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H.E.S.I RN Exit Exam 2025: Comprehensive Practice Test with High-Yield Questions, Exams of Nursing

Emory UniversityNursing

H.E.S.I RN Exit Exam 2025: Comprehensive Practice Test with High-Yield Questions and Detailed Answer Rationales for Guaranteed NCLEX Success

Typology: Exams

2024/2025

Available from 07/03/2025

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HESI RN Exit Exam 2025: Comprehensive Practice
Test with High-Yield Questions and Detailed
Answer Rationales for Guaranteed NCLEX
Success
Question 1:
A male client with stomach cancer returns to the unit following a total gastrectomy. He
has a nasogastric tube to suction and is receiving Lactated Ringer's solution at 75
mL/hour IV. One hour after admission to the unit, the nurse notes 300 mL of blood in the
suction canister, the client's heart rate is 155 beats/minute, and his blood pressure is
78/48 mmHg. In addition to reporting the finding to the surgeon. Which action should
the nurse implement first?
A. Administer a prescribed blood transfusion.
B. Ensure the nasogastric tube is patent and draining.
C. Prepare the client for an immediate return to surgery.
D. Increase the infusion rate of Lactated Ringer's solution.
Correct Answer: D. Increase the infusion rate of Lactated Ringer's solution.1
Rationale: The client is exhibiting signs of hypovolemic shock (tachycardia,
hypotension, significant blood loss). The immediate priority is to increase circulating
blood volume. Increasing the IV infusion rate of Lactated Ringer's solution is the
quickest way to achieve this while awaiting further orders, such as blood transfusion or
surgical intervention. Ensuring NG tube patency (option B) is important but secondary
to addressing the immediate circulatory compromise. Administering blood (option A)
requires a physician's order and cross-matching. Preparing for surgery (option C) may
be necessary, but stabilizing the client is the first step.
Question 2:
An adult male who fell 20 feet from the roof of this home has multiple injuries, including
a right pneumothorax. Chest tubes were inserted in the emergency department prior to
his transfer to the intensive care unit (ICU). The nurse notes that the suction control
chamber is bubbling at the -10 cm H2O mark, with fluctuation in the water seal, and
over the past hour 75 ml of bright red blood is measured in the collection chamber.
Which intervention should the nurse implement?
A. Add sterile water to the suction control chamber.
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Download H.E.S.I RN Exit Exam 2025: Comprehensive Practice Test with High-Yield Questions and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!

HESI RN Exit Exam 2025: Comprehensive Practice

Test with High-Yield Questions and Detailed

Answer Rationales for Guaranteed NCLEX

Success

Question 1: A male client with stomach cancer returns to the unit following a total gastrectomy. He has a nasogastric tube to suction and is receiving Lactated Ringer's solution at 75 mL/hour IV. One hour after admission to the unit, the nurse notes 300 mL of blood in the suction canister, the client's heart rate is 155 beats/minute, and his blood pressure is 78/48 mmHg. In addition to reporting the finding to the surgeon. Which action should the nurse implement first? A. Administer a prescribed blood transfusion. B. Ensure the nasogastric tube is patent and draining. C. Prepare the client for an immediate return to surgery. D. Increase the infusion rate of Lactated Ringer's solution. Correct Answer: D. Increase the infusion rate of Lactated Ringer's solution.^1 Rationale: The client is exhibiting signs of hypovolemic shock (tachycardia, hypotension, significant blood loss). The immediate priority is to increase circulating blood volume. Increasing the IV infusion rate of Lactated Ringer's solution is the quickest way to achieve this while awaiting further orders, such as blood transfusion or surgical intervention. Ensuring NG tube patency (option B) is important but secondary to addressing the immediate circulatory compromise. Administering blood (option A) requires a physician's order and cross-matching. Preparing for surgery (option C) may be necessary, but stabilizing the client is the first step. Question 2: An adult male who fell 20 feet from the roof of this home has multiple injuries, including a right pneumothorax. Chest tubes were inserted in the emergency department prior to his transfer to the intensive care unit (ICU). The nurse notes that the suction control chamber is bubbling at the - 10 cm H2O mark, with fluctuation in the water seal, and over the past hour 75 ml of bright red blood is measured in the collection chamber. Which intervention should the nurse implement? A. Add sterile water to the suction control chamber.

B. Clamp the chest tube and notify the healthcare provider immediately. C. Increase the suction to - 20 cm H2O to evacuate the blood more quickly. D. Continue to monitor the drainage and document the findings. Correct Answer: A. Add sterile water to the suction control chamber. Rationale: The bubbling in the suction control chamber should be gentle and continuous at the prescribed suction level (-10 cm H2O). If the water level is below the prescribed mark, the correct amount of suction is not being applied. Adding sterile water will ensure the ordered suction is maintained. Fluctuation in the water seal is a normal finding indicating patency of the system. While 75 mL of bright red blood in one hour is a significant amount and should be reported, the immediate intervention related to the chest tube system itself is to ensure proper suction. Clamping the chest tube (option B) is contraindicated unless there is a system leak or specific physician order. Increasing suction (option C) without an order is inappropriate and could damage lung tissue. Simply monitoring (option D) is insufficient given the potentially increasing blood loss. Question 3: A client who received hemodialysis yesterday is experiencing a blood pressure of 200/100 mmHg, heart rate 110 beats/minute, and respiratory rate 36 breaths/minute. The client is manifesting shortness of breath, bilateral 2+ pedal edema, and an oxygen saturation on room air of 89%. Which action should the nurse take first? A. Administer a prescribed antihypertensive medication. B. Elevate the client's legs and apply oxygen per nasal cannula. C. Begin supplemental oxygen. D. Notify the healthcare provider of the client's vital signs and symptoms. Correct Answer: C. Begin supplemental oxygen. Rationale: The client is exhibiting signs of fluid overload (hypertension, tachycardia, shortness of breath, edema, low oxygen saturation) which is a potential complication post-hemodialysis. The first priority is to address the hypoxemia by initiating supplemental oxygen to improve oxygen saturation. While administering antihypertensives (option A), elevating legs and applying oxygen (option B), and notifying the provider (option D) are all important actions, ensuring adequate oxygenation is the immediate priority. Option B suggests applying oxygen without first assessing the need and initiating it. Question 4:

Rationale: Urine specific gravity is a direct measure of the concentration of urine and is a reliable indicator of hydration status. A high specific gravity (normal range is typically 1.005-1.030) indicates concentrated urine and dehydration. Dry mucous membranes (option A) and thirst (option B) are subjective findings and can be influenced by other factors. Skin tenting (option D) is a less reliable indicator in older adults due to decreased skin elasticity. Question 6: After an inservice about electronic health record (EHR) security and safeguarding client information, the nurse observes a colleague going home with printed copies of client information in a uniform pocket. Which action should the nurse take? A. File a detailed incident report with the specific hiring facility. B. Directly confront the colleague about the potential HIPAA violation. C. Remind the colleague about the importance of EHR security. D. Report the observation to the nurse manager or supervisor. Correct Answer: D. Report the observation to the nurse manager or supervisor. Rationale: Observing a potential HIPAA violation requires action to protect patient confidentiality. The most appropriate initial step is to report the observation to the nurse manager or supervisor, who is responsible for investigating and addressing security breaches according to facility policy. Filing an incident report directly (option A) might be the eventual outcome but should typically be initiated through the chain of command. Directly confronting the colleague (option B) could be confrontational and may not result in proper reporting and investigation. Simply reminding the colleague (option C) is insufficient to address a potential security breach. Question 7: The nurse is evaluating a tertiary prevention program for clients with cardiovascular disease implemented in a rural health clinic. Which outcome indicates the program is effective? A. The incidence of new cases of cardiovascular disease in the community has decreased. B. Clients with risk factors for cardiovascular disease have adopted healthier lifestyles. C. Clients who incurred disease complications promptly received rehabilitation. D. The mortality rate from cardiovascular disease in the community has declined. Correct Answer: C. Clients who incurred disease complications promptly received rehabilitation.

Rationale: Tertiary prevention focuses on minimizing the impact of an existing disease and preventing complications. Prompt rehabilitation for clients who have experienced cardiovascular events (complications) is a key component of tertiary prevention. Option A describes primary prevention (preventing the disease from occurring). Option B describes secondary prevention (early detection and intervention to prevent progression). Option D could be influenced by various factors, including primary and secondary prevention efforts. Question 8: The nurse is caring for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who uses oxygen at 2 L/minute per nasal cannula continuously. The nurse observes that the client is having increased shortness of breath with respirations at 23 breaths/minute. Which action should the nurse implement first? A. Increase the oxygen flow rate to 4 L/minute per nasal cannula. B. Administer a prescribed bronchodilator medication. C. Instruct the client to perform pursed-lip breathing. D. Assess the delivery mechanism of the oxygen tank, tubing, and cannula. Correct Answer: D. Assess the delivery mechanism of the oxygen tank, tubing, and cannula.^2 Rationale: Before making any changes to the oxygen delivery or administering medications, the nurse should first ensure that the current oxygen delivery system is functioning correctly. Obstructions, leaks, or disconnections can lead to decreased oxygen delivery and increased shortness of breath. Increasing the oxygen flow rate (option A) without assessing the system could be inappropriate for a COPD patient who relies on hypoxic drive. Administering a bronchodilator (option B) and instructing on pursed-lip breathing (option C) are important interventions for COPD exacerbation but should be done after verifying the oxygen delivery. Question 9: Which statement by a client who is 24 hours post-subtotal thyroidectomy requires an immediate investigation by the nurse? A. "My throat is sore when I swallow." B. "I have to cough more since the surgery." C. "When I get out of bed quickly, I feel a little dizzy." D. "My fingers and toes are tingling." Correct Answer: D. "My fingers and toes are tingling."

C. Advice the client to maintain bedrest so that safety can be ensured. D. Assess the client's ability to transfer and determine the safest method and necessary assistance. Correct Answer: D. Assess the client's ability to transfer and determine the safest method and necessary assistance. Rationale: The nurse is responsible for ensuring patient safety and appropriate delegation of tasks. The nurse should first assess the client's mobility and weight, and then determine the safest method for transfer and the level of assistance required, which may involve more than one person or the use of assistive devices. Instructing the UAP to find another staff member (option A) is a possible solution but the nurse needs to first assess the situation. Encouraging an unsafe transfer (option B) is inappropriate. Advising the client to remain on bedrest (option C) restricts the prescribed activity without proper assessment. Question 12: A nurse determines that more than 25% of the students at a middle school are overweight. The nurse presents the information at the parent-teacher meeting. What action is most important for the nurse to include in the meeting? A. Provide statistics on the long-term health consequences of obesity. B. Discuss the importance of regular physical activity for children. C. Distribute a shopping list of suggested healthy snack items. D. Recommend specific weight-loss programs available in the community. Correct Answer: C. Distribute a shopping list of suggested healthy snack items. Rationale: While providing information on health consequences (option A) and the importance of physical activity (option B) is valuable, and recommending weight-loss programs (option D) might be appropriate later, providing concrete, actionable steps that parents can easily implement, such as healthy snack ideas, is the most important initial action. This empowers parents to make immediate positive changes in their children's diets. Question 13: After several months of chronic fatigue, morning stiffness, and joint pain, a young adult is diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis, and the healthcare provider prescribes prednisone. Which education should the nurse provide the client with regard to taking prednisone? A. Discontinue the medication if side effects become bothersome.

B. Take the medication on an empty stomach for better absorption. C. If sequential doses are missed, notify the healthcare provider. D. Increase the dosage if joint pain is not adequately controlled. Correct Answer: C. If sequential doses are missed, notify the healthcare provider. Rationale: Prednisone is a corticosteroid that should not be abruptly stopped or have significant dosage adjustments without medical guidance due to potential withdrawal symptoms and adrenal insufficiency. Missing sequential doses can disrupt the therapeutic effect and potentially lead to adverse outcomes. Discontinuing without consultation (option A) and increasing the dosage without an order (option D) are dangerous. Taking prednisone with food is usually recommended to minimize gastrointestinal upset (option B is incorrect).

  1. The psychiatric nurse is caring for clients on an adolescent unit. Which client requires the nurse's immediate attention? - - correct ans- - c. An 18-year-old client with antisocial behavior who is being yelled at by other clients
  2. The nurse caring for a child with mononucleosis can expect the child to exhibit which symptoms? - - correct ans- - b. Ear pain and fever.
  3. A client arrives for an annual physical exam and complains of having calf pain. The client's health history reveals peripheral atrial disease. Which question should the nurse ask the client about expected finding related to chronic arterial symptoms? - - correct ans- - b. Does the calf pain occur when walking short distances?
  4. The nurse is preparing to send a client to the cardiac catheterization lab for an angioplasty. Which client report is most important for them to explore further prior to the start of the procedure? - - correct ans- - d. Experience facial swelling after eating crab.
  5. The nurse is assessing a 4-year-old child with eczema. The child's skin is dry and scaly, and the mother reports that the child frequently scratches the lesions on the skin to the point of causing bleeding. Which guideline is indicated for care of this child? - - correct ans- - b. Apply baby lotion to the skin twice daily.
  1. An older client is admitted to the hospital because of recurring transient ischemic attacks. Neurological serial assessments for the past 24 hours were within normal limits. One day after admission, the client suddenly becomes confused and combative indicating impaired mental status (IMS). What intervention should the nurse implement first? - - correct ans- - b. Reduce environmental stimuli.
  2. The charge nurse in an extended care facility is organizing unit activities for the day. Which action may be safely delegated to the practical nurse (PN)? - - correct ans- - Establish blood pressure parameters for client monitoring
  3. During shift report, the charge nurse receives notice of several problems. Which problem should the nurse address first? - - correct ans- - d. A bucket of water was spilled in the hallway.
  4. An older adult client with chronic emphysema is admitted to the emergency room from home with acute onset of weakness, palpitations, and vomiting. Which information is most important for the nurse to obtain during the initial interview? - - correct ans- - Recent compliance with prescribed medications
  5. The nurse is feeding an older adult who was admitted with aspiration pneumonia. The client is weak and begins coughing while attempting to drink through a straw. Which intervention should the nurse implement? - - correct ans- - b. Monitor the client when using a straw for liquids.
  6. A male client with right-sided weakness calls for assistance with ambulating to the bathroom. What action should the nurse implement? - - correct ans- - b. Stand on the client's right side as he walks.
  7. An older client is admitted to the psychiatric unit for assessment of a recent onset of dementia. The nurse notes that in the evening this client often becomes restless, confused, and agitated. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement? - - correct ans- - b. Ensure that the client is assigned to a room close to the nurses' station.
  1. The nurse is caring for a client who is having a sickle cell crisis. What intervention should the nurse include in this client's plan of care? - - correct ans- - Ensure adequate IV and oral fluid intake.
  2. The nurse is teaching a primigravida about preeclampsia. Which finding are indicators of preeclampsia and should be reported to the healthcare provider? (select all that apply.) - - correct ans- - Blurred vision Headache. swollen hands
  3. A new nurse preparing to irrigate an intravenous catheter is attaching a 24-gauge needle. Which action should the charge nurse implement? - - correct ans- - b. Direct the nurse to change the IV tubing.
  4. A client with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIDH) is admitted with hyponatremia. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in the plan of care to protect the client from injury? - - correct ans- - Initiate seizure precautions.
  5. The nurse is assigned to provide care for a client who is scheduled for a laparoscopic cholecystectomy in two hours, at 0900, what nursing action is most important? - - correct ans- - Confirm that the client has been NPO since midnight.
  6. The nurse is conducing a visual screening of a group of older adults. Which finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately? - - correct ans- - d. Cloudy opacity of the crystalline lens.
  7. A 15-year-old male client was recently diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus. He tells the nurse that he is having difficulty adhering to his meal plan when he is with his friends. What nursing intervention is best for the nurse to implement? - - correct ans- - d. Assist him in identifying popular fast foods that are within his meal plan for diabetes.
  8. A male client in the final stages of terminal cancer tells his nurse that he wishes he could just be allowed to die. The client states that he is tired of fighting his illness and is only continuing treatments because his family wants him to live. Which action should
  1. A client has altered renal function and is being treated at home. The nurse recognizes that the most accurate indicator of fluid balance during the weekly visits is - - correct ans- - d. Weekly weight
  2. A client has been diagnosed with Zollinger-Ellison syndrome.Which information is most important for the nurse to reinforce with the client? - - correct ans- - b. It is critical to report promptly to your health care provider any findings of peptic ulcers
  3. A primigravida in the third trimester is hospitalized for preeclampsia. The nurse determines that the client's blood pressure is increasing. Which action should the nurse take first? - - correct ans- - b. Have the client turn to the left side
  4. The nurse is caring for a client in atrial fibrillation. The atrial heart rate is 250 and the ventricular rate is controlled at 75. Which of the following findings is cause for the most concern? - - correct ans- - A cold, pale lower leg
  5. The client with infective endocarditis must be assessed frequently by the home health nurse. Which finding suggests that antibiotic therapy is not effective, and must be reported by the nurse immediately to the healthcare provider? - - correct ans- - B) Fever of 103 degrees Fahrenheit (39.5 degrees Celsius)
  6. A client who had a vasectomy is in the post recovery unit at an outpatient clinic. Which of these points is most important to be reinforced by the nurse? - - correct ans- - A) Until the health care provider has determined that your ejaculate doesn't contain sperm, continue to use another form of contraception.
  7. A client who is to have antineoplastic chemotherapy tells the nurses of a fear of being sick all the time and wishes to try acupuncture. Which of these beliefs stated by the client would be incorrect about acupuncture? - - correct ans- - C) The flow of life is believed to flow through major pathways or nerve clusters in your body.
  1. The nurse is discussing with a group of students the disease Kawasaki. What statement made by a student about Kawasaki disease is incorrect? - - correct ans- - C) Kawasaki disease occurs most often in boys, children younger than age 5 and children of Hispanic descent
  2. A client has viral pneumonia affecting 2/3 of the right lung. What would be the best position to teach the client to lie in every other hour during first 12 hours after admission? - - correct ans- - A) Side-lying on the left with the head elevated 10 degrees
  3. A client has an indwelling catheter with continuous bladder irrigation after undergoing a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) 12 hours ago. Which finding at this time should be reported to the health care provider? - - correct ans- - minimal drainage into the urinary collection bag
  4. A nurse is performing CPR on an adult who went into cardiopulmonary arrest. Another nurse enters the room in response to the call. After checking the client's pulse and respirations, what should be the function of the second nurse? - - correct ans- - C) Participate with the compressions or breathing
  5. The nurse assesses a 72 year-old client who was admitted for right sided congestive heart failure. Which of the following would the nurse anticipate finding? - - correct ans- - B) Jugular vein distention
  6. A client with heart failure has a prescription for digoxin. The nurse is aware that sufficient potassium should be included in the diet because hypokalemia in combination with this medication - - correct ans- - Can predispose to dysrhythmias
  7. A nurse assesses a young adult in the emergency room following a motor vehicle accident. Which of the following neurological signs is of most concern? - - correct ans- - Pupils fixed and dilated
  8. A 14 year-old with a history of sickle cell disease is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of vaso-occlusive crisis. Which statements by the client would be most
  1. Which of these clients who call the community health clinic would the nurse ask to come in that day to be seen by the health care provider? - - correct ans- - I went to the bathroom and my urine looked very red and it didn't hurt when I went.
  2. A middle aged woman talks to the nurse in the health care provider's office about uterine fibroids also called leiomyomas or myomas. What statement by the woman indicates more education is needed? - - correct ans- - Fibroids that cause no problems still need to be taken out.
  3. An elderly client admitted after a fall begins to seize and loses consciousness. What action by the nurse is appropriate to do next? - - correct ans- - A) Stay with client and observe for airway obstruction
  4. A nurse is providing care to a primigravida whose membranes spontaneously ruptured (ROM) 4 hours ago. Labor is to be induced. At the time of the ROM the vital signs were T-99.8 degrees F, P-84, R-20, BP-130/78, and fetal heart tones (FHT) 148 beats/min. Which assessment findings taken now may be an early indication that the client is developing a complication of labor? - - correct ans- - A) FHT 168 beats/min
  5. A client with pneumococcal pneumonia had been started on antibiotics 16 hours ago. During the nurse's initial evening rounds the nurse notices a foul smell in the room. The client makes all of these statements during their conversation. Which statement would alert the nurse to a complication? - - correct ans- - B) "I have been coughing up foul- tasting, brown, thick sputum."
  6. The nurse is performing an assessment on a client in congestive heart failure. Auscultation of the heart is most likely to reveal - - correct ans- - S3 ventricular gallop
  7. Which of these observations made by the nurse during an excretory urogram indicate a complicaton? - - correct ans- - B) The client's entire body turns a bright red color
  1. A client is diagnosed with a spontaneous pneumothorax necessitating the insertion of a chest tube. What is the best explanation for the nurse to provide this client? - - correct ans- - "The tube will remove excess air from your chest."
  2. The nurse is reviewing laboratory results on a client with acute renal failure. Which one of the following should be reported immediately? - - correct ans- - Serum potassium 6 mEq/L
  3. The nurse is caring for a client undergoing the placement of a central venous catheter line. Which of the following would require the nurse's immediate attention? - - correct ans- - C) Dyspnea
  4. The nurse is performing a physical assessment on a client who just had an endotracheal tube inserted. Which finding would call for immediate action by the nurse? - - correct ans- - C) Pulse oximetry of 88
  5. A nurse checks a client who is on a volume-cycled ventilator. Which finding indicates that the client may need suctioning? - - correct ans- - D) restlessness
  6. The most effective nursing intervention to prevent atelectasis from developing in a post operative client is to - - correct ans- - Assist client to turn, deep breathe, and cough
  7. When caring for a client with a post right thoracotomy who has undergone an upper lobectomy, the nurse focuses on pain management to promote - - correct ans- - Deep breathing and coughing
  8. A nurse is to collect a sputum specimen for acid-fast bacillus (AFB) from a client. Which action should the nurse take first? - - correct ans- - D) Assist with oral hygiene
  9. The nurse is caring for a child immediately after surgical correction of a ventricular septal defect. Which of the following nursing assessments should be a priority? - - correct ans- - B) Assess for post operative arrhythmias
  1. The nurse is caring for a client who requires a mechanical ventilator for breathing. The high pressure alarm goes off on the ventilator. What is the first action the nurse should perform? - - correct ans- - B) Perform a quick assessment of the client's condition
  2. The health care provider order reads "aspirate nasogastric feeding (NG) tuber every 4 hours and check pH of aspirate." The pH of the aspirate is 10. Which action should the nurse take? - - correct ans- - A) Hold the tube feeding and notify the provider
  3. To prevent unnecessary hypoxia during suctioning of a tracheostomy, the nurse must - - correct ans- - A) Apply suction for no more than 10 seconds
  4. An antibiotic IM injection for a 2 year-old child is ordered. The total volume of the injection equals 2.0 ml The correct action is to - - correct ans- - administer the medication in 2 separate injections
  5. The nurse receives an order to give a client iron by deep injection. The nurse know that the reason for this route is to - - correct ans- - D) prevent the drug from tissue irritation Skip
  6. A client with heart failure has Lanoxin (digoxin) ordered. What would the nurse expect to find when evaluating for the therapeutic effectiveness of this drug? - - correct ans- - improved respiratory status and increased urinary output
  7. While providing home care to a client with congestive heart failure, the nurse is asked how long diuretics must be taken. What is the nurse's best response? - - correct ans- - C) "The medication must be continued so the fluid problem is controlled."
  8. A client is being discharged with a prescription for chlorpromazine (Thorazine). Before leaving for home, which of these findings should the nurse teach the client to report? - - correct ans- - B) Sore throat, fever
  1. A client is recovering from a hip replacement and is taking Tylenol #3 every 3 hours for pain. In checking the client, which finding suggests a side effect of the analgesic? - - correct ans- - D) No bowel movement for 3 days Skip
  2. A client is being maintained on heparin therapy for deep vein thrombosis. The nurse must closely monitor which of the following laboratory values? - - correct ans- - C) Activated PTT
  3. A client with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis has a percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) tube for the administration of feedings and medications. Which nursing action is appropriate? - - correct ans- - D) Flush adequately with water before and after using the tube
  4. The nurse has given discharge instructions to parents of a child on phenytoin (Dilantin). Which of the following statements suggests that the teaching was effective? -
  • correct ans- - B) "Our child should brush and floss carefully after every meal."
  1. The nurse is caring for a client with clinical depression who is receiving a MAO inhibitor. When providing instructions about precautions with this medication, which action should the nurse stress to the client as important? - - correct ans- - Avoid chocolate and cheese
  2. A parent asks the school nurse how to eliminate lice from their child. What is the most appropriate response by the nurse? - - correct ans- - D) Application of pediculicides
  3. A client diagnosed with cirrhosis of the liver and ascites is receiving Spironolactone (Aldactone). The nurse understands that this medication spares elimination of which element? - - correct ans- - B) Potassium
  4. The nurse is caring for a client receiving a blood transfusion who develops urticaria one-half hour after the transfusion has begun. What is the first action the nurse should