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HIT 220 Final Exam Study Guide ALL 973 ANSWERS AVAILABLE, Exams of Nursing

Craven Community College (CCC)Nursing

HIT 220 Final Exam Study Guide ALL 973 ANSWERS AVAILABLE HIT 220 Final Exam Study Guide ALL 973 ANSWERS AVAILABLE HIT 220 Final Exam Study Guide ALL 973 ANSWERS AVAILABLE HIT 220 Final Exam Study Guide ALL 973 ANSWERS AVAILABLE HIT 220 Final Exam Study Guide ALL 973 ANSWERS AVAILABLE HIT 220 Final Exam Study Guide ALL 973 ANSWERS AVAILABLE HIT 220 Final Exam Study Guide ALL 973 ANSWERS AVAILABLE HIT 220 Final Exam Study Guide ALL 973 ANSWERS AVAILABLE

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HIT 220 Final Exam Study Guide ALL 973

ANSWERS AVAILABLE

1. What BEST describes the level of EMS training that emphasizes activation of the EMS system and

provides immediate care for life-threatening problems?

a. Emergency Medical Dispatcher

b. Cardiac Care responder

c. EMT

d. Emergency Medical Responder

2. Which of the following is a personality trait required of EMTs?

a. Ability to lift and carry 125 pounds

b. Awareness of problems with color vision

c. Ability to dominate the patient

d. Control of personal habits

3. In 1966 the National Highway Safety Act charged which of the following agencies with the

development of emergency medical service standards?

a. U.S. Department of Transportation

b. U.S. Department of the Interior

c. U.S. Department of Health Services

d. U.S. Department of Homeland Security

4. Who is responsible for on-scene safety of EMS providers?

a. Traffic director

b. Law enforcement

c. All crew members

d. Triage officer

5. Which of the following is the primary responsibility of the EMT?

a. Protect and stabilize the patient

b. Communicate with other responders on the scene

c. Maintain personal health and safety

d. Provide emergency care

6. Upon arrival at the hospital, the EMT advises hospital personnel of the patient’s condition,

observations from the scene, treatment rendered, and other pertinent data to assure continuity

of care. This process is known as which of the following?

a. Transfer of care

b. Breach of duty

c. Definitive care

d. End of tour

7. What BEST describes the level of EMS training that emphasizes use of advanced airway devices

and some prehospital medication administration?

a. Advanced EMT

b. Paramedic

c. Emergency Medical Responder

d. EMT

8. Centralized coordination or emergency medical access, transportation, and care most refers to

which of the following?

a. Emergency preparedness plan

b. Trauma system

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ANSWERS AVAILABLE

What BEST describes the level of EMS training that emphasizes activation of the EMS system and provides immediate care for life-threatening problems? a. Emergency Medical Dispatcher b. Cardiac Care responder c. EMT d. Emergency Medical Responder
Which of the following is a personality trait required of EMTs? a. Ability to lift and carry 125 pounds b. Awareness of problems with color vision c. Ability to dominate the patient d. Control of personal habits
In 1966 the National Highway Safety Act charged which of the following agencies with the development of emergency medical service standards? a. U.S. Department of Transportation b. U.S. Department of the Interior c. U.S. Department of Health Services d. U.S. Department of Homeland Security
Who is responsible for on-scene safety of EMS providers? a. Traffic director b. Law enforcement c. All crew members d. Triage officer
Which of the following is the primary responsibility of the EMT? a. Protect and stabilize the patient b. Communicate with other responders on the scene c. Maintain personal health and safety d. Provide emergency care
Upon arrival at the hospital, the EMT advises hospital personnel of the patient’s condition, observations from the scene, treatment rendered, and other pertinent data to assure continuity of care. This process is known as which of the following? a. Transfer of care b. Breach of duty c. Definitive care d. End of tour
What BEST describes the level of EMS training that emphasizes use of advanced airway devices and some prehospital medication administration? a. Advanced EMT b. Paramedic c. Emergency Medical Responder d. EMT
Centralized coordination or emergency medical access, transportation, and care most refers to which of the following? a. Emergency preparedness plan b. Trauma system

ANSWERS AVAILABLE

c. Resource management d. Central management

Which of the following best describes training that supplements the EMT’s original training and that is usually taken in regular intervals? a. Distance education b. EMT training program c. Recertification d. Continuing education
Which of the following is a personal trait an EMT should demonstrate? a. Self-starter b. Strong student c. Strong communication d. Good eyesight
Which of the following BEST describes a communication system capable of identifying the number and location of the phone from which a caller is calling? a. Data display 911 b. Priority dispatch 911 c. Enhanced 911 d. Advanced 911
What BEST defines the evaluation of the patient’s condition in order to provide emergency care? a. Patient access b. Patient assessment c. Medical intervention d. Patient advocacy
Which of the following is a physical trait necessary for performing the duties of an EMT? a. Nonjudgmental and fair b. Ability to lift and carry 200 pounds c. Ability to speak clearly d. Ability to remain calm in stressful situations
What has the modern emergency medical services (EMS) system been developed to provide? a. Prehospital care b. Prompt emergency response c. Safe emergency transportation d. Trained medical personnel
Which of the following is the most common gateway for hospital services for patients who need emergency medical assistance? a. Emergency department b. Emergency medical services system c. Surgical services department d. Emergency medical dispatch center
Which of the following BEST describes a person who speaks up on behalf of the patient and supports his cause? a. Guardian b. Assistant

ANSWERS AVAILABLE

One of the new EMTs asks the training officer why they have to keep taking EMT courses if they already passed the EMT examination. What is the best answer? a. The state requires the training b. EMTs forget everything once they pass the EMT exam c. It looks good to a jury should the service be sued d. EMS is constantly evolving in response to evidence-based research

Which of the following is a component of patient advocacy? a. Immobilizing the neck of a patient with a possible spinal injury b. Granting patient wishes and not reporting spousal abuse to the authorities c. Building rapport with the patient during transport to the hospital d. Providing oxygen to a patient that is short of breath
What level of emergency medical training provides the most advanced pre-hospital care? a. Advanced EMT b. Emergency Medical Responder c. Emergency Medical Technician d. Paramedic
Which one of these groups is at greatest risk of contracting and transmitting tuberculosis? a. Current and former smokers b. Immunosuppressed patients c. Uranium mine workers d. Healthcare practitioners
You are treating a patient who has a productive cough and who reports weight loss, loss of appetite, weakness, night sweats, and fever. Which of the following diseases is most likely the cause of these signs and symptoms? a. Hepatitis B b. Pneumonia c. AIDS d. Tuberculosis
Which of the following is the form of stress that can cause immediate and long-term problems with an EMT’s health and well-being? a. Megastress b. Hyperstress c. Distress d. Eustress
Which of the following is an accurate statement regarding tuberculosis (TB)? a. The incubation period of TB is from 1 to 7 days b. TB is not spread through surface contamination c. The TB pathogen only affects lung tissue d. A tuberculin skin test can detect TB exposure
You respond to a laceration call. When you arrive on-scene, you walk into the house and find a person suffering from a severe wrist laceration from a broken window. Without thinking, you immediately grab the wrist and apply direct pressure to the wound. You then realize that, in your hurry to save a life, you forgot to put on your gloves. You look down to see your hand is covered

ANSWERS AVAILABLE

in blood. When practical, you immediately wash your hands thoroughly. What is your next best action? a. Report the exposure incident because it is the law and you could be fined a large sum of money for failing to report the exposure. b. Report the exposure so you can protect yourself from any accidental infection. c. Report the exposure. Failure to report the exposure may result in you not receiving financial compensation for a potential line-of-duty injury d. If your hand had no open wounds, it is not required to report the exposure as there is no risk of infection, and you could get in trouble at work for failure to follow policy.

What is the name of the federal act that mandates a procedure by which emergency healthcare providers can find out if they have been exposed to potentially life-threatening diseases while on the job? a. Communicable Disease Notification Act b. EMS Personnel Health Protection Act of 1991 c. Occupational Exposure to Bloodborne Pathogens Act d. Ryan White CARE Act
During which of these situations would the EMT be least likely to experience a body substance exposure? a. Bandage a laceration b. Childbirth c. Splinting a sprained ankle d. Glucometry
What is a common term used to describe the items needed for standard precautions or body substance isolation precautious? a. Harm-reduction strategy b. Exposure-control equipment c. Personnel protective equipment d. Infection-control plan
The CDC recommends using an alcohol-based hand sanitizer in all except which of the following situations(s)? a. The patient has a bloodborne communicable disease b. The patient has a respiratory illness c. The provider is not vaccinated against hepatitis B d. The provider’s hands come into contact with fecal matter.
Due to the high risk of an unstable work environment, EMTs responding to a motor vehicle crash may consider using in addition to standard PPE. a. N-95 masks b. Heavy-duty gloves c. Face shields d. Level B hazmat suits
Which of the following terms is best defined as “a state of physical and/or psychological arousal to a stimulus?” a. Homeostat b. Distress

ANSWERS AVAILABLE

d. Following patient contact, the EMT should soak his hands in warm soapy water for at least 30 seconds and then shake them vigorously.

When the potential exists for exposure to exhaled air of a person with suspected or confirmed TB, a(n), mask should be worn by the EMT. a. Surgical b. B- c. Nonrebreather d. N-
An EMT should considered wearing protective eyewear when caring for which of these patients? a. A patient with a difficult-to-visualize scalp laceration b. A trauma patient who is covered in dirt, rocks, and other foreign debris c. A patient who is actively coughing d. A patient who was spraying with mace by police during arrest
What would be the primary reason for an EMT to change gloves between contact with different patients? a. To protect the EMT from becoming infected b. To minimize the amount of time the EMT’s hands are spent in gloves c. To ensure soiled gloves are changed as soon as possible d. To prevent spreading infection to the next patient
All of the following are ways that an EMT can increase both physical and mental well-being, except: a. Drinking caffeine instead of alcohol b. Following a regular walking regimen c. Spending more time relaxing with friends and family d. Eating more carbohydrates
Healthcare employers are required by law to provide a hepatitis B available to employees free of charge. a. Prophylaxis b. Vaccine c. Cure d. Immunity
When covering a patient’s mouth and nose with a mask of any kind, which of the following is the primary risk? a. Causing or exasperating respiratory illnesses b. Interfering with patient communication c. Upsetting the patient because of the social stigma d. Obstructing the ability to visualize and protect the airway
The tuberculin skin test (TST), formerly known as the purified protein derivative (PPD) test, is used to: a. Determine if a person has infected others with TB b. Detect a person’s exposure to tuberculosis c. Inculcate healthcare workers against TB infections d. Prevent tuberculosis from spreading following an exposure
Which of the following best describes body mechanisms?

ANSWERS AVAILABLE

a. Proper use of the body to protect patient safety b. Proper use of the body to facilitate lifting and moving objects c. Equipment designed to minimize stress on the user’s body d. Both B and C

What should you NOT do when using a stair chair? a. Lean forward from the hips b. Keep your back straight c. Lean forward from the wrist d. Flex your knees
You have responded to a nursing home and find an elderly patient in his bed in cardiac arrest. Which type of move would you perform to get the patient to a hard surface so you can perform chest compression? a. Non-urgent move b. Clothing drag c. Urgent move d. Emergency move
Which of the following statements regarding body mechanics is true? a. Use your back to lift b. Use your legs to lift c. Twist your torso while lifting d. Position your feet close together
You have responded to a multiple casualty incident involving an overturned bus. Patients have been thrown around the interior of the bus and several are piled on top of each other. What type of move would you perform to gain access to the most critically injured patients? a. Non-urgent move b. Extremity lift c. Urgent move d. Emergency move
You respond to a call at a park where you find a 550-pound patient who has fallen down a slope near a creek. As you and your partner discuss the situation, you decide to call a second unit for lifting assistance. Once the patient is on a stretcher, how would the additional two personnel help in this lift? a. You place one person on each corner of the stretcher to balance the weight and share in the lifting b. They would position themselves half-way up the slope to take over when you and your partner get fatigued c. You will place two persons at the foot, one at the head, and the other to act as a safety anchor with a rope d. You will place two persons at the head of the stretcher, one at the foot, and one to act as a spotter
What is the preferred number of rescuers when using a stair chair? a. Two: one in front and one in back b. Only one with the track-like chair c. Four: one for each corner of the device

ANSWERS AVAILABLE

a. Long backboard b. Flexible stretcher c. Wheeled stretcher d. Basket stretcher

Which of the following is NOT correct when performing a log roll? a. Keep your back straight b. Lean forward from the hips c. Use your shoulder muscles d. Place both feet flat on the ground
If the weight being pulled is below the level of the EMT’s waist, he should be in a(n) position. a. Squatting b. Kneeling c. Feet-together d. Overhead
Which of the following factors should be considered before lifting any patient? a. The weight of the patient b. Your physical limitations c. Communications d. All are correct
When lifting a patient, a basic principle is to: a. Lift with your lower back b. Extend your arms to maximize your lift c. Rush your lift to minimize tour lift time d. Know your lifting limits.
When a stretcher with a patient secures to it is elevated, what occurs? a. The patient feels more comfortable being at near normal height b. The center of gravity is raised, and this causes a tip hazard c. The stretcher is more stable and easily pushed d. The EMTs lessen the possibility of injury from being bent over the patient
Where should you position the weight of the object being lifted? a. As far from the body as possible b. An arm’s length away from the body c. To one side or the other d. As close to the body as possible
While of the following is the correct position of an EMT’s feet when lifting? a. Shoulder-width apart b. As close together as possible c. As wide apart as possible d. Two feet apart
Which of the following devices should be used to carry a patient down the stairs whenever possible? a. Stair chair b. Scoop stretcher

ANSWERS AVAILABLE

c. Basket stretcher d. Wheeled ambulance stretcher

The term body mechanics describes the proper use of your body to lift without injury. What are the three considerations to review before any lift? a. Equipment, patient injury, and communication b. The object, patient injury, and communication c. The object, your limitations, and communications d. Environment, physical limitations, and communication
Which of the following is another name for the squat-lift position? a. Power grip b. Power lift c. Weight-lifter technique d. Direct carry
Sharing information about a patient’s medical history with your neighbor after you hear a call on a radio scanner would constitute which of the following? a. Slander b. Violating of patient privacy c. Breach of confidentiality d. Libel
You are providing care to a 54-year-old male patient complaining of chest pain. The patient asks to speak to you privately. He tells you he is taking Cialis for erectile dysfunction and his wife does not know he is taking it. He does not want his wife to find out. As you are putting the EMS bags back in the ambulance, the wife corners you and insists that you tell her what her husband said. What should you do? a. You should tell her. As his spouse she is legally entitled to know his medical information b. You should not tell her, there is no reason to humiliate your patient by disclosing his embarrassing condition. c. You should tell her. He may be having an affair without her knowledge and she needs to be tested for sexually transmitted diseases. d. You should not tell her. By law, your conversion with your patient is confidential
You are on the scene with a 72-year-old make patient with chest pain. The patient is complaining of shortness of breath but also refuses to go to the hospital, even after multiple attempts urging him to go. Which of the following should you do next? a. Stay with the patient until he loses consciousness b. Fully inform the patient about his situation and the implications of refusing care c. Inform the patient that he is having a “heart attack” and must be taken to the hospital for evaluation. d. Contact medical direction for orders to restrain the patient.
Which of the following is NOT required to prove a claim of negligence against an EMT? a. The EMT has a duty to act. b. Proximate causation existed c. The EMT failed to act according to the standard of care d. The patient was in fear of bodily harm at the time of the incident.

ANSWERS AVAILABLE

d. All are correct

The administration of oxygen and the application of spinal immobilization is part of which of the following for the EMT? a. Duty to act b. Standard of care c. Scope of practice d. None are correct
Which of the following information may be important to law enforcement officers investigating a crime scene? a. What route you took when responding to the scene b. How you gained access to the scene c. Your opinion of what happened before you arrived on-scene d. Your experience as an EMT
Your patient is a 40-year-old known diabetic who was found unconscious at work by a coworker. What type of consent allows you to treat this patient? a. Consent for treatment of minor emergencies b. Consent for mentally incompetent adults c. Expressed consent d. Implied consent
An off-duty EMT is driving down the road when she sees a major vehicle accident. There are no Emergency Medical Responders on the scene yet. There are only Good Samaritans. The EMT is late for a doctor's appointment so she decides that she will not stop and help. The driver of the vehicle dies before help arrives. One of the Good Samaritans notices her EMT license plates and writes them down as she passes by. The Good Samaritan is angry that the EMT did not stop and help and tries to get the EMT fired for not helping. Which of the following statements is true? a. The EMT is negligent for not stopping and helping. b. The EMT is negligent because the patient died. c. The EMT is not negligent because she had a doctor's appointment. d. The EMT is not negligent because she did not have a duty to act
Which of the following requires training, policies, and procedures related to storing, accessing, and sharing patient information? a. HIPAA b. HIAPA c. EMTALA d. COBRA
Which type of consent must be used by the EMT when seeking to treat a mentally competent adult? a. Unconditional consent b. Expressed consent c. Conscious consent d. Implied consent
While documenting a call, you add a false statement that was made about a local doctor. This could constitute which of the following? a. Libel

ANSWERS AVAILABLE

b. Slander c. Degradation of character d. HIPAA violation

Which of the following refers to the set of regulations that defines the legal actions expected and limitations placed on the EMT? a. Scope of practice b. Legal standards of practice c. Protocols and standing orders d. Professional standards
Your patient is a 45-year-old man who is suffering from chest pain. Upon arrival, the patient is pale, sweaty, and seems short of breath. The patient is angry with his daughter for calling 911. He says that he had some spicy sausage for breakfast and has indigestion. Which of the following is an appropriate means of getting the patient the care he needs? a. Try to find out why the patient does not want to go to the hospital. b. Call the patient's neighbors and tell them that you have been called to the patient's house but he is now refusing care. c. Inform the patient that if he does not agree to treatment, you will have to take him against his will because he has a potentially life-threatening problem. d. Tell the patient that his chest pain is most likely caused by his diet, have him take an antacid, and go to bed.
You respond to the report of an unconscious female patient. You can acquire important medical information about the patient through which of the following? a. Medical identification device b. Driver's license c. Medical history identifier d. On-call Medical Director
Which of the following refers to the care that would be expected to be provided by an EMT with similar training when caring for a patient in a similar situation? a. Scope of practice b. Standard of care c. Protocols and standing orders d. Professional standards
Your patient is a 10-year-old boy who suffered a possible fractured arm while rollerblading at a friend's house. Which of the following is the BEST way to obtain consent for treatment? a. Act on implied consent. b. Get consent from the patient's 15-year-old sister, who is at the scene. c. Call the patient's mother at work. d. Allow the patient to consent as an emancipated minor.
In which of the following situations is it legal to share information about treatment you provided to a patient? a. The triage nurse at the emergency department asks about the care you provided to the patient. b. The patient gives verbal consent to release information to a friend. c. The patient's lawyer requests the information over the phone.

ANSWERS AVAILABLE

a. People may think that an EMT is not intelligent or professional unless she uses medical terms. b. Medical communication needs to be exact and consistent. c. It will make patients and family members trust in the EMT's abilities more. d. EMS providers can't bill for services unless the correct terminology is used in all documentation.

While transporting a patient with a traumatic wound to the back, you call in report to the receiving hospital over the radio. Due to radio static and background noise in the Emergency Department, the physician has had to ask you twice to repeat if the wound was superior or inferior. Why would this distinction be important? a. The physician is just trying to determine if the wound is deep or not so she knows what to prepare for. b. The answer is not necessarily important. The physician is just focusing on getting her standard questions answered while dealing with an inadequate radio system. c. The location of the wound is important in determining which types of resources to have available when the patient arrives. d. It is a triage question to determine if the patient is critical or not so the hospital can prioritize.
What word would be used to refer to a patient's rapid breathing? a. Tachycardia b. Dyspnea c. Tachypnea d. Dyseffusion
A patient with bilateral femur fractures would have which of the following? a. Two fractures in the same femur b. A femur fracture occurring with little or no trauma c. A femur fracture in which the bone ends have punctured the muscle and skin of the thigh d. Fractures of both femurs
You and your EMT partner are responding to a medical aid call in the rural West County area. The dispatcher advises that the caller is reporting the patient as having a history of "plegia." Why would it be beneficial to have the dispatcher clarify a prefix for the word plegia? a. Without a clarifying prefix, it is difficult for the EMTs to effectively prepare for the type of patient they may encounter. b. Because a dys plegiac patient generally requires an EMT-Paramedic level of care, and it may change the level of response. c. A patient with plegia is potentially contagious, and the EMTs need to know what precautions are required. d. There is actually no need to clarify the word.
Why should an EMT avoid the use of acronyms and abbreviations when communicating? a. They should only be avoided in verbal communications, where they can be misunderstood; they are expected in written patient care reports. b. There is a chance that they can lead to errors in continued care for the patient

ANSWERS AVAILABLE

c. The medical acronyms and abbreviations used by prehospital care providers and hospital staff are different. d. Using acronyms and abbreviations is considered unprofessional.

You and your newly hired EMT partner arrive on the scene of a bicycle collision at the local community park. One cyclist stands by and says that she has no injuries. The other is lying on his side on the bike path, guarding his ribs and holding the lower part of his left leg. Your partner kneels next to the man, introduces herself, and asks, "Can you ambulate?" The patient looks up, confused and in obvious pain. "Can you ambulate? You know… walk ?" Your partner says, a little louder. After transporting the patient, you discuss the call with your partner and suggest that she avoid using medical terms unnecessarily when talking with patients. She seems insulted and says, "Why?" What would you say? a. Explain that using large words and medical terms can be seen as being egotistical, which can alienate both patients and other providers. b. Tell her that the general public isn't smart enough to understand medical terminology and that all communication must be "dumbed down" when talking to patients.

d. You should say that you are an experienced EMT and since she is new, she should just take your advice and apply it.

When discussing le f and right in terms of anatomic locations, what do they refer to? a. Lef t and right from the patient's perspective b. Whoever is speaking about the anatomic location determines left and right orientation. c. Anatomic left and right refer to the provider's left and right orientation when facing a patient in the anatomic position. d. What left and right refer to anatomically is dependent on the patient's positioning when care is provided.
Which of the following BEST describes the anatomic position? a. Supine with arms crossed over the chest and knees slightly bent b. Standing, facing forward, with arms raised above the head c. Standing, facing forward, with arms at the side, palms forward d. Standing in profile with the hands on the hips
Which of the following describes the midline of the body? a. An imaginary line dividing the body into equal right and lef t halves b. An imaginary line dividing the body into a top and bottom portion c. The intersection of two imaginary lines crossing at the umbilicus d. An imaginary line dividing the body into a front and a back portion
The inside of a person's thigh is also known as its aspect. a. Inferior b. Lateral c. Medial d. Axillary
Your 79-year-old female patient appears to show all signs and symptoms of a stroke. Her level of consciousness has rapidly deteriorated, she is now unconscious, and she can no longer

c. Tell her that the point of communicating with patients and other providers is so there is clear understanding; using medical terms when not necessary can cause confusion.

ANSWERS AVAILABLE

b. A line drawn diagonally from the outer end of the clavicle to the navel c. A line drawn horizontally from one armpit to the other, across the front of the body d. A line drawn vertically from the xiphoid process to the pubic bone

To check the distal pulse of a patient with an injury to the forearm, the EMT would check for a pulse in which location? a. Armpit b. Wrist c. Upper arm d. Throat
Which of the following describes the Fowler position? a. Lying flat on the back b. Lying on the side c. Lying on the stomach d. Sitting upright with the legs straight
Physiology is the study of: a. Body structures b. Muscles and movement c. Body systems d. Exercise and nutrition
In relation to anatomy, the term topography means: a. the study of the skin. b. external landmarks of body structures. c. blood pressure fluctuations d. key elements of the central nervous system.
Which of the following BEST describes the medical condition of shock? a. Hypotension b. A state of inadequate tissue perfusion c. An extreme emotional reaction to a stressful event d. Delayed capillary refill
Which of the following structures or tissues is NOT part of the musculoskeletal system? a. Ligaments b. Acetabulum c. Fat d. Tendons
Which of the following structures do NOT form part of the thorax? a. Sternum b. Ribs c. 8th through 19th vertebrae d. Ischium
What are the two most easily injured portions of the spine? a. Sacral and coccygeal b. Cervical and thoracic c. Cervical and lumbar d. Lumbar and sacral

ANSWERS AVAILABLE

Which of the following terms describes the heart muscle's ability to generate its own electrical impulses? a. Contractility b. Conductivity c. Automaticity d. Irritability
Which of the following respiratory processes requires the active use of muscles? a. Inhalation b. Bifurcation c. Exhalation d. Gas exchange
What type of muscles control the size of the bronchioles in the lungs? a. Voluntary b. Striated c. Skeletal d. Smooth
Which of the following organs functions as a reservoir for blood that can be used in case of blood loss? a. Liver b. Spleen c. Thyroid gland d. Heart
An artery is a blood vessel that only: a. returns blood to the heart. b. carries oxygenated blood. c. carries deoxygenated blood. d. carries blood away from the heart
The cardiac muscle receives its supply of oxygenated blood by which of the following mechanisms? a. Coronary arteries that branch off the aorta b. Coronary veins that branch off the pulmonary vein as it returns oxygenated blood to the heart c. Absorption of oxygen from the blood returning from the lungs d. None are correct
A clot cannot form without which of the following blood components? a. Plasma b. Corpuscles c. Platelets d. White blood cells
You are caring for a 47-year-old male patient with classical chest pain suggestive of a myocardial infarction. Based on your understanding of the cardiovascular system, you know he could be suffering from damage, narrowing, or blockage of what arteries? a. Pulmonary arteries b. Coronary arteries

HIT 220 Final Exam Study Guide ALL 973 ANSWERS AVAILABLE, Exams of Nursing

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