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For private pilot operations, a first class medical certificate issued to a 23 year old pilot on October 21, this year will expire at midnight on... - ✔✔October 31, 5 years later A first class medical for under 40 is good for 12months. From the start of the 13 month till 60months, it is good for operations only requiring 3rd class medical (PP) Normal VFR conditions exists in Class D airspace with an operating control tower require the ceiling and vis to be at least - ✔✔1000 feet and 3 miles In order to operate in class D Airspace, VFR vis min is 3 miles, ceiling must be at least 1,000 feet To act as pilot in command, of an aircraft carrying passengers, pilot must have made three takeoffs and landings in an aircraft of the same - ✔✔category, class, type, if a type rating is required Unless otherwise specified, Federal Airways include that Class E Airspace extending upward from - ✔✔1,200 ft AGL above the surface up to and including 17,999 feet MSL What is the definition of a high performance plane - ✔✔Airplane with over 200 hp A complex airplane has retractable landing gear, flaps, and a controllable propeller. Cruise speed is not used to determine wether an airplane is high performance When are non-rechargeable batteries of an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) required to be replaced?
- ✔✔When 50 percent of their useful life expires (or after 1 hour of continuous use) When flying in a VFR corridor designated through Class B airspace, the maximum speed authorized is - ✔✔200 knots No person in VFR corridor through or below class B may travel more than 200 knots
Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other aircraft listed? glider, airship, refueling - ✔✔Glider (out of glider, airship, refueling) in general, the least maneuverable aircraft normally has the right of way. Glider has the right of way over an airship, airplane or rotorcraft. An aircraft that is refueling another has the right of way over all other engine driven aircraft but not a glider Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other aircraft listed? Aircraft towing, airship, gyroplane - ✔✔Aircraft towing Aircraft towing or refueling has right of way over all other types of engine driven aircraft Who is responsible for ensuring Airworthiness Directives (AD's) are complied with? - ✔✔Owner or operator In compliance with 14 CFR Part 39 (ADs) With respect to passengers, what obligation, if any, does a pilot in command have concerning the use of safety belts? - ✔✔The pilot in command must brief the passengers on the use of safety belts and notify them to fasten their safety belts during taxi, takeoff and landing (and shoulder if installed) PIC must ensure that each person is briefed Which incident would necessitate an immediate notification to the nearest NTSB field office? - ✔✔An in flight fire What minimum radio equipment is required to land an takeoff at Norfolk International? (class C airspace), solid magenta line - ✔✔Transponder with Mode C capability, two way radio, and ADS-B Out To operate in class C airspace, you must maintain two-way radio communication with the controlling facility and your aircraft must be equipped with a transponder with Mode C capability and ADS-B Out equipment What is the estimated time enroute for a flight from Aleendale County Airport to Claxton Evans? The wind is 100 degrees at 18 kts and the true airspeed is 115 kts. Add 2 mins for climb out. - ✔✔30 minutes
When converting from true course to magnetic heading, a pilot should - ✔✔add westerly variation and subtract left wind correction angle East is least, West is best L is minus, R is plus When telephoning a weather briefing facility for preflight weather information, pilots should state - ✔✔The intended route of the flight and destination Briefer is able to better tailor the info if the route, destination and aircraft type are known. Determine the approximate landing ground roll distance. Pressure alt 1,250 ft, headwind, 8 its, temp standard - ✔✔366 ft With a reported wind of south at 20 knots, which runway (10, 14, or 24) is appropriate for an airplane with a 13-knot maximum crosswind component? - ✔✔Runway 14 is most appropriate Basic radar service in the terminal radar program is best described as - ✔✔safety alerts, traffic advisories, and limited vectoring to VFR aircraft "Basic radar services for VFR provides safety alerts, traffic advisories, and limited vectoring. Unlike Class B and Class C service, basic service is not mandatory for VFR aircraft. Wind shear warning is NOT part of basic. Note: terminology is now BASIC, TRSA, Class C, and Class B FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to ATC and General operations are issued under which subject number? - ✔✔ 90 FAA Circulars relating to airmen are issued under no. 60 FAA advisory circulars relating to airspace are under number...? - ✔✔ 70 Airmen - 60 ATC and General Operations - 90 How does the wake turbulence vortex circulate around each wingtip? - ✔✔outward, upward, and around each tip
wake turbulence vortices are a by-product of lift. They move outward, upward around each wingtip. Arrows appearing on the end of runways (lots of 'em) mean what? - ✔✔the area cannot be used for landing, but can be used for taxiing and takeoff. at many airports, the area prior to a displaced threshold may be used for taxi and takeoff (and rollout after landing). The greatest vortex strength occurs when the generating aircraft is - ✔✔Heavy, clean and slow have aircraft in a clean configuration, flying at low airspeeds with high angles of attack, generate the strongest vortices The numbers 8 and 26 on the approach ends of the runway indicate that the runway is orientated approximately - ✔✔080 and 260 magnetic direction Runway numbers indicate runway's MAGNETIC heading to the nearest 10 degrees What should be the first action after starting an aircraft? - ✔✔Adjust for proper RPM and check for desired indications on the engine gauges Immediately after starting an engine, set the proper RPM and check engine gauges for proper indications When departing behind a heavy aircraft, the pilot should avoid wake turbulence by maneuvering the aircraft - ✔✔above and upwind from the heavy aircraft Wake turbulence tends to sink and drift downwind, so stay above and upwind The most effective method of scanning for other aircraft for collision avoidance during daylight hours is to use - ✔✔a series of short, regularly spaced eye movements to search each 10-degree sector Eyes are only able to focus on a small area, this method most effective. At night - off center viewing 500 pound box - ✔✔WxL=W2xL Weight shift formula
The proper adjustment to make on the attitude indicator during level flight is to align the - ✔✔miniature airplane to the horizon bar "The miniature airplane is adjustable and should be set to match the flight level indication of the horizon bar" What is an important airspeed limitation that is not color coded on airspeed indicators? - ✔✔maneuvering speed can be found in POH What is the effect of a temperature decrease and a pressure altitude increase on the density altitude from 90F and 1,250ft PA to 55F and 1,750ft PA? - ✔✔1,700ft decrease While cruising at 9,500 feet MSL, the fuel/air mixture is properly adjusted. What will occur if a descent to 4,500 feet MSL is made without readjusting the mixture? - ✔✔The fuel air mixture will become excessively lean "With a decrease in altitude, air density increases. This means you have to enrich the mixture as you descend, otherwise the fuel/air mixture can become excessively lean." If an airplane weighs 3,300 pounds, what approximate weight would the airplane structure be required to support during a 30 degree banked turn? - ✔✔3, 3,300 x1. During a spin to the left, which wing(s) is/are stalled? - ✔✔Both wings are stalled In a spin, both wings are stalled Interpret the weather symbol depicted in Utah on the 12-hour Significant Weather Prognostic Chart. - ✔✔Mod turbulence surface up to 18,000 feet Using the key, 12 hour side over Utah Absence of the sky condition and visibility on an ATIS broadcast indicates that - ✔✔the ceiling is at least 5,000 feet and visibility is 5 miles or more Optional reporting, outside of sensors range
Crests of standing mountain waves may be marked by stationary, lens-shaped clouds known as - ✔✔standing lenticular clouds lens shaped clouds that form at the crests of mountain waves Low-level turbulence can occur and icing can become hazardous in which type of fog? - ✔✔Steam fog "Steam fog is formed by cold, dry air moving over warmer water. As the water particles evaporate and rise, they often freeze and fall back into the water. Icing and low level turbulence can occur. One weather phenomenon which will always occur when flying across a front is a change in the - ✔✔Wind direction "A shift in wind direction always occurs across a front" Radar reports are of special interest to pilots because they indicate.. - ✔✔location of precipitation along with type, intensity, and cell movement of precipitation "Radar weather reports show areas of precipitation along with type, intensity, and cell movement of precipitation" intensity trend is no longer indicated" What causes variations in altimeter settings between weather reporting points? - ✔✔unequal heating of the earth's surface "temperature change causes variations in air pressure and density" What information is contained in a CONVECTIVE SIGMET? - ✔✔Tornadoes, embedded thunderstorms, and hail 3/4 inch or greater in diameter "SIGMET used for bad weather" What would decrease the stability of an air mass? a) warming from below b) cooling from below c) decrease in water vapor - ✔✔warming from below
For VFR flight in uncontrolled or class G airspace below 1,200 ft during daytime, you are only required to have 1 mile visibility and remain clear of clouds What should an owner or operator know about Airworthiness Directives (AD's) - ✔✔They are mandatory ADs are published as part of the FAR's You may not operate an aircraft to which an airworthiness directive applies, except in accordance with the airworthiness directive Which is normally prohibited when operating a restricted category civil aircraft? - ✔✔Flight over a densely populated area Which is the correct traffic pattern departure procedure to use at a non-controlled airport? - ✔✔comply with any FAA traffic pattern established for the airport Comply with traffic pattern established in Part 93 Which incident requires an immediate notification to the nearest NTSB field office?
- flight control system malfunction or failure
- a forced landing due to engine failure
- landing gear damage - ✔✔A flight control system malfunction or failure The elevation of Chesapeake Regional airport is - ✔✔20 feet, the first number on the last line of the airport description What is the magnetic heading for a flight from priest river airport to shoshone county airport? The wind is from 030 at 12 knots and true airspeed is 95 knots. - ✔✔ 118 Find magnetic heading This is done by first determining true heading by correcting true course for winds. Then correct true heading for magnetic variation. On what course should the VOR receiver (OBS) be set to navigate direct from Hampton Varnville Airport (area 1) to Savannah VORTAC (area 3)? - ✔✔183 TO OBS (omni bearing selector)
The flag symbols at Statesboro Bullock County Airport, Claxton-Evans County Airport, and Ridgeland Airport are - ✔✔visual checkpoints o identify position for initial callus prior to entering Savannah Class C airspace "The flag symbols represent checkpoints used to identify the aircraft position for approach control. In this case, they are visual checkpoints used when contacting Savannah Approach Control If Redbird Tower is not in operation, which frequency should be used as a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to monitor airport traffic? - ✔✔120. Since the frequency of the tower designated CT 120.3"? is next to the CTAF symbol, the CTAF frequency is the tower frequency What outbound bearing is the aircraft crossing? - ✔✔ 030 Because the tail of the needle indicates the outbound heading FROM the station The VOR is tuned to Binham VORTAC and the aircraft is positioned over the town of Sulphur Springs. Which VOR indication is correct? - ✔✔7 because if the VOR indicator is 90-degrees off, the VOR indicator will show "OFF" If a true heading of 135° results in a ground track of 130° and a true airspeed of 135 knots results in a groundspeed of 140 knots, the wind would be from - ✔✔246 at 13 knts Determine the approximate manifold pressure setting with 2,450 to achieve 65 percent maximum continuous power at 6,500 feet with a temp of 36 or higher - ✔✔21.0 inches hg According to the airport diagram, which of the following is true? - ✔✔takeoffs may be started at position A on Runway 12 and the landing portion of the runway begins at position B A below glide slope indication from a pulsating approach slope indicator is a - ✔✔red pulsating light Most midair collisions occur during - ✔✔Clear days "most collisions occurring during clear daytime weather as reported by the NTSB"
If a pilot experiences spatial disorientation during flight in a restricted visibility condition, the best way to overcome the effect is to - ✔✔rely upon the aircraft instrument indications since the brain receives confusing messages from the body senses, the pilot must rely on the aircraft's instruments Excessively high engine temperatures, either in the air or on the ground, will - ✔✔Cause loss of power, excessive oil consumption, and possible permanent internal engine damage. High temperatures can cause detonation and a resulting loss of engine power, excessive oil consumption, and engine damage, including scoring of the cylinders and damage to piston, rings, and valves. If the grade of fuel used in an aircraft engine is lower than specified for the engine, it will most likely cause - ✔✔detonation The higher the grade of fuel, the more pressure it can withstand without detonating. conversely, lower fuel grades are more prone to detonation In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate a turn toward the north if - ✔✔It accelerates while on a east or western heading Acceleration error is the worst on east/west headings. Use the acronym ANDS Accelerate North, Decelerate, south Loading an airplane to the most aft CG will cause the airplane to be - ✔✔Less stable at all speeds In an airplane loaded to the aft, CG limit, the horizontal stabilizer is less effective, causing the airplane to be less stable at all speeds What causes an airplane (except a t-tail) to pitch nose down when power is reduced and controls are not adjusted? - ✔✔The downwash on the elevators from the propellor slipstream is reduced and elevator effectiveness is reduced. Downwash is created by the propeller slipstream What force makes an airplane turn? - ✔✔The horizontal component of lift. As an aircraft turns, lift becomes the resultant of two components, vertical lift which opposes gravity and horizontal lift which opposes inertia. It is the horizontal lift component that turns the aircraft.
The horizontal component of lift, which is referred to as centripetal force, opposes centrifugal force and causes the airplane to turn. Full Flap Operating Range - ✔✔The white arc indicates the full flap operating range, this case 60- 100MPH What color identifies the power-off stalling speed in a specific configuration? - ✔✔Lower limit of the green arc Upper limit of green arc is max structural cruising speed Yellow arc is caution range Red is VNE What color represents the power off stall speed with wing flaps and landing gear in landing configuration? - ✔✔The lower limit of the white arc Stall speed with flaps and gear down Which wind condition would be most critical when taxiing a nosewheel equipped high wing airplane? - ✔✔quartering tailwind tricycle gear (nose wheel) are most susceptible to quartering tailwind because strong airflow beneath the wing and horizontal stabilizer can tip or nose over the aircraft As altitude increases, the indicated airspeed at which a given airplane stalls in a particular configuration will - ✔✔remain the same regardless of altitude the IAS of a stall remains the same because the airspeed indicators are calibrated at standard sea level conditions and do not reflect lower air density at higher altitudes IAS decreases with lower air pressure (less molecules) A stable air mass is most likely to have which characteristics? - ✔✔Smooth air Stable air resists the lifting motion associated with turbulence, and is typically smooth Showery precipitation and turbulent air are characteristics of unstable air
A. When stable air crosses a mountain barrier where it tends to flow in layers forming lenticular clouds. B. In areas of low-level temperature inversion, frontal zones, and clear air turbulence. C. Following frontal passage when stratocumulus clouds form indicating mechanical mixing. - ✔✔B. In areas of low-level temperature inversions, frontal zones and clear air turbulence Where can the operating limitations for an aircraft be found? - ✔✔in the current, FAA approved flight manual, approved manual material, markings and placards, or any combination thereof Which of the following are required to be carried during flight? - ✔✔FAA approved flight manual (AFM) Airplane flight manual An annual inspection was performed on an aircraft June 13, 2018. When is the next annual inspection due? - ✔✔June 30, 2019 preceding 12 months has had an annual inspection Airworthiness certificate remains good - ✔✔as long as the airplane is maintained and operated according to the FAR's In addition to a valid Airworthiness Certificate, what documents or records must be aboard an aircraft during flight? - ✔✔operating limitations and registration certificate ARROW for what is required An aircraft had a 100-hour inspection when the tachometer read 1259.6. When is the next 100-hour inspection due? - ✔✔1359.6 hours not able to operate unless the 100 hour inspection has been performed A 100 hour inspection was due at 3302.5 hours. The 100 hour inspection was actually done at 3309. hours. When is the next 100 hour inspection due? - ✔✔3402. if the inspection is delayed, it is due when the original inspection was scheduled, if it is done ahead of time, the next one is due 100hours after the ACTUAL one
Maintenance records show the last transponder inspection was performed on September 1, 2014. The next inspection will be due no later than - ✔✔Sept 30, 2016 ATC transponder due every 2 years Who is responsible for determining if an aircraft is in condition for safe flight? - ✔✔Pilot in command Has final authority Who is responsible for ensuring that an aircraft is maintained in an airworthy condition? - ✔✔The owner or operator Which preflight action is specifically required of the pilot prior to each flight? - ✔✔Become familiar with all available information concerning the flight You discover inoperative equipment on an airplane that you are planning to fly. Under what conditions can you complete the flight under VFR? - ✔✔the equipment is not required by FAR 91.205, an equipment list or KOEL, the VFR day type requirements, or an AD May a pilot operate an aircraft that is not in compliance with an Airworthiness Directive (AD)? - ✔✔yes, if allowed by the AD some require immediate service, some don't Preventative maintenance has been performed, what paperwork is required - ✔✔The signature, certificate number, and kind of certificate held by the person approving the work and description of work done must be entered into the aircraft maintenance records Which CFR covers preventative maintenance? - ✔✔14CFR 43. replacing and servicing batteries, replace spark plugs, service wheel bearing, hydraulic fluids etc Who may perform preventive maintenance on an aircraft and approve it for return to service? - ✔✔Private or commercial pilot
carb icing is not a high risk at low temps because the air can't hold that much moisture when its cold Applying carb heat will - ✔✔enrich the fuel/air mixture warmer air entering the carb is less dense, same amount of fuel though so it becomes more rich Generally speaking, the use of carburetor heat tends to - ✔✔decrease engine performance when the fuel/air mix is enriched, power decreases The presence of carburetor ice in an aircraft equipped with a fixed-pitch propeller can be verified by applying carburetor heat and noting - ✔✔a decrease in RPM then a gradual increase in RPM Mixture initially enriched with warm air then RPM will start to come back when ice starts to melt and more air increases into the carb Whats more sus to icing, fuel injection or float type - ✔✔Float type If the grade of fuel used in an aircraft engine is lower than specified for the engine, it will most likely cause - ✔✔detonation lower grades are more sus to detonation with accompanying higher engine temperatures Detonation occurs in a reciprocating aircraft engine when - ✔✔the unburned charge explodes instead of operating normally Detonation may occur at high-power settings when A - the fuel mixture ignites instantaneously instead of burning progressively and evenly. B - an excessively rich fuel mixture causes an explosive gain in power. C - the fuel mixture is ignited too early by hot carbon deposits in the cylinder. - ✔✔A- the fuel mix ignites instantly
You suspect that your engine is detonating afterclimbqut after takeoff, your initial corrective action would be to - ✔✔adjust nose doen to increase airspeed to increase cooling airflow, reduce rate of climb The uncontrolled firing of the fuel/air charge in advance of normal spark ignition is known as - ✔✔preignition Filling the tanks after the last flight of the day is considered a good operating procedure because this will
- ✔✔prevent air forming condensation For internal cooling, reciprocating aircraft engines are especially dependent on - ✔✔circulation of lubricating oil oil lubricates, carries heat from interior to oil cooler High engine temps may be caused by - ✔✔the oil pressure being too low What is another method to aid in cooling an engine? - ✔✔enrichen the fuel/air mixture richer fuel air mixture burns at a lower temperature How is engine operation controlled on an engine equipped with a constant-speed propeller? - ✔✔the throttle controls power output as registered on the manifold pressure gauges and the propeller control has the engine RPM power output of engine is indicated on the manifold pressure gauge prop control changes engine RPM indicated on the tachometer, by adjusting the pitch of the prop Excessively high engine temperatures, either in the air or on the ground, will - ✔✔cause loss of power, excessive oil consumption and possible permanent damage scoring What is the advantage of a constant speed propeller? - ✔✔Permits the pilot to be able to select the blade angle for most efficient performance
