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IAHSS BASIC TRAINING FOR HEALTHCARE SECURITY OFFICERS
QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED ANSWERS
“Which of the following is NOT one of the classifications of healthcare organizations? A. Proprietary or for-profit B. Not for-profit C. Government-supported
D. Individual healthcare - CORRECT ANSWER D. INDIVIDUAL HEALTHCARE is NOT one of
the classifications of healthcare organizations." "Which of the following is NOT a risk issue for healthcare? A. Drugs are used and stored in the facility B. Mostly female staff C. High percentage of technical and professional staff
D. Publicly accessible and many doors must remain open - CORRECT ANSWER C. HIGH
PERCENTAGE OF TECHNICAL AND PROFESSIONAL STAFF is NOT a risk issue for healthcare." "Which of the following is usually at the top of the organizational chart? A. Board of directors B. Department leaders C. Assistant Administrators
D. Vice Presidents - CORRECT ANSWER A. BOARD OF DIRECTORS is usually at the top of the
organizational chart." "Which of the following statements best describes employees? A. Medical staff contracted by the facility B. All staff directly employed by the facility C. Volunteers who donate their time
D. Contracted persons - CORRECT ANSWER B. ALL STAFF EMPLOYED DIRECTLY BY THE
FACILITY best describes employees." "Security uses senior management's endorsement to build what kind of a program? A. Strong and effective B. A program that works in a small part of the facility C. Generally effective
D. Strong and simple - CORRECT ANSWER A. Security uses senior management's
endorsement to build a STRONG AND EFFECTIVE program." "How should friendships and inter-personal relationships between security officers and staff members from other departments be treated? A. Discouraged B. Encouraged
C. Encouraged, but monitored
D. Encouraged, but security staff educated about ethics and avoiding favoritism - CORRECT
ANSWER D. Friendships and inter-personal relationships between security officers and staff
members from other departments should be ENCOURAGED, BUT SECURITY STAFF EDUCATED ABOUT ETHICS AND AVOIDING FAVORITISM." "Which of the following allows a department to assess its cost-effectiveness within an organization? A. Crime analysis B. Risk assessment C. Benchmarking
D. Evaluation surveys - CORRECT ANSWER C. BENCHMARKING allows a department to
assess its cost-effectiveness within an organization." "What must the primary overriding concern of any security department be? A. Its image B. The safety and well-being of anyone in the facility. C. The goals and mission of the entity employing the security services
D. Cost-effectiveness - CORRECT ANSWER B. The safety and well-being of anyone in the
facility must the primary overriding concern of any security department ." "Which of the following are skills a security professional should have and use at all times? A. Good observation skills B. Good communications skills C. Tolerance
D. All of the Above - CORRECT ANSWER D. ALL OF THE ABOVE: A security professional
should have and use GOOD OBSERVATION SKILLS, GOOD COMMUNICATIONS SKILLS AND TOLERANCE at all times." "Why are vendors potentially a high security risk to a healthcare facility? A. Vendors often have access to sensitive areas yet staff of the healthcare organization may know very little about vendors' backgrounds B. Vendors typically drive large vehicles that can conceal large amounts of stolen property or contraband. C. Competing vendors may clash at a facility
D. Vendors may be bringing in high-demand products that could be targeted for theft. -
CORRECT ANSWER A. Vendors are potentially a high security risk to a healthcare facility
D. Tense conversation - CORRECT ANSWER A. The relationship between employees and
management is sometimes called EMPLOYEE RELATIONS." "Which of the following may union members NOT do during picketing? A. Carry signs B. Protest management decisions C. Block entrances to the facility
D. Congregate outside the facility - CORRECT ANSWER C. Union members may not BLOCK
ENTRANCES TO THE FACILITY during picketing." "Which of the following is NOT a true statement about customers' perceptions of their experience? A. Interaction is subject to personal interpretation B. Interaction can only be perceived by the words stated C. Interaction is affected by body language
D. Interaction is affected by all of your actions - CORRECT ANSWER B. INTERACTION CAN
ONLY BE PERCEIVED BY THE WORDS STATED is NOT a true statement about customer's perception of their experience.." "Which of the following is NOT one of the three powerful, personal reasons to provide great customer service? A. More job satisfaction B. Less stress and hassle C. Trying to impress your supervisor
D. More job success - CORRECT ANSWER C. TRYING TO IMPRESS YOUR SUPERVISOR is NOT
one of the three powerful, personal reasons to provide great customer service." "Which of the following describes the main objective of good customer service? A. To make the customer walk away with a positive feeling B. To help the customer see that someone tried, even though the customer's wants were not met C. To make the customer think that no one cares about the concern raised by the customer
D. To help the customer walk away with a neutral feeling - CORRECT ANSWER A. The main
objective of good customer service is TO MAKE THE CUSTOMER WALK AWAY WITH A POSITIVE FEELING [about the encounter]." "Which of the following is the definition of a customer? A. External paying customer
B. Internal customer C. Non-paying external customer
D. Anyone with whom you interact - CORRECT ANSWER D. A customer is defined as
ANYONE WITH WHOM YOU INTERACT."
"Which of the following is NOT a common technique to use when providing good customer service? A. Acknowledge the customer's needs B. Use inappropriate body language C. Provide alternatives
D. Say thank you - CORRECT ANSWER B. USING INAPPROPRIATE BODY LANGUAGE is NOT
a common technique to use when providing good customer service." "Which of the following is NOT a true statement? A. Team building encourages employee involvement in planning, problem solving, and decision making within the organization. B. Team building promotes a better understanding of decisions. C. Team building rarely contributes to support for ownership of decisions, processes, and changes
D. Active participation on teams can engage employees - CORRECT ANSWER C. Team
building rarely contributes to support for ownership of decisions, processes, and changes is NOT a true statement." "Which of the following is NOT an ongoing, or functional, work team? A. A project team B. A natural team C. A management team
D. A process improvement team - CORRECT ANSWER A. A PROJECT TEAM is NOT an
ongoing, or functional, work team?" "To be successful, teams need which of the following? A. Access to resources B. Clearly defined boundaries C. Access to people who know D. Clearly defined purposes and goals
E. All of the above - CORRECT ANSWER E. ALL OF THE ABOVE, To be successful teams need
access to resources, clearly defined boundaries, access to people who know and clearly defined purposes and goals."
B. Get careless C. Be a hero unnecessarily
D. Get separated from your equipment - CORRECT ANSWER A. LETTING EMPLOYEES KNOW
THAT YOU ARE IN THE AREA is an example of something you should do while patrolling." "Security Officers must interact in a professional manner with which group of people? A. Patients B. Visitors C. Employees D. Physicians
E. All of the above - CORRECT ANSWER E. ALL OF THE ABOVE: Security Officers must
interact in a professional manner with PATIENTS, VISITORS, EMPLOYEES, and PHYSICIANS." "Which trait or skill is NOT desirable for a security officer to possess? A. Strong communications skills B. Compassion C. Ability to speak loudly
D. Ability to express care and understanding. - CORRECT ANSWER C. The ABILITY TO SPEAK
LOUDLY is NOT a desirable trait or skill for a security officer to possess." "In which way is a security officer likely to interact with a patient? A. Picking up or returning a patients valuables B. Investigating lost or stolen property C. Providing directions D. Helping resolve domestic disputes occurring at the facility
E. All of the above - CORRECT ANSWER E. ALL OF THE ABOVE: A security officer is likely to
interact with a patient PICKING UP OR RETURNING A PATIENT'S VALUABLES, INVESTIGATING LOST OR STOLEN PROPERTY, PROVIDING DIRECTIONS, and HELPING RESOLVE DOMESTIC DISPUTES OCCURRING AT THE FACILITY." "Which is the most common location where missing patients are found? A. Hiding under their bed B. In the cafeteria or near an entrance C. In the gift shop
D. Looking for the morgue - CORRECT ANSWER B. IN THE CAFETERIA OR NEAR AN
ENTRANCE is the most common location where missing patients are found." "Which of the following should a security officer NOT do when interacting with a visitor? A. Be aware of the visitor's emotional state B. Use sarcasm C. Treat the visitor with respect
D. Show empathy - CORRECT ANSWER B. A security officer should NOT USE SARCASM when
interacting with a visitor." "Which accreditation body mandates the provision of a secure healthcare environment? A. The Joint Commission (TJC) B. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) C. National Fire Protection Association (NFPA)
D. American Society of Healthcare Engineers (ASHE) - CORRECT ANSWER A. The
accreditation body that mandates the provision of a secure healthcare environment is THE JOINT COMMISSION." "Generally a security officer does what during a robbery? A. Confronts the criminal B. Observes and reports C. Enters the area with the police
D. Leaves the area unattended - CORRECT ANSWER B. Generally, a security officer
OBSERVES AND REPORTS during a robbery." "Which of the following is NOT a disadvantage of a protective vest? A. Relative short life B. Expense C. Discomfort and restrictiveness
D. Avoiding or minimizing injury - CORRECT ANSWER D. AVOIDING OR MINIMIZING
INJURY is NOT a disadvantage of a protective vest." "Which of the following items is NOT security equipment? A. Flashlight B. Portable radio C. Handcuffs
D. CPR pocket mask - CORRECT ANSWER D. CPR POCKET MASK is NOT security equipment."
"Which of the following does NOT apply when an officer has decided to use force for self-defense or to defend another person? A. Must be reasonable B. Must be prudent C. Must be able to inflict pain
D. Must be defensible - CORRECT ANSWER C. MUST BE ABLE TO INFLICT PAIN does NOT
apply when an officer has decided to use force for self-defense or to defend another person." "Which of the following is a professional attribute? A. Image B. Posture
"What is the key factor in tactical deployment? A. Availability of other officers B. Waiting for supervisor C. Control of distance
D. Time - CORRECT ANSWER C. CONTROL OF DISTANCE is the key factor in tactical
deployment." "During a contact, what is the general recommended distance between you and the individual? A. 2 to 4 feet B. 4 to 6 feet C. 6 to 10 feet
D. 10 feet or more - CORRECT ANSWER B. During contact, 4 to 6 feet is the general
recommended distance between you and the individual." "What is the primary goal in using tactical evaluation? A. To determine where to approach a subject B. To determine the legality of intervening between two people who are fighting C. To determine if the design of a waiting room is conducive to security needs
D. To determine the level of threat - CORRECT ANSWER D. TO DETERMINE THE LEVEL OF
THREAT is the primary goal in using tactical evaluation." "What is the force continuum? A. The force applied by an officer to a subject to meeting the continuing escalation of force B. The force that officers use on non-compliant persons C. A form used to report on incidents involving the use of force
D. None of the above - CORRECT ANSWER D. NONE OF THE ABOVE"
"What is the overall goal in using any physical intervention? A. To cause pain to a subject refusing your directions B. To pursue, seek compliance, or impeded a subject C. To stop people running from you
D. To show fellow staff members you are effective at your job - CORRECT ANSWER B. The
overall goal in using any physical intervention is TO PURSUE, SEEK COMPLIANCE OR IMPEDE A SUBJECT." "All investigations seek answers to how many fundamental questions? A. Eight B. Three C. Six
D. Four - CORRECT ANSWER C. All investigations seek answers to SIX fundamental
questions: WHO, WHAT, WHEN, WHERE, HOW, and WHY"
"Which of the following is NOT one of the security officer's cardinal responsibilities regarding conducting an interview? A. Impartiality B. Impatience C. Sensitivity
D. Confidentiality - CORRECT ANSWER B. IMPATIENCE is NOT one of the security officer's
cardinal responsibilities regarding conducting an interview." "Which of the following types of questions should NOT be used in an interview? A. Leading B. Open ended C. Includes an opinion
D. Specific - CORRECT ANSWER A. LEADING questions should NOT be used in an interview."
"Which governing body's legal statute governs whether an interview may be tape-recorded? A. Federal B. City C. Town
D. State - CORRECT ANSWER D. The STATE legal statute governs whether an interview may
be taped-recorded." "Which of the following is NOT a reason that management would close an investigation> A. Event has been resolved B. All leads have been exhausted C. The property was recovered
D. The situation was corrected - CORRECT ANSWER B. ALL LEADS HAVE BEEN EXHAUSTED
is NOT a reason that management would close an investigation." "A good report writer has a balanced blend of which of these? A. Awareness, skills, know-how B. Opinions, skills, knowledge C. Outlook, skills, knowledge
D. Attitude, skills, knowledge - CORRECT ANSWER D. A good report writer has a balanced
blend of ATTITUDE, SKILLS, and KNOWLEDGE." "Which of the following is NOT one of the basic steps in report writing? A. Gather information B. Record information C. Write the report
D. Examine the report - CORRECT ANSWER D. EXAMINE THE REPORT is NOT one of the
basic steps in report writing.
A. At least five to seven years B. Permanently C. At least ten years
D. At least three to five years - CORRECT ANSWER A. The general rule for keeping records is
AT LEAST FIVE TO SEVEN YEARS."
"Which external groups should NOT be provided a copy of a security incident report? A. Insurance companies B. Corporate attorney C. Law enforcement
D. Newspapers - CORRECT ANSWER D. NEWSPAPERS should NOT be provided a copy of a
security incident report." "Which of these departments in the healthcare organization does NOT commonly use security reports? A. Administration B. Human resources C. Public relations
D. Nutrition services - CORRECT ANSWER D. The NUTRITION SERVICES department in the
healthcare organization does NOT commonly use security reports." "Which of the following is an example of a tort committed by a security officer that may result in civil litigation and liability? A. Excessive use of force B. False arrest C. Malicious prosecution
D. All of the above - CORRECT ANSWER D. ALL OF THE ABOVE"
"A warrant is issued by whom? A. A law enforcement officer B. A judicial officer C. A prosecutor
D. A defense attorney - CORRECT ANSWER B. A warrant is issued by A JUDICIAL OFFICER."
"What is a misdemeanor? A. A crime punishable by imprisonment for more than a year. B. A violation of the municipal code C. Any Offense other than a felony
D. A violation of the state's penal code - CORRECT ANSWER B. A misdemeanor is ANY
OFFENSE OTHER THAN A FELONY."
"In criminal law how must guilt be determined?
A. Beyond a reasonable doubt B. By the preponderance of evidence C. By that degree of proof which is more probable than not
D. By the prosecutor - CORRECT ANSWER A. In criminal law guilt must be determined
BEYOND A REASONABLE DOUBT."
"In any trial, who is the trier of law? A. The prosecutor B. The defense attorney C. The judge
D. The jury - CORRECT ANSWER C. In any trial, THE JUDGE is the trier of law."
"Which of the following do the initials CPTED stand for? A. Crime prevention through environmental design. B. Crime prevention through experimental design C. Campus prevention through environmental design
D. Critical performance through environmental design - CORRECT ANSWER A. The initials
CPTED stand for CRIME PREVENTION THROUGH ENVIRONMENTAL DESIGN." "Which of the following should be protected by bollards? A. Sidewalks B. Curbs C. Hydrants
D. Trees - CORRECT ANSWER C. HYDRANTS should be protected by bollards."
"Define ADA. A. Americans with Discounts Act B. Americans with Disabilities Act C. American without Discomfort Act
D. Americans with Disabilities Action - CORRECT ANSWER B. ADA is defined as AMERICANS
WITH DISABILITIES ACT."
"What is the definition of crowd control? A. Techniques used to manage lawful public assemblies B. Allowing First Amendment activities C. Allowing demonstrations
D. Techniques used to address unlawful public assemblies - CORRECT ANSWER D. Crowd
control is defined as TECHNIQUES USED TO ADDRESS UNLAWFUL PUBLIC ASSEMBLIES" "Which of the following is NOT true about video surveillance? A. Video surveillance should be recorded at all times B. Video surveillance should be functional at all times
C. Cashier
D. Accounts Receivable - CORRECT ANSWER B. ENVIRONMENTAL SERVICES is NOT a
typical function of the business office." "The act of a patient using someone else's information to fraudulently obtain medical services is called what? A. Medication-seeking patient B. Suspicious activity C. Identification hijacking
D. Medical identity theft - CORRECT ANSWER D. The act of a patient using someone else's
information to fraudulently obtain medical services is called MEDICAL IDENTITY THEFT." "Access to patient information is limited to those who "need to know" by which of the following? A. FBI B. OSHA C. HIPPA
D. Centers for Medicare and Medicaid (CMS) - CORRECT ANSWER C. Access to patient
information is limited to those who "need to know" by HEALTH INSURANCE PORTABILITY AND ACCOUNTABILITY ACT (HIPPA)" "True or false: Escorts for valuables and cash should be at the same time each day and should follow the same route to the facility. A. True
B. False - CORRECT ANSWER B. FALSE
Escorts for valuables and cash SHOULD NOT be at the same time each day and SHOULD NOT follow the same route to the facility." "Which of the following is NOT a function security provides for the business office/financial services area? A. Patrol B. Customer relations C. Refunding payment
D. Investigations - CORRECT ANSWER C. REFUNDING PAYMENT is NOT a function security
provides for the business office/financial services area." "Which of the following defines over-the-counter medications? A. Anything that one can inject, inhale or absorb into the body that is designed to improve a condition. B. Remedies or cures C. Do not require a prescription and are generally displayed on the consumer side of the pharmacy counter
D. Controlled substances - CORRECT ANSWER C. Medications that DO NOT REQUIRE A
PRESCRIPTION AND ARE GENERALLY DISPLAYED ON THE CONSUMER SIDE OF THE
PHARMACY COUNTER defines over-the-counter medications." "Which of the following are examples of schedule II substances? A. Heroin, marijuana, methaqualone B. Morphine, cocaine, methadone C. Codeine, Vicodin, OxyContin
D. Darvon, Valium, Xanax - CORRECT ANSWER B. MORPHINE, COCAINE and METHADONE
are examples of schedule II substances." "Which of the following is NOT an example of a drug diversion method? A. Fraudulent prescription B. Falsify a patient's chart C. Keep unused drugs after surgery
D. Obtain a prescription from your physician - CORRECT ANSWER D. OBTAIN A
PRESCRIPTION FROM YOUR PHYSICIAN is NOT an example of a drug diversion." "In which year was the Controlled Substances Act (CSA) enacted? A. 1970 B. 1972 C. 1968
D. 1984 - CORRECT ANSWER A. 1970 is the year the Controlled Substances Act (CSA) was
enacted." "Which of the following staff may enter the compounding area in a pharmacy? A. Housekeeping aide B. Licensed pharmacist C. Pharmacy secretary
D. Pharmacy technician - CORRECT ANSWER B. The compounding area (where drugs are
stored and prepared) may only be entered by, or in the presence of, A LICENSED PHARMACIST." "Which of these conditions make it difficult to work effectively with behavioral patients? A. Age and ethnicity B. Reputation of the healthcare organization C. Short wait periods
D. Drug and alcohol impairment - CORRECT ANSWER D. DRUG AND ALCOHOL
IMPAIRMENT make it difficult to work effectively with behavioral patients." "The Joint Commission requires that risk assessments be conducted how often? A. Every two years B. Every six months
D. Security has no role in these areas - CORRECT ANSWER D. SECURITY HAS NO ROLE IN
THESE AREAS does NOT describe how security can staff the emergency department or behavioral patient care unit." "Why are departments and units that care for infant and pediatric patients of special concern to security officers? A. They are where the most crime happens in a hospital B. Children are kidnapped from hospitals almost every day C. In addition to the heartbreak the family experiences, an abduction brings a swarm of reporters, bad publicity, and law enforcement agencies to the facility
D. Infant and pediatric units are the busiest units in every hospital - CORRECT ANSWER C.
Departments and units that care for infant and pediatric patients are of special concern to security officers because IN ADDITION TO THE HEARTBREAK THE FAMILY EXPERIENCES, AN ABDUCTION BRINGS A SWARM OF REPORTERS, BAD PUBLICITY, AND LAW ENFORCEMENT AGENCIES TO THE FACILITY." "Why is it important for security and clinical staff to understand the typical profile of an abductor? A. So they can help law enforcement put out a description B. To design the facility's security to make it as hard as possible for the typical abductor to kidnap a child C. To convince the facility to hire more security
D. So they can use the information to talk to security departments in other healthcare facilities. -
CORRECT ANSWER B. It is important for security and clinical staff to understand the typical
profile of an abductor TO DESIGN THE FACILITY'S SECURITY TO MAKE IT AS HARD AS POSSIBLE FOR THE TYPICAL ABDUCTOR TO KIDNAP A CHILD." "Which of the following is a role of the National Center for Missing and Exploited Children (NCMEC)? A. Provide things that healthcare organizations can do to "harden the target" B. Develop a profile of the typical kidnapper C. Provide suggested training for nursing, security and other personnel D. None of the above
E. All of the above - CORRECT ANSWER E. ALL OF THE ABOVE"
"Who needs to be trained about the facility's system for protecting children from abduction? A. Mothers, husbands, significant others, and family B. Nursing on affected units C. Security D. All facility employees
E. All of the above - CORRECT ANSWER E. ALL OF THE ABOVE"
"When an infant abduction is suspected, what should security's first response be? A. Rust to the affected unit and interview the parent B. Call the NCMEC C. Grab the department's camera and take pictures of everyone who exits the emergency department D. Immediately go to the property exits -- doors, garages, etc. -- stop each person walking or
driving out who has anything a baby could be in - CORRECT ANSWER D. When an infant
abduction is suspected, security's first response should be to IMMEDIATELY GO TO THE PROPERTY EXITS AND STOP EACH PERSON WALKING OR DRIVING OUT WHO HAS ANYTHING A BABY COULD BE IN." "What should facility employees do when they hear an announcement of a child abduction? A. Leave their offices, go out the closes door and assemble in the street B. Go to their assigned areas (door, stairs, elevator, etc.), look for anyone with any item that could be hiding the child, and stop and question them C. Call the security office and volunteer to help if needed
D. Stay inside their offices and out of the way - CORRECT ANSWER B. When they hear an
announcement of a child abduction facility employees should GO TO THEIR ASSIGNED AREAS, LOOK FOR ANYONE WITH ANY ITEM THAT COULD BE HIDING THE CHILD, AND STOP AND QUESTION THEM." "Which of the following is a medical record? A. Information about physical health B. Information about family relationships C. Information about sexual behavior D. Information about substance abuse
