field. C) loss of peripheral vision. D) sudden loss of pupillary constriction and accommodation. - n Ans✔ B) shadow or diminished vision in one quadrant or one half of the visual field.
Page: 316. With retinal detachment, the person has shadows or diminished vision in one quadrant or one half of the visual field. The other responses are not signs of retinal detachment. Qs
- A 68-year-old woman is in the eye clinic for a checkup. She tells the nurse that she has been having trouble with reading the paper, sewing, and even seeing the faces of her grandchildren. On examination, the nurse notes that she has some loss of central vision but her peripheral vision is normal. These findings suggest that: A) she may have macular degeneration. B) her vision is normal for someone her age. C) she has the beginning stages of cataract formation. D) she has increased intraocular pressure or glaucoma. - n Ans✔ A) she may have macular degeneration. Page: 285. Macular degeneration is the most common cause of blindness. It is characterized by loss of central vision. Cataracts would show lens opacity. Chronic open- angle glaucoma, the most common type of glaucoma, involves a gradual loss of peripheral vision. Qs
- An ophthalmic examination reveals papilledema. The nurse is aware that this finding indicates: A) retinal detachment. B) diabetic retinopathy. C) acute-angle glaucoma. D) increased intracranial pressure. - n
Qs
- The nurse is taking the history of a patient who may have a perforated eardrum. What would be an important question in this situation? A) "Do you ever notice ringing or crackling in your ears?" B) "When was the last time you had your hearing checked?" C) "Have you ever been told you have any type of hearing loss?" D) "Was there any relationship between the ear pain and the discharge you mentioned?" - n Ans✔ D) "Was there any relationship between the ear pain and the discharge you mentioned?" Pages: 327-328. Typically with perforation, ear pain occurs first, stopping with a popping sensation, and then drainage occurs. Qs
- The nurse is performing an ear examination of an 80-year-old patient. Which of these would be considered a normal finding? A) A high-tone frequency loss B) Increased elasticity of the pinna C) A thin, translucent membrane D) A shiny, pink tympanic membrane - n Ans✔ A) A high-tone frequency loss Pages: 337-338. A high-tone frequency hearing loss is apparent for those affected with presbycusis, the hearing loss that occurs with aging. The pinna loses elasticity, causing
earlobes to be pendulous. The eardrum may be whiter in color and more opaque and duller than in the young adult. Qs
- During an examination, the patient states he is hearing a buzzing sound and says that it is "driving me crazy!" The nurse recognizes that this symptom indicates: A) vertigo. B) pruritus. C) tinnitus. D) cholesteatoma. - n Ans✔ C) tinnitus. Pages: 328-329. Tinnitus is a sound that comes from within a person; it can be a ringing, crackling, or buzzing sound. It accompanies some hearing or ear disorders. Qs
- The nurse is testing the hearing of a 78-year-old man and keeps in mind the changes in hearing that occur with aging include which of the following? Select all that apply. A) Hearing loss related to aging begins in the mid 40s. B) The progression is slow. C) The aging person has low-frequency tone loss. D) The aging person may find it harder to hear consonants than vowels. E) Sounds may be garbled and difficult to localize. F) Hearing loss reflects nerve degeneration of the middle ear. - n Ans✔
A) adventitious sounds and limited chest expansion. B) increased tactile fremitus and dull percussion tones. C) muffled voice sounds and symmetrical tactile fremitus. D) absent voice sounds and hyperresonant percussion tones. - n Ans✔ C) muffled voice sounds and symmetrical tactile fremitus. Pages: 429-430. Normal lung findings include symmetric chest expansion, resonant percussion tones, vesicular breath sounds over the peripheral lung fields, muffled voice sounds, and no adventitious sounds. Qs
- A 65-year-old patient with a history of heart failure comes to the clinic with complaints of "being awakened from sleep with shortness of breath." Which action by the nurse is most appropriate? A) Obtain a detailed history of the patient's allergies and history of asthma. B) Tell the patient to sleep on his or her right side to facilitate ease of respirations. C) Assess for other signs and symptoms of paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea. D) Assure the patient that this is normal and will probably resolve within the next week. - n Ans✔ C) Assess for other signs and symptoms of paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea. Pages: 419-420. The patient is experiencing paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea: being awakened from sleep with shortness of breath and the need to be upright to achieve comfort. Qs
- When assessing tactile fremitus, the nurse recalls that it is normal to feel tactile fremitus most intensely over which location? A) Between the scapulae B) Third intercostal space, MCL C) Fifth intercostal space, MAL D) Over the lower lobes, posterior side - n Ans✔ A) Between the scapulae Page: 424. Normally, fremitus is most prominent between the scapulae and around the sternum. These are sites where the major bronchi are closest to the chest wall. Fremitus normally decreases as one progress down the chest because more tissue impedes sound transmission. Qs
- The nurse is reviewing the technique of palpating for tactile fremitus with a new graduate. Which statement by the graduate nurse reflects a correct understanding of tactile fremitus? "Tactile fremitus: A) is caused by moisture in the alveoli." B) indicates that there is air in the subcutaneous tissues." C) is caused by sounds generated from the larynx." D) reflects the blood flow through the pulmonary arteries." - n Ans✔ C) is caused by sounds generated from the larynx."
