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Irene gold- Spinal Anatomy Questions with Answers, Exams of Anatomy

Cambridge Technical Institute Anatomy

Irene gold- Spinal Anatomy Questions with Answers

Typology: Exams

2024/2025

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Irene gold- Spinal Anatomy Questions with Answers

1. Which germ layer gives rise to the lens of the eye?

A) Neuroectoderm

B) Surface ectoderm

C) Endoderm

D) Paraxial mesoderm: B) Surface ectoderm

2. The primitive streak develops from which embryonic layer?

A) Hypoblast

B) Epiblast

C) Endoderm

D) Neural crest: B) Epiblast

3. The esophagus, gut, and respiratory tract are derived from which

germ layer?

A) Mesoderm

B) Endoderm

C) Ectoderm

D) Neuroectoderm: B) Endoderm

4. Musculoskeletal structures arise from which embryonic source?

A) Mesoderm -> Lateral Plate

B) Endoderm -> Tubular Structures

C) Mesoderm -> Paraxial -> Somatic

D) Ectoderm -> Neural Crest: C) Mesoderm -> Paraxial -> Somatic

5. The urogenital system and kidneys originate from which pathway?

A) Mesoderm -> Paraxial -> Splanchnic

B) Mesoderm -> Intermediate

C) Ectoderm -> Surface Ectoderm

D) Mesoderm -> Lateral Plate: B) Mesoderm -> Intermediate

6. Which embryonic layer gives rise to skull, muscles, and teeth?

A) Mesoderm -> Lateral Plate

B) Mesoderm -> Head

C) Ectoderm -> Neural Tube

D) Endoderm -> Tubular Structures: B) Mesoderm -> Head

7. Adrenal cortex, connective tissue, cardiovascular, and lymphatic

systems arise from which layer?

A) Mesoderm -> Paraxial

B) Mesoderm -> Lateral Plate

C) Ectoderm -> Neural Crest

D) Endoderm: B) Mesoderm -> Lateral Plate

Partial preview of the text

Download Irene gold- Spinal Anatomy Questions with Answers and more Exams Anatomy in PDF only on Docsity!

Irene gold- Spinal Anatomy Questions with Answers

Which germ layer gives rise to the lens of the eye? A) Neuroectoderm B) Surface ectoderm C) Endoderm D) Paraxial mesoderm: B) Surface ectoderm
The primitive streak develops from which embryonic layer? A) Hypoblast B) Epiblast C) Endoderm D) Neural crest: B) Epiblast
The esophagus, gut, and respiratory tract are derived from which germ layer? A) Mesoderm B) Endoderm C) Ectoderm D) Neuroectoderm: B) Endoderm
Musculoskeletal structures arise from which embryonic source? A) Mesoderm -> Lateral Plate B) Endoderm -> Tubular Structures C) Mesoderm -> Paraxial -> Somatic D) Ectoderm -> Neural Crest: C) Mesoderm -> Paraxial -> Somatic
The urogenital system and kidneys originate from which pathway? A) Mesoderm -> Paraxial -> Splanchnic B) Mesoderm -> Intermediate C) Ectoderm -> Surface Ectoderm D) Mesoderm -> Lateral Plate: B) Mesoderm -> Intermediate
Which embryonic layer gives rise to skull, muscles, and teeth? A) Mesoderm -> Lateral Plate B) Mesoderm -> Head C) Ectoderm -> Neural Tube D) Endoderm -> Tubular Structures: B) Mesoderm -> Head
Adrenal cortex, connective tissue, cardiovascular, and lymphatic systems arise from which layer? A) Mesoderm -> Paraxial B) Mesoderm -> Lateral Plate C) Ectoderm -> Neural Crest D) Endoderm: B) Mesoderm -> Lateral Plate

The epidermis, anterior pituitary, lens of the eye, skin, enamel, and hair derive from which layer? A) Surface ectoderm B) Neuroectoderm C) Mesoderm -> Paraxial D) Endoderm: A) Surface ectoderm
The brain, spinal cord, and retina are derived from which structure? A) Neuroectoderm -> Neural Tube -> CNS B) Surface Ectoderm -> Epidermis C) Mesoderm -> Lateral Plate D) Endoderm: A) Neuroectoderm -> Neural Tube -> CNS
What embryonic origin forms Rathke's pouch and the anterior pituitary? A) Surface ectoderm B) Neural crest C) Neuroectoderm D) Endoderm: A) Surface ectoderm
Which embryonic layer forms the ciliary muscle of the eye? A) Neural crest B) Neural plate C) Surface ectoderm D) Lateral plate mesoderm: B) Neural plate
What condition occurs when the lamina fails to fuse, resulting in a tuft of hair over the site? A) Spina Bifida Occulta B) Meningocele C) Myelocele D) Meningomyelocele: A) Spina Bifida Occulta
Meninges protruding out through a spinal defect is known as which con- dition? A) Spina Bifida Occulta B) Meningocele C) Myelocele D) Meningomyelocele: B) Meningocele
If the spinal cord protrudes out because meninges are not properly devel- oped, this condition is called: A) Spina Bifida Occulta B) Myelocele C) Meningocele D) Meningomyelocele: B) Myelocele

B) Meningocele C) Myelocele D) Meningomyelocele: D) Meningomyelocele

Which structure is derived from neural crest cells? A) Adrenal cortex B) Peripheral nervous system C) Lateral plate mesoderm D) Rathke's pouch: B) Peripheral nervous system
Which structure is characteristic of Arnold-Chiari Syndrome Type 1? A) Herniation of the cerebellar tonsils below the foramen magnum B) Persistence of the notochord C) Enlarged spinal cord D) Complete occlusion of the foramen magnum: A) Herniation of the cerebellar tonsils below the foramen magnum
Which vitamin is essential for preventing central nervous system patholo- gies derived from neural tube defects? A) Vitamin B B) Vitamin B9 (Folic Acid) C) Vitamin B D) Vitamin D: B) Vitamin B9 (Folic Acid)
What embryological structure persists as the nucleus pulposus in adults? A) Notochord B) Epimere C) Hypomere D) Neural crest: A) Notochord
Which type of ossification is responsible for the formation of flat bones, such as the mandible and ilium? A) Endochondral ossification B) Intramembranous ossification C) Perichondrial ossification D) Epiphyseal ossification: B) Intramembranous ossification
The dorsal primary rami innervate which group of muscles? A) Flexors of the limbs B) Extensors of the back C) Smooth muscles of the viscera D) Intercostal muscles: B) Extensors of the back
The midgut gives rise to which part of the gastrointestinal tract? A) Esophagus and stomach B) Last 2/3 of the transverse colon to the anus

C) Jejunum, ileum, and ascending colon D) Pharynx and duodenum: C) Jejunum, ileum, and ascending colon

Which embryological region gives rise to the telencephalon and dien- cephalon? A) Rhombencephalon B) Mesencephalon C) Prosencephalon D) Neural crest: C) Prosencephalon
Which type of muscle is derived from the splanchnic mesoderm? A) Skeletal muscle B) Smooth muscle of the viscera C) Cardiac muscle D) Deep back muscles: B) Smooth muscle of the viscera
Which gut division includes the stomach and the bile duct? A) Foregut B) Midgut C) Hindgut D) Proctodeum: A) Foregut
What process is responsible for the formation of bones that first form in cartilage, such as long bones? A) Intramembranous ossification B) Endochondral ossification C) Osteogenic ossification D) Appositional ossification: B) Endochondral ossification
The notochord contributes to which adult structure? A) Vertebral body B) Intervertebral disc nucleus pulposus C) Epiphyseal plate D) Spinal cord: B) Intervertebral disc nucleus pulposus
Which embryonic structure forms skeletal muscle? A) Splanchnic mesoderm B) Myotome C) Neural crest cells D) Epimere: B) Myotome
Visceral smooth muscle derives from which embryonic source? A) Epimere B) Splanchnic mesoderm C) Somatic mesoderm D) Notochord: B) Splanchnic mesoderm

A) Prosencephalon

B) Rhombencephalon C) Mesencephalon D) Telencephalon: B) Rhombencephalon

The Thalamus (including hypo-, epi-, and subthalamus) is derived from which embryonic structure? A) Telencephalon B) Diencephalon C) Mesencephalon D) Metencephalon: B) Diencephalon
The Thalamus is associated with which cranial nerve? A) CN I B) CN II C) CN III D) CN IV: B) CN II
The Midbrain is derived from which vesicle? A) Telencephalon B) Mesencephalon C) Metencephalon D) Myelencephalon: B) Mesencephalon
The Midbrain is associated with which ventricle? A) Lateral ventricle B) Third ventricle C) Fourth ventricle D) Aqueduct of Sylvius: D) Aqueduct of Sylvius
The Pons, cerebellum, and middle cerebellar peduncle originate from which structure? A) Telencephalon B) Diencephalon C) Metencephalon D) Myelencephalon: C) Metencephalon
The 1st Branchial Arch ("Mandibular") is innervated by which cranial nerve? A) CN III B) CN V C) CN VII D) CN IX: B) CN V
The 2nd Branchial Arch ("Hyoid") is innervated by which cranial nerve? A) CN V B) CN VII

B) Pons C) Midbrain D) Diencephalon: C) Midbrain

CN V through CN VIII arise from which part of the brainstem? A) Medulla B) Pons C) Midbrain D) Cerebellum: B) Pons
CN IX through CN XII arise from which part of the brainstem? A) Medulla B) Pons C) Midbrain D) Spinal cord: A) Medulla
What structure connects the pons to the cerebellum? A) Middle cerebellar peduncle B) Cerebral peduncle C) Inferior cerebellar peduncle D) Superior cerebellar peduncle: A) Middle cerebellar peduncle
Which part of the brain controls respiration? A) Pons B) Medulla C) Cerebellum D) Midbrain: B) Medulla
Which cranial nerves are considered bipolar? A) CN I, II, VIII B) CN III, IV, VI C) CN V, VII, IX D) CN I, V, X: A) CN I, II, VIII
CN I (Olfactory) passes through which foramina and bone? A) Optic foramen / sphenoid B) Cribriform plate / ethmoid C) Jugular foramen / occipital D) Superior orbital fissure / sphenoid: B) Cribriform plate / ethmoid
CN II (Optic) passes through which foramina and bone? A) Optic foramen / sphenoid B) Cribriform plate / ethmoid C) Superior orbital fissure / sphenoid D) Jugular foramen / temporal: A) Optic foramen / sphenoid

CN III (Oculomotor) passes through which foramina and bone? A) Cribriform plate / ethmoid B) Superior orbital fissure / sphenoid C) Jugular foramen / temporal D) Optic foramen / sphenoid: B) Superior orbital fissure / sphenoid
CN IV (Trochlear) passes through which foramina and bone? A) Cribriform plate / ethmoid B) Superior orbital fissure / sphenoid C) Optic foramen / sphenoid D) Jugular foramen / temporal: B) Superior orbital fissure / sphenoid
The ophthalmic branch of CN V passes through which foramina and bone? A) Foramen rotundum / sphenoid B) Foramen ovale / sphenoid C) Superior orbital fissure / sphenoid D) Jugular foramen / occipital: C) Superior orbital fissure / sphenoid
CN VII (Facial) passes through which foramina and bone? A) Superior orbital fissure / sphenoid B) Jugular foramen / occipital C) Internal auditory meatus / temporal D) Optic foramen / sphenoid: C) Internal auditory meatus / temporal
The spiral ganglion is associated with which cranial nerve? A) CN I B) CN V C) CN VIII D) CN X: C) CN VIII
CN IX (Glossopharyngeal) passes through which foramina and bone? A) Superior orbital fissure / sphenoid B) Jugular foramen / temporal and occipital C) Optic foramen / sphenoid D) Internal auditory meatus / temporal: B) Jugular foramen / temporal and occip- ital
CN XI (Spinal Accessory) passes through which foramina and bone? A) Superior orbital fissure / sphenoid B) Jugular foramen / temporal and occipital C) Optic foramen / sphenoid D) Internal auditory meatus / temporal: B) Jugular foramen / temporal and occip- ital
What is the action of CN XII (Hypoglossal)? A) Sensory to the tongue

A) Taste to the anterior 2/3 of the tongue

B) Taste and sensation to the posterior 1/3 of the tongue, gag reflex (afferent), carotid sinus reflex C) Motor to the tongue D) Vision and afferent light reflex: B) Taste and sensation to the posterior 1/3 of the tongue, gag reflex (afferent), carotid sinus reflex

Which nerve provides sensory innervation to the pharynx? A) CN VII (Facial) B) CN IX (Glossopharyngeal) C) CN X (Vagus) D) CN XII (Hypoglossal): B) CN IX (Glossopharyngeal)
What is the action of CN X (Vagus)? A) Taste to the posterior 1/3 of the tongue B) Motor to the pharynx, larynx, and parasympathetic control of thoracic and abdominal organs C) Sensory to the face D) Vision and afferent light reflex: B) Motor to the pharynx, larynx, and parasym- pathetic control of thoracic and abdominal organs
What is the action of CN XI (Spinal Accessory)? A) Motor to the tongue B) Motor to the trapezius and sternocleidomastoid (SCM) C) Motor to the pharynx D) Sensory to the pharynx: B) Motor to the trapezius and sternocleidomastoid (SCM)
What is the insertion of the Temporalis muscle? A) Angle of the mandible B) Coronoid process of the mandible C) Zygomatic arch D) Body of the mandible: B) Coronoid process of the mandible
What is the origin of the Masseter muscle? A) Temporal fossa B) Zygomatic arch C) Coronoid process D) Body of the mandible: B) Zygomatic arch
What is the origin of the Internal (Medial) Pterygoid muscle? A) Zygomatic arch B) Medial pterygoid process C) Lateral pterygoid process D) Coronoid process: B) Medial pterygoid process

C) Sodium D) Magnesium: A) Calcium

What is the end result of cellular depolarization? A) Resting potential B) Action potential C) Hyperpolarization D) Graded potential: B) Action potential
What type of fibers make up dorsal column receptors? A) Alpha fibers B) Beta fibers C) C fibers D) Gamma fibers: B) Beta fibers
Which receptors are included in the dorsal column system? A) Pacinian, Ruffini, Meissner's, and Merkel's B) Free nerve endings and Golgi tendon organs C) Muscle spindles and nociceptors D) Thermal receptors and nociceptors: A) Pacinian, Ruffini, Meissner's, and Merkel's
What is the primary function of Pacinian corpuscles? A) Joint position sense B) Vibration detection C) Two-point discrimination D) Pain detection: B) Vibration detection
What is the primary function of Ruffini endings? A) Two-point discrimination B) Joint position sense and conscious proprioception C) Vibration detection D) Pain detection: B) Joint position sense and conscious proprioception
What is the primary function of Meissner's and Merkel's receptors? A) Vibration detection B) Joint position sense C) Two-point discrimination and accurate touch D) Pain detection: C) Two-point discrimination and accurate touch
What type of fibers are spinothalamic receptors made of? A) Myelinated alpha fibers B) Myelinated beta fibers C) Unmyelinated C fibers D) Myelinated gamma fibers: C) Unmyelinated C fibers

Spinothalamic receptors are also known as: A) Meissner's endings B) Free naked endings C) Pacinian corpuscles D) Ruffini endings: B) Free naked endings
Free naked endings detect which sensations? A) Fine touch and vibration B) Pain, temperature, and crude touch C) Proprioception and vibration D) Two-point discrimination: B) Pain, temperature, and crude touch
The postcentral gyrus is located in which lobe? A) Frontal B) Parietal C) Temporal D) Occipital: B) Parietal
What happens during the descending limb of an action potential? A) Sodium enters the cell B) Potassium leaves the cell C) Calcium enters the cell D) Chloride leaves the cell: B) Potassium leaves the cell
The movement of potassium out of the cell leads to: A) Depolarization B) Repolarization C) Hyperpolarization D) Resting membrane potential: B) Repolarization
Repolarization corresponds to which membrane potential state? A) Depolarization B) Hyperpolarization C) Threshold to 0 (resting membrane potential) D) Action potential: C) Threshold to 0 (resting membrane potential)
During resting membrane potential, the charge inside the cell is: A) Positive inside, negative outside B) Negative inside, positive outside C) Positive inside and outside D) Negative inside and outside: B) Negative inside, positive outside
The absolute refractory period corresponds to which ionic state? A) Potassium influx B) Sodium influx and depolarization

The medial geniculate body processes sensory input from: A) Eyes (sight) B) Ears (hearing) C) Skin (touch) D) Tongue (taste): B) Ears (hearing)
Where is the internal capsule located? A) Lateral to the thalamus B) Medial to the thalamus C) Inferior to the cerebellum D) Superior to the brainstem: A) Lateral to the thalamus
The cerebrum is responsible for: A) Respiratory control B) Intellect and association C) Proprioception and balance D) Auditory processing: B) Intellect and association
The localization of the "somesthetic cortex" in the postcentral gyrus corresponds to which Brodmann areas? A) 4, 6 B) 1, 2, 3 C) 9, 10, 11 D) 17, 18: B) 1, 2, 3
Brodmann area 17, responsible for vision, is located in which lobe? A) Temporal lobe B) Occipital lobe C) Parietal lobe D) Frontal lobe: B) Occipital lobe
What is the function of Wernicke's area (POT center)? A) Sensory matching B) Motor coordination C) Visual processing D) Pain perception: A) Sensory matching
Speech is associated with which area of the brain? A) Broca's area B) Wernicke's area C) Primary motor cortex D) Visual cortex: B) Wernicke's area
What is the primary function of Wernicke's area? A) Speech production B) Speech interpretation, such as determining if speech makes sense

C) Visual processing D) Motor control of speech: B) Speech interpretation, such as determining if speech makes sense

What structure is damaged by a B1/Thiamine deficiency caused by alco- hol (Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome)? A) Visual cortex B) Speech centers in Wernicke's area C) Motor cortex D) Amygdala: B) Speech centers in Wernicke's area
The precentral gyrus is located in which lobe? A) Parietal lobe B) Temporal lobe C) Occipital lobe D) Frontal lobe: D) Frontal lobe
Cognitive function and emotion are associated with which system? A) Limbic system B) Basal ganglia C) Visual system D) Auditory system: A) Limbic system
The limbic system is primarily associated with which structure? A) Thalamus B) Amygdala C) Basal ganglia D) Cerebellum: B) Amygdala
Parkinson's disease results from dysfunction in which structure? A) Cerebellum B) Basal ganglia and lack of dopamine C) Limbic system D) Primary motor cortex: B) Basal ganglia and lack of dopamine
The decrease in dopamine in Parkinson's disease originates from which structure? A) Substantia nigra in the midbrain B) Amygdala C) Thalamus D) Hippocampus: A) Substantia nigra in the midbrain
What type of gait is associated with Parkinson's disease? A) Spastic gait B) Ataxic gait

Irene gold- Spinal Anatomy Questions with Answers, Exams of Anatomy

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Download Irene gold- Spinal Anatomy Questions with Answers and more Exams Anatomy in PDF only on Docsity!

Irene gold- Spinal Anatomy Questions with Answers