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1. Which of the following are Indiana real estate licensees required to disclose to their potential clients? A. The property's appraised value B. The commission rate charged by all brokerages in the area C. Their brokerage's written policy regarding allowed agency relationships ✅ D. The history of previous client complaints Rationale: Indiana license law requires licensees to disclose their brokerage's agency relationship policies to ensure clients understand the scope of representation. 2. Jose's client verbally agrees to a buyer's offer. This is considered _______. A. A binding agreement B. A breach of contract C. Legally enforceable D. Non-binding ✅ Rationale: Verbal agreements in real estate are not binding; contracts must be in writing to be enforceable.
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1. Which of the following are Indiana real estate licensees required to disclose to their potential clients? A. The property's appraised value B. The commission rate charged by all brokerages in the area C. Their brokerage's written policy regarding allowed agency relationships ✅ D. The history of previous client complaints Rationale: Indiana license law requires licensees to disclose their brokerage's agency relationship policies to ensure clients understand the scope of representation. 2. Jose's client verbally agrees to a buyer's offer. This is considered _______. A. A binding agreement B. A breach of contract C. Legally enforceable D. Non-binding ✅ Rationale: Verbal agreements in real estate are not binding; contracts must be in writing to be enforceable. 3. The Indiana Real Estate Commission has imposed penalties on Jethro and Carrie for similar violations. Jethro is more experienced. What's true? A. Jethro should receive a harsher penalty due to his experience B. Carrie should be excused due to her newness C. The penalties must be consistent ✅ D. Both should have their licenses suspended Rationale: Penalties are based on the nature of the violation, not the length of licensure, to maintain fairness and consistency. 4. How will completing post-licensing education help a newly licensed broker like Pete? A. It exempts him from future CE B. It gives him extra commission C. It provides 30 hours of education focused on real estate practice ✅ D. It replaces the state licensing exam
Rationale: Indiana requires 30 hours of post-licensing education focused on practical real estate skills to support early-career brokers.
5. Which license type allows a person to work independently in Indiana real estate? A. Associate broker B. Transaction coordinator C. Managing broker ✅ D. Listing specialist Rationale: Only managing brokers can operate independently; others must affiliate with a managing broker. 6. If a seller amends a disclosure, how long does the buyer have to cancel with a refund of earnest money? A. 24 hours B. Three business days C. Two business days ✅ D. One calendar week Rationale: Buyers have two business days to cancel after receiving an amended disclosure. 7. Has Dylan violated Indiana law by advising a client based on zoning research? A. Yes, agents can’t provide zoning advice B. No, because he confirmed the zoning info ✅ C. Yes, because it's a legal opinion D. No, because clients can sue if he’s wrong Rationale: Providing factual, verified information is part of a broker’s responsibility; Dylan acted appropriately. 8. What must a seller do if a water pipe bursts before closing? A. Fix the issue without telling the buyer B. Cancel the sale C. Disclose the issue no later than closing ✅ D. Do nothing if damage is minor Rationale: Material changes must be disclosed to buyers to maintain transparency and legality. 9. Whose office is the main office of Gemini Realty? A. Ted's office B. Linda's office
Rationale: USPAP (Uniform Standards of Professional Appraisal Practice) governs how appraisals are conducted and reported.
15. What is NOT true about a broker’s responsibility during an escrow audit? A. Must provide bank records B. Records must be accurate C. Records older than 7 years are required ✅ D. Must comply with the audit Rationale: Escrow records are only required for the previous five years unless otherwise stated. 16. Which of these statements about Indiana branch offices is true? A. They can operate without commission approval B. Only the main office must be licensed C. They must be registered before opening ✅ D. Each must have fewer than 10 agents Rationale: Indiana law requires all branch offices to be registered with the commission before conducting business. 17. What task can Lorraine, an unlicensed assistant, legally perform? A. Show properties B. Negotiate offers C. Assemble closing documents ✅ D. Host open houses alone Rationale: Unlicensed assistants can perform administrative tasks like assembling documents but not tasks requiring licensure. 18. Which of these is NOT a psychological stigma requiring disclosure in Indiana? A. A prior suicide B. A haunting C. A homicide D. High radon levels ✅ Rationale: High radon levels are a physical hazard, not a psychological stigma, and must be disclosed separately. 19. Which Indiana property requires the Seller's Residential Real Estate Sales Disclosure? A. A warehouse B. A four-unit building C. A single-family home on five acres ✅ D. Vacant land
Rationale: The disclosure is required for most residential properties, including single- family homes.
20. Why is Frieda not required to attend the closing of Jebediah's commercial property? A. It’s too expensive B. It’s her day off C. She already reviewed the paperwork D. Because it’s commercial, not residential ✅ Rationale: Indiana brokers are not obligated to attend closings for commercial transactions. 21. What is a desktop evaluation in Indiana? A. A walk-through inspection B. A full appraisal C. A data-based property evaluation with no physical inspection ✅ D. A comparative market analysis Rationale: A desktop evaluation uses market data and public records without a site visit and is acceptable under Indiana law. 22. The policies and procedures manual is designed to _______. A. Train clients B. Enforce federal law C. Provide guidance for firm members ✅ D. Replace continuing education Rationale: This manual offers a consistent reference for agents on operations and compliance. 23. Which method falls under Indiana's definition of an appraisal? A. Market survey B. Broker price opinion ✅ C. Neighborhood evaluation D. Rental analysis Rationale: Broker price opinions are recognized as a form of appraisal in Indiana. 24. What offices may managing broker Trish manage? A. Only her home office B. The main office only C. All offices including branches ✅ D. None without an assistant
30. Did Rosie violate the law by guaranteeing profit to her buyer? A. No, she was encouraging B. Yes, it’s unlawful to guarantee profits ✅ C. No, clients expect predictions D. Only if the property loses value Rationale: Indiana prohibits guaranteeing profit as it can mislead clients. 31. If Woodrow helps a neighbor sell their home for free, does he need a license? A. Yes, always B. No, if it’s unpaid ✅ C. Yes, if he gives advice D. No, if it’s a relative Rationale: Real estate licensure is only required if services are compensated. 32. What should Jared do if clients want to make an unreasonably low offer? A. Refuse to write it B. Write it without comment C. Recommend a fair price but write the offer if they insist ✅ D. Cancel the agreement Rationale: Jared should counsel the client but still follow their instructions. 33. What is required before advertising a property for sale? A. A signed listing agreement ✅ B. Seller’s phone number C. Three comparable sales D. A pre-approval letter Rationale: Advertising requires written authorization from the property owner. 34. If Steve appraises for a fee, what must he follow? A. State budget laws B. His broker’s manual C. USPAP ✅ D. MLS rules Rationale: Paid appraisals require adherence to USPAP standards. 35. What must Derek include in his real estate advertisement? A. His home address B. The MLS number C. His brokerage’s name as licensed ✅ D. His license number Rationale: Indiana law requires all ads to include the licensed brokerage’s name.
36. Charles, a KY broker, works with Indiana broker Bev on a deal in Indiana. Is this legal? A. No, cross-border deals are banned B. Yes, with Bev’s cooperation and license verification ✅ C. Only if Charles moves to Indiana D. No, because it’s commercial property Rationale: Out-of-state brokers may co-broker with a licensed Indiana broker. 37. The seller's verbal acceptance of an offer means what? A. The offer is binding B. The buyer must pay a fee C. The offer is not valid yet ✅ D. The contract is finalized Rationale: Only written acceptance makes a real estate offer binding. 38. Consent to limited agency requires what? A. A handshake agreement B. Verbal notification C. A signed form with a conflict explanation ✅ D. A notary Rationale: Limited agency must be disclosed and signed with conflict information. 39. Which task can an unlicensed assistant legally perform? A. Negotiate prices B. Host showings C. Calculate commissions ✅ D. Discuss offers with clients Rationale: Unlicensed assistants can perform clerical calculations but not client representation. 40. What property would need a disclosure form? A. A newly built factory B. A FSBO single-family home ✅ C. An inherited vacant lot D. A mobile home in a park Rationale: Residential FSBO properties still require disclosure under law. 41. What is considered a stigmatized property? A. A radon-affected home B. A haunted house ✅
47. New licensees’ CE is waived for how long? A. 6 months B. 1 year C. 2 years ✅ D. 3 months Rationale: CE is waived for two years while they complete post-licensing education. 48. Five consumers file against the recovery fund for $65,000. How are they paid? A. All get full payment B. They share $50,000 proportionally ✅ C. Only one gets paid D. They must sue again Rationale: The fund is capped at $50,000 per licensee and is distributed proportionally. 49. How much CE must Indiana licensees complete each year? A. 6 hours B. 8 hours C. 12 hours ✅ D. 20 hours Rationale: Each licensee must complete 12 hours of CE annually. 50. Writing a quality offer helps your buyer client ______. A. Make fast profit B. Avoid legal trouble ✅ C. Skip inspections D. Lower taxes Rationale: A proper offer protects the client from legal and contractual issues. 51. Why might the commission examine a licensee’s records? A. To recommend the agent B. To issue a CE waiver C. To ensure compliance ✅ D. For tax purposes Rationale: Examinations ensure the licensee follows commission rules. 52. Who is exempt from needing a license? A. A person renting their own home B. A broker's assistant C. Twila, who referred a friend to a Kentucky licensee ✅ D. An attorney
Rationale: Referring a friend to another licensed broker without compensation is exempt from licensure. James is 18 and wants to be a real estate broker in Indiana. If he completes the 90 hours of required education and passes the exam, is there anything that might prevent him from becoming a broker?
Rhiannon doesn't feel that her Indiana listing agent acted ethically when marketing her house. To whom should she file a complaint? - ANSWER The Consumer Protection Division When working with buyer clients, which offers must a licensee present to the seller or seller's agent? - ANSWER Those that the buyer wishes to make After you sign a listing agreement with an Indiana seller, you have ______ to provide the seller with a copy of the signed document. - ANSWER Three business days Steve is an Indiana real estate broker. He's agreed to perform a fee appraisal on a property. This is legal in Indiana as long as ___________. - ANSWER The property's value falls below federal limits requiring a licensed or certified appraiser When done for others and for compensation, which of the following may be done by someone who doesn't hold an Indiana real estate license? - ANSWER Researching school districts and crime statistics for various neighborhoods John is the _____________ at ABC Realty in Indiana, so he's responsible to the real estate commission for everything that happens at the company. - ANSWER Managing broker If you are negotiating for the purchase of a house for ______, you don't need a real estate license. - ANSWER Yourself The Indiana real estate commission will NOT issue a broker's license to which of the following business structures? - ANSWER Association Indiana licensee Damien represents buyer Elsa. Elsa wants to keep chickens in her back yard, and Damien assures her that city code allows this, although he knows it isn't true. Neither the seller nor the seller's agent, Karen, is aware of Elsa's plans for chicken keeping. Who can be held liable for the misrepresentation in this situation? - ANSWER Only Damien, Elsa's agent You plan to run advertisements promoting yourself as an Indiana broker on your favorite radio station. What must happen before the ad you wrote can be submitted to the station for recording and broadcast? - ANSWER Your managing broker must review and approve it. You're representing buyer Clancy, who has made an offer on a home in Bloomington. The seller would like you to verify Clancy's claim that he has enough money in the bank to pay cash for the property. Which response is consistent with your agency duties as
outlined in the Indiana Code? - ANSWER Your client's ability to pay cash isn't something you're required to investigate or verify for the seller. When you're representing a buyer and presenting an offer on your buyer client's behalf, which of these actions is considered best practice? - ANSWER Retain exact and complete copies of all documents related to the offer and transaction. Indiana seller Alana's home is located in a community controlled by a homeowners association (HOA). As her agent, you'll advise her to have HOA disclosures to the buyer ___________. - ANSWER At least 10 days prior to closing Indiana brokers are required to provide their clients with a(n) ______ at closing. - ANSWER Statement itemizing all client funds the broker handled Rick and Jane are a married couple in Indiana who decide to start a broker company. What's NOT true about licensing their new company as a partnership? - ANSWER A qualified employee, who can't be one of the partners, must be designated as the managing broker. A supervising broker discovers that one of her licensees has placed an advertisement that could violate fair housing laws. What is the broker's responsibility in this situation? - ANSWER Explain the violation to the licensee and provide training to ensure the error isn't repeated. Kylie has just received her managing broker designation. She decides to work independently as a sole proprietor. Which of the following is NOT true? - ANSWER Kylie must employ a qualified person to be the managing broker for her broker company. Sherry's just completed a successful transaction helping an old school friend sell her condo. The commission she earned isn't paid to her, even though she put many hours of hard work into the sale. Why not? - ANSWER Sherry's a broker affiliated with a broker company. The commission earned in the transaction is paid to her managing broker or broker company. When an Indiana licensee represents a buyer or tenant, which of these actions is a duty that must be performed according to statutory rules? - ANSWER Fulfill the terms of the agency relationship. In Indiana, which of the following events would stigmatize a property? - ANSWER Site of a notorious crime
This form is completed by whomever is the most familiar with the situation, usually the person who committed or discovered the error by following your facility policy. is called a ? - ANSWER Medication Error Report what report is sent to the director of nursing or administrator? - ANSWER medication error report medication error reports are reviewed by? - ANSWER medical director and the DON who design plans that will avoid future incidents. Personal information, medical records, written and verbal communications, medical treatment, personal care and behavior is a patients? - ANSWER Confidentially give the patient and their property? - ANSWER privacy you must be _____ of a patients personal and medical information - ANSWER be informed residents have the ____ to refuse treatment, self-administering medications, choosing personal physician, participating in care planning, having visitors, maintaining personal possessions, and participating in activities in and out of the facility. - ANSWER Choice patients can _____ about services without fear of retaliation - ANSWER voice grievances residents should be free from & including physical and chemical restraint for discipline or convenience, verbal,mental, or physical abuse, corporal punishment for seclusion. - ANSWER freedom from abuse and restraint separation of a resident from other residents or from his/her room or confinement to his/her room against the residents will or will of the residents legal representative - ANSWER involuntary seclusion. deliberate misplacement, exploitation or wrongful, temporary or placement use of a residents belongings or money without the residents consent - ANSWER misappropriation of resident property verbal communication is - ANSWER written or spoken words the Qma can observe and report to the facility's nurse reactions and side effects to medications exhibited by a resident? - ANSWER true
the Qma can measure and document vital signs prior to the administration of medication that could affect or change the vital signs, report any abnormalities to the licensed nurse that would prohibit medication administration. - ANSWER true the Qma can administer regularly prescribed medication which the Qma has been trained to administer only after personally preparing(setting up) the medication to be administered - ANSWER true the Qma shall document in a residents clinical record any medication that the Qma personally administered - ANSWER true The Qma shall not document in a residents clinical record any medication that was administered by another person or not administered at all. - ANSWER true the Qma can initiate oxygen per nasal cannula or non-sealing mask only in an emergency. - ANSWER true After the emergency the Qma shall verbally notify licensed nurse on duty or on call and appropriately document the action and notification - ANSWER true the Qma can administer medication by the injection route - ANSWER false the Qma can administer medication by the intramuscular route - ANSWER false the qma can obtain oxygen saturation utilizing an oximeter that has been calibrated by a licensed or certified professional and report results to the licensed nurse - ANSWER true the Qma can apply physician-ordered oral, ophthalmic, otic, nasal, vaginal, and rectal medications. - ANSWER true the Qma can administer medication by the intravenous route - ANSWER false the Qma can administer medication by the subcutaneous route - ANSWER false the Qma can administer medication by the intradermal route - ANSWER false the Qma can crush and administer medications if such preparation is appropriate per manufacturers instructions or physicians order - ANSWER true the qma can alter capsules if prescribed to be administered in this altered manner by the physician - ANSWER true
the QMA can apply topical medication to minor skin conditions such as a stage one decubitus ulcer - ANSWER true the QMA an administer medication via metered dose inhaler - ANSWER true the QMA can conduct a hemoccult testing and report result to the licensed nurse - ANSWER true the QMA can conduct a finger stick blood glucose testing, and report results to the nurse
the Qma can instill irrigation fluids of any type, including a colostomy - ANSWER false the Qma can instill irrigation fluids of any type, including a catheter - ANSWER false the Qma can instill irrigation fluids of any type, including a enema - ANSWER false the Qma can assume responsibility for receiving in writing or receive a verbal or telephone order - ANSWER false the Qma can administer a treatment that involves advanced skin conditions, including stage one two and three decubitus ulcers - ANSWER false What is metabolism? - ANSWER Is a process by which a substance is changed into a form that is easily excreted by the body What is Nardil's classification? - ANSWER Antipsychotic Qma's are prohibited from: - ANSWER Calling a physician, assessing a resident, adminisitering a stage II treatment, administering meds through a nasgastric tube The Qma scope of practice includes: - ANSWER Observe and report to a nurse reactions and side effects of meds, take vital signs prior to some medications, personally set up and give medications that you were trained on, not document what another person gave a resident When giving a PRN medication, the nurse must cosign the clinical record - ANSWER true The Qma is allowed to treat a second degree burn if you follow the order exactly - ANSWER false The Qma must document in the clinical record any and all observations and what is reported by the resident - ANSWER true What is assault and battery? - ANSWER A verbal threat that is carried out Leaving a resident alone in the shower room, failing to report an observation or occurrence to the nurse, causing injury by using broken equipment would be an example of: - ANSWER Negligence Medication errors can be caused by: - ANSWER Lack of concentration, lack of knowledge, poor communication, performing outside your scope of practice If you have a medication error, you report it to the doctor immediately - ANSWER false