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IOP 2605 EXAM
- Job Analysis and Job Design Q1: What is the primary purpose of job analysis in an organization? A. To determine the salary structure for employees B. To identify training needs and evaluate employee performance C. To improve relationships between employees D. To enhance workplace safety Answer: B. To identify training needs and evaluate employee performance Q2: Which method of job analysis involves observing and recording employees' behaviors and tasks as they perform their jobs? A. Questionnaire method B. Interview method C. Observation method D. Functional job analysis Answer: C. Observation method
- Employee Motivation Q3: According to Herzberg’s Two-Factor Theory, which of the following is considered a motivator factor? A. Company policies B. Job security C. Opportunities for advancement D. Salary Answer: C. Opportunities for advancement
Q4: Which theory posits that people are motivated when they perceive they are treated fairly compared to others? A. Expectancy Theory B. Equity Theory C. Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs D. Goal-Setting Theory Answer: B. Equity Theory
- Leadership and Management Q5: Which leadership style is characterized by high concern for both people and tasks, creating a positive organizational climate? A. Autocratic B. Laissez-faire C. Transactional D. Transformational Answer: D. Transformational Q6: According to the path-goal theory of leadership, a leader who clarifies goals and the paths to achieve them is using which leadership style? A. Participative B. Supportive C. Directive D. Achievement-oriented Answer: C. Directive
- Performance Appraisal and Feedback Q7: Which of the following performance appraisal methods involves rating employees against each other to rank them from best to worst?
D. Helping a colleague with a task without being asked Answer: D. Helping a colleague with a task without being asked
- Recruitment and Selection Q11: What is the main objective of using structured interviews in the hiring process? A. To allow candidates to express themselves freely B. To ensure consistency and fairness across interviews C. To provide flexibility to interviewers D. To make the interview process less formal Answer: B. To ensure consistency and fairness across interviews Q12: Which of the following assessment tools is most appropriate for measuring a candidate’s personality traits? A. Situational judgement test B. Cognitive ability test C. Personality inventory D. Job knowledge test Answer: C. Personality inventory7. Training and Development Q13: Which of the following is the first step in the training process? A. Conducting a needs assessment B. Implementing training programs C. Evaluating training effectiveness D. Selecting training methods Answer: A. Conducting a needs assessment Q14: A training method that uses role-play scenarios to help employees develop interpersonal skills is an example of: A. Simulation training
B. On-the-job training C. Experiential learning D. E-learning Answer: C. Experiential learning Q15: In Kirkpatrick’s four levels of training evaluation, which level assesses whether employees have applied the skills they learned in training to their jobs? A. Reaction B. Learning C. Behavior D. Results Answer: C. Behavior
- Stress and Well-being Q16: Which of the following describes a stressor that originates from job demands that are perceived as challenging but not necessarily negative? A. Hindrance stressor B. Role conflict C. Challenge stressor D. Burnout Answer: C. Challenge stressor Q17: Burnout is most likely to occur in jobs with: A. Low levels of job autonomy B. High levels of job satisfaction C. Limited task variety D. High job demands and low resources Answer: D. High job demands and low resources
C. Self-managed team D. Task force Answer: A. Cross-functional team
- Organizational Change and Development Q22: Which of the following is often a primary reason why employees resist organizational change? A. Desire for innovation B. Inability to meet new performance standards C. Fear of the unknown D. Lack of trust in co-workers Answer: C. Fear of the unknown Q23: Lewin’s Change Model includes three stages. What is the primary goal of the “unfreezing” stage? A. Making the changes permanent B. Preparing people to accept change C. Implementing new processes D. Identifying new leadership Answer: B. Preparing people to accept change Q24: Which of the following best describes “organizational development” (OD)? A. Conducting training for new employees B. Systematic process of implementing change for improvement C. Setting individual employee goals and objectives D. Creating a diverse and inclusive work environment Answer: B. Systematic process of implementing change for improvement
- Decision Making and Problem Solving
Q25: Which decision-making model assumes that decision-makers have complete information and can objectively evaluate all options? A. Rational model B. Bounded rationality model C. Incremental model D. Garbage can model Answer: A. Rational model Q26: Which of the following techniques involves generating a large number of ideas to encourage creativity in problem-solving? A. Delphi technique B. Nominal group technique C. Brainstorming D. Focus groups Answer: C. Brainstorming Q27: Which of the following is a characteristic of the "bounded rationality" decision- making model? A. Making decisions with limited information B. Analyzing all available alternatives exhaustively C. Relying solely on group consensus D. Ignoring the constraints in the decision-making environment Answer: A. Making decisions with limited information
- Diversity and Inclusion Q28: Which term describes the presence of differences within a given setting, including race, gender, age, and other characteristics? A. Equity
A. Workload B. Income C. Workplace relationships D. Physical work conditions Answer: C. Workplace relationships Q33: According to the Job Characteristics Model, which of the following is NOT one of the core job dimensions? A. Task significance B. Skill variety C. Task identity D. Leadership style Answer: D. Leadership style
- Communication in Organizations Q34: Which type of organizational communication flows from lower levels to higher levels within an organization? A. Lateral communication B. Upward communication C. Downward communication D. Informal communication Answer: B. Upward communication Q35: Which of the following is an example of nonverbal communication? A. Email message B. Annual report C. Facial expressions D. Phone conversation
Answer: C. Facial expressions Q36: What is the primary purpose of feedback in communication within organizations? A. To monitor employee attendance B. To create noise in communication channels C. To clarify and improve message understanding D. To convey authority Answer: C. To clarify and improve message understanding
- Work-Life Balance and Employee Well-being Q37: Which of the following is a common practice organizations implement to improve employees’ work-life balance? A. Performance-based pay B. Job rotation C. Flexible work arrangements D. Annual job evaluation Answer: C. Flexible work arrangements Q38: The concept of “spillover” in work-life balance refers to: A. One’s work affecting life outside of work, or vice versa B. Balancing multiple roles simultaneously C. Employees resisting personal changes at work D. Allowing work-related stress to be shared among employees Answer: A. One’s work affecting life outside of work, or vice versa Q39: Which of the following is a sign of positive work-life balance? A. High absenteeism
- Psychological Testing and Assessment Q43: What type of validity is concerned with whether a test measures the concept it claims to measure? A. Criterion validity B. Face validity C. Content validity D. Construct validity Answer: D. Construct validity Q44: In employee selection, a “predictive validity” study is used to determine: A. If test results are consistent over time B. How well a test predicts future job performance C. If the test appears relevant to test takers D. If the test content is representative of the job requirements Answer: B. How well a test predicts future job performance Q45: Which type of reliability measures the extent to which scores on a test are consistent over time? A. Inter-rater reliability B. Test-retest reliability C. Parallel-forms reliability D. Internal consistency reliability Answer: B. Test-retest reliability
- Organizational Structure and Design Q46: Which type of organizational structure is characterized by having specialized departments, such as marketing, finance, and operations? A. Matrix structure
B. Functional structure C. Divisional structure D. Network structure Answer: B. Functional structure Q47: In a matrix organization, employees report to: A. A single manager who oversees all functions B. Functional managers only C. Project managers only D. Both functional and project managers Answer: D. Both functional and project managers Q48: Which of the following best describes a “flat” organizational structure? A. It has many layers of management B. It minimizes hierarchical levels C. It relies on traditional top-down decision-making D. It restricts communication between departments Answer: B. It minimizes hierarchical levels
- Goal Setting and Performance Q49: Which goal-setting principle states that goals should be sufficiently challenging to motivate employees? A. Attainable B. Relevant C. Specific D. Difficult Answer: D. Difficult
B. Process consultation C. Coaching D. Action research Answer: B. Process consultation Q54: Which organizational development intervention involves employees actively collecting data to identify and solve workplace problems? A. Sensitivity training B. Job rotation C. Action research D. Cross-training Answer: C. Action research21. Employee Selection and Recruitment Q55: Which selection technique is best for assessing a candidate’s decision-making ability in realistic work scenarios? A. Cognitive ability test B. Situational judgment test C. Structured interview D. Personality test Answer: B. Situational judgment test Q56: A realistic job preview (RJP) is typically used in the recruitment process to: A. Show only the positive aspects of a job B. Evaluate candidate qualifications C. Provide an honest overview of both positive and negative job aspects D. Test applicants' technical skills Answer: C. Provide an honest overview of both positive and negative job aspects Q57: Which type of interview focuses on how candidates handled situations in the past to predict future behavior?
A. Stress interview B. Behavioral interview C. Structured interview D. Panel interview Answer: B. Behavioral interview
- Organizational Justice and Fairness Q58: Which type of organizational justice is concerned with the perceived fairness of the outcomes employees receive, like pay and promotions? A. Procedural justice B. Distributive justice C. Interactional justice D. Relational justice Answer: B. Distributive justice Q59: Procedural justice in an organization refers to: A. Fairness of interpersonal treatment by managers B. Transparency of organizational policies C. Fairness in decision-making processes D. Equal distribution of rewards among employees Answer: C. Fairness in decision-making processes Q60: Interactional justice relates to: A. Fairness of the methods used to make decisions B. How respectfully and honestly employees are treated C. Equal distribution of resources D. Providing equal opportunities for advancement Answer: B. How respectfully and honestly employees are treated
B. Confirmation bias C. Availability heuristic D. Escalation of commitment Answer: A. Anchoring bias Q65: The tendency to seek out information that confirms one’s existing beliefs is known as: A. Representativeness heuristic B. Confirmation bias C. Overconfidence bias D. Framing bias Answer: B. Confirmation bias Q66: Escalation of commitment occurs when a decision-maker: A. Adjusts decisions based on new evidence B. Overcommits to a decision despite negative outcomes C. Avoids risks in decision-making D. Makes an unbiased decision based on logic Answer: B. Overcommits to a decision despite negative outcomes
- Workplace Safety and Health Q67: Which federal agency is primarily responsible for ensuring workplace safety and health in the United States? A. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) B. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) C. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) D. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) Answer: B. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
Q68: Which of the following is an example of an engineering control to improve workplace safety? A. Providing safety training to employees B. Installing ventilation systems to reduce exposure to hazardous chemicals C. Enforcing regular breaks to reduce fatigue D. Establishing safety procedures for employees Answer: B. Installing ventilation systems to reduce exposure to hazardous chemicals Q69: Which term describes actions or practices that prevent, reduce, or mitigate the impact of stressors on employees? A. Stress control B. Stress management C. Psychological resilience D. Stress testing Answer: B. Stress management
- Ergonomics and Human Factors Q70: Ergonomics in the workplace is primarily concerned with: A. Reducing job-related monotony B. Improving work environment safety and comfort C. Designing jobs to require more effort D. Increasing hours employees spend at work Answer: B. Improving work environment safety and comfort Q71: Which of the following is an example of an ergonomic intervention? A. Implementing flexible work schedules B. Requiring safety training programs C. Adjusting desk and chair height to reduce strain
