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A set of practice questions and answers for the jb learning final exam for emergency medical technicians (emt). It covers various topics related to emt practice, including pediatric care, geriatric care, trauma, and emergency medical procedures. The questions are designed to test the knowledge and understanding of emt concepts and procedures.
Typology: Exams
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Answer: bulging fontanelles.
Capillary refill time is MOST reliable as an indicator of end-organ perfusion in children younger than: Answer: 6 years.
Febrile seizures in a child: Answer: typically last less than 30 minutes.
Greenstick fractures occur in infants and children because: Answer: their bones bend more easily than an adult's.
Signs of severe dehydration in an infant include all of the following, EXCEPT:
Answer: loss of balance, muscle weakness, and spasms.
When administering oxygen to a frightened child, it would be MOST appropriate to: Answer: place oxygen tubing through a hole in a paper cup.
An older woman with osteoporosis presents with pain and deformity to her left hip after she shifted her weight onto her other foot. She has MOST likely experienced a(n): Answer: pathologic fracture.
Common causes of syncope in older patients include all of the following, EXCEPT: Answer: vasoconstriction.
Fractures of the pelvis in older patients often occur as the result of a combination of: Answer: osteoporosis and low-energy trauma.
Motor nerve neuropathy is characterized by:
Answer: ask your team members to wait until you can establish a rapport with the patient.
Airway management can be challenging in patients with Down syndrome because their: Answer: teeth are misaligned and they have a large tongue.
Cerebral palsy is a condition that results from damage or injury to the: Answer: brain.
Patients with autism: Answer: have extreme difficulty with complex tasks that require many steps.
When caring for patients with cerebral palsy, it is important to remember that: Answer: their limbs are often underdeveloped and are prone to injury.
When interacting with an intellectually disabled patient, the best approach is to:
Cerebral palsy is characterized by poorly controlled movement. Answer: Body.
Which of the following clinical presentations is MOST consistent with pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)? Answer: Lower abdominal pain, fever, general malaise, and foul-smelling vaginal discharge.
A 33-year-old woman who is 36 weeks pregnant is experiencing vaginal bleeding. During transport, you note that she suddenly becomes diaphoretic, tachycardic, and hypotensive. You should: Answer: place her in a left lateral recumbent position.
Spina bifida is a developmental defect in which: Answer: a portion of the spinal cord or meninges protrudes outside of the vertebrae.
Death caused by shaken baby syndrome is usually the result of:
Which of the following does NOT usually contribute to or cause obesity? Answer: Rapid metabolism.
EMTs are dispatched to a residence for an 80 - year-old woman who is ill. The patient's daughter states that her mother almost fainted after going to the bathroom, and that her pulse was very slow. The patient's pulse rate is 80 beats/min and irregular and she is conscious and alert. The EMTs should suspect that the patient: Answer: experienced a vasovagal response.
A portable oxygen cylinder should have a minimum capacity of of oxygen. Answer: 500 L.
If hydroplaning of the ambulance occurs, the driver should: Answer: gradually slow down without jamming on the brakes.
Portable and mounted suction units must be powerful enough to generate a vacuum of at least mm Hg when the tubing is clamped. Answer:
In order to evaluate hazards present at the scene and determine the number of patients, you should: Answer: perform a 360 - degree walk around of the scene.
The scene size-up at a motor vehicle crash or other incident: Answer: is an ongoing process until the incident is terminated.
When determining the exact location and position of the patient(s) in a wrecked vehicle, you and your team should routinely consider all of the following, EXCEPT: Answer: the make and model of the vehicle.
Your primary concern when arriving at the scene of a motor vehicle crash is: Answer: surveying the area for hazards.
Burn patients without airway compromise and patients with multiple bone or joint injuries should be marked with a triage tag at a mass-casualty incident.
Answer: signifies a request for other drivers to yield the right of way.
Nerve agents, a class of chemicals called organophosphates, were first discovered while in search of a superior: Answer: require multiple terrorists working together.
Nerve agents, a class of chemicals called organophosphates, were first discovered while in search of a superior: Answer: pesticide.
Symptoms of both inhaled and ingested ricin include: Answer: fever and headache.
The skin lesions associated with smallpox: Answer: are identical in their development.
The use of lights and siren on an ambulance:
Answer: direct pressure using dry, sterile dressings.
When approaching a helicopter, whether the rotor blades are moving or not, you should: Answer: never duck under the body or the tail boom because the pilot cannot see you in these areas.
When removing a critically injured patient from his or her vehicle, you should: Answer: protect the cervical spine during the entire process.
The mastoid process is located approximately: Answer: 1 inch posterior to the external opening of the ear.
The white portion of the eye is called the: Answer: sclera.
Bleeding from soft-tissue injuries to the face is MOST effectively controlled with:
Answer: remember that it could still deploy and seriously injure you.
Which of the following would MOST likely occur as the direct result of the second collision in a motor vehicle crash? Answer: Deformed steering wheel
A 70-year-old man presents with a severe nosebleed. His medical history includes COPD, depression, and a hemorrhagic stroke 3 years ago. His BP is 190/110 mm Hg, his pulse is 100 beats/min, and his respirations are 24 breaths/min. His medications include albuterol, sertraline (Zoloft), and multivitamins. Which of the following is MOST likely causing his nosebleed today? Answer: High blood pressure
A patient is bleeding severely from a severed femoral artery high in the groin region. Which of the following would MOST likely control the bleeding? Answer: Apply a topical hemostatic agent with direct pressure
Early signs and symptoms of intra-abdominal bleeding include: Answer: pain and distention.
Most cases of external bleeding from an extremity can be controlled by: Answer: applying local direct pressure.
Which of the following occurs after tissues are injured? Answer: Platelets collect at the injury site
Which of the following organs can tolerate inadequate perfusion for 2 to 3 hours? Answer: Skeletal muscle
A 17 - year-old male was shot in the right anterior chest during an altercation. As your partner is applying oxygen, you perform a rapid assessment and find an open chest wound with a small amount of blood bubbling from it. You should: Answer: apply an occlusive dressing to the wound and continue your assessment.
An injury that separates various layers of soft tissue, resulting in complete detachment or a flap of skin, is called a(n):
Answer: a detached retina.
A young female experienced a laceration to her left eyeball from flying glass when her boyfriend broke a soda bottle against a wall. There is moderate bleeding and the patient states that she cannot see out of the injured eye. You should: Answer: avoid applying pressure to the globe when you are covering the eye.
The eyeball itself is referred to as the: Answer: globe.
A fall from more than times the patient's height is considered to be significant. Answer: Three
A patient complaining of chest tightness, coughing up blood, and subcutaneous emphysema following an explosion may be suffering from a: Answer: pulmonary blast injury.
Significant clues to the possibility of severe injuries in motor vehicle collisions include: Answer: death of a passenger.
is inadequate tissue perfusion. Answer: Shock
You and your partner respond to a patient who has had his hand nearly severed by a drill press. As you approach, you note that the patient is pale and there appears to be a lot of blood on the floor. The wound continues to bleed copiously. After applying a tourniquet, you write and on a piece of adhesive tape and apply it to the patient's forehead. Answer: the letters "TK"; the exact time applied
burns may involve the subcutaneous layers, muscle, bone, or internal organs. Answer: Full-thickness
A(n) occurs when a great amount of force is applied to the body for a long period of time. Answer: crushing injury
Answer: hangings.
The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is used to assess: Answer: eye opening, verbal response, and motor response.
What part of the nervous system controls the body's voluntary activities? Answer: Somatic
An epidural hematoma is MOST accurately defined as: Answer: bleeding between the skull and dura mater.
Bleeding within the brain tissue itself is called a(n): Answer: intracerebral hematoma.
The contain(s) about 75% of the brain's total volume.
The tough, fibrous outer meningeal layer is called the: Cerebrum.
The is the best-protected part of the CNS and controls the functions of the cardiac and respiratory systems. Answer: brain stem.
The cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) that circulates in between each meningeal layer: Answer: acts as a shock absorber for the brain and spinal cord.
The hormone responsible for the actions of the sympathetic nervous system is: Answer: epinephrine.
The MOST reliable sign of a head injury is: Answer: a decreased level of consciousness.