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MCQ Base Clinical Pharmacology
Mechanism of drug action is explored by: A) pharmacokinetics B) pharmacogenetics C) pharmacoeconomics D) pharmacodynamics E) pharmacognosy
Therapeutic window is the dosages of a medication (therapeutic serum concentrations ) between: A) TD 50 curve and ED (^50) B) ED 50 and T1/ C) the amount that gives an effect (effective dose) and the amount that gives more adverse effects than desired effects D) the amount that gives minimal adverse effects and the amount that gives more adverse effects E) the amount that gives minimal effect and the amount that gives full therapeutic effect
Therapeutic index is the ratio of: A) LD 50 over the ED 50 B) ED 50 over the LD 50 C) bioavailability over drug dose D) apparent volume of distribution over elimination rate constant E) total clearance over nonrenal (extrarenal) clearance
Therapeutic drug monitoring means: A) trough concentration under steady-state condition B) measurement of medication concentrations in blood C) the process of chemical alteration of drugs in the body D) amount of untoward effects following treatment E) development of expected desired effects
Therapeutic dose is not related to: A) patient’s age B) rout of administration C) desired therapeutic effect D) organs of elimination E) treatment costs
Mean therapeutic doses mentioned in manuals is obtained by the following way: A) calculation of pharmacokinetic features B) clinical investigations C) experimental investigations D) experimental data adopted for human body
E) calculation of pharmacodynamic features
Find correct definition to presystemic metabolism (first pass metabolism). A) drug inactivation in the systemic circulation B) drug inactivation in kidneys C) drug inactivation in the liver after systemic circulation D) enzymatic cleavage in the gastrointestinal lumen, gut wall, by bacterial enzymes, and in the liver E) enzymatic cleavage in the gastrointestinal lumen
Advantages of parenteral rout of administration does not include one of the following: A) rapid onset of action B) low risk of overdosing C) precise dosing D) absence of influence on gastrointestinal tract E) 100% bioavailability
Acetylsalicylic acid absorption is much faster when рН is: A) 2 , B) 3, C) 3, D) 4, E) 1,
Atropine absorption is much faster when рН is: A) 2, B) 3, C) 3, D) 4, E) 1,
Distribution is the A. Process that defines the drug entrance into the systemic circulation from the site of administration or application B. Abstract concept, which determines where is a drug distributed C. Chemical processing of drugs before they will leave an organism D. Disposition of a drug throughout the body from the general circulation E. Elimination of drugs from the body
Volume of distribution is the A. Disposition of a drug throughout the body from the general circulation B. Elimination of drugs from the body C. Chemical processing of drugs before they will leave an organism D. Process that defines the drug entrance into the systemic circulation from the site of administration or application E. Abstract concept, which determines where is a drug distributed
After administration of the drug following reactions could be observed except: A. Therapeutic action. B. Idiosyncrasy. C. Tolerance. D. Tachyphylaxis. E. Reabsorption.
The duration of therapeutic effect depends on: A. Route of administration. B. Frequency of administration. C. Form of the drug. D. Elimination route. E. No correct answer.
After what half-lives steady-state concentration of drug is achieved? A) 1-2 T (^) 1/ B) 3 - 5 T ½ C) 6 - 8 T ½ D) 9 - 11 T ½ E) 12 -2 4 T ½
How do you understand elimination rate constant? A) amount of drug, disposed in urine per day B) amount of drug, disposed in feces per day C) it is equivalent to the fraction of a substance that is removed per unit time measured at any particular instant D) twofold reduction in drug concentration per day E) twofold reduction in drug concentration during 12 hours
Risk of adverse effects is low in the following cases: A) long-term of drug use B) impairment of organs where biotransformation takes place C) elderly patients D) simultaneous use of less than 4 drugs E) simultaneous use of drugs with the same adverse reactions
Pharmacokinetic interactions include one of the following: A) drug action on receptors B) enhancement of pharmacologic effect C) attenuation of pharmacological effects D) alteration of drug concentration of one drug by the prior or concurrent administration of another E) influence of drug on another one following the same rout of administration
Name methods used to evaluate drug safety and effectiveness: A) laboratory studies
b) imaging technology C) physical examination D) recording patient symptoms E) all of the above
One of the following drugs inhibits tetracycline absorption. A) sodium bicarbonate B) calcium-containing drugs C) potassium-containing medicines D) phosphorus-containing compounds E) magnesium-containing drugs
Which drug induces cytochrome P 450 in the liver? A) probenecid B) epinephrine C) norepinephrine D) phenobarbital E) dopamine
Which drug induces bilirubin biotransformation? A) serotonin B) epinephrine C) norepinephrine D) phenobarbital E) dopamine
Cholestyramine decreases absorption of: A) clindamycin B) potassium-containing medicines C) sodium bicarbonate D) magnesium-containing drugs E) phosphorus-containing compounds
Enzyme activity may be induced by one of the following drugs. A) serotonin B) epinephrine C) norepinephrine D) griseofulvin E) dopamine
In emergency states we should take into account one of the following: A) changes in drug absorption time B) changes in drug absorption ammount C) blood рН D) gastric рН E) urine рН
B. Bioavailability is the kind of susceptibility of body tissues to the given drug C. Proportion of administered drug that reaches the systemic circulation D. Proportion of administered drug that reaches the systemic circulation in changed form E. Ability of administered drug to reach its target of action
First-pass metabolism is A. Metabolism which takes place in the liver B. Metabolism which takes place in the gastrointestinal tract C. The metabolism of a drug that occurs en route from the gut lumen to the systemic circulation D. Renal metabolism E. The metabolism of a drug that occurs in the systemic circulation
Choose the pharmacological group, which produces action on ion channels A. Antiarrhythmic drugs B. Beta 2 –adrenoreceptor blockers C. Sulfonamides D. Antipsychotic drugs E. Biguanides
- Which characteristic is correct relatively to impaired renal function? A. Decrement of drug concentration in blood B. Increased elimination of drugs C. Decreased clearance of drugs D. Enhance in protein binding capacity E. Fewer doses should be avoided
The subjects of pharmacokinetics are all except: A. Route of administration of the drug. B. Biotransformation of active substance. C. Distibution of active substance within the organism. D. Binding of the active substance with plasma albumins. E. Adverse effects of the drug.
Which of the following is not the subject for pharmacodynamics? A. Mechanism of action. B. Duration of effect. C. Adverse effects. D. Phases of metabolism. E. Affinity.
After administration of the drug following reactions could be observed except: A. Therapeutic action. B. Idiosyncrasy. C. Tolerance. D. Tachyphylaxis. E. Reabsorption.
The duration of therapeutic effect depends on: A. Route of administration. B. Frequency of administration. C. Form of the drug. D. Elimination route. E. No correct answer.
The ratio of quantity of drug reaching systemic blood flow and total amount of introduced drug in different forms, or manufactured by different producers is referred to as: A. Pharmacokinetics. B. Pharmacodynamics. C. Pharmacoeconomics. D. Bioavailability. E. Bioequivalence.
The main groups of hypolipidemic drugrs are all except of: A. Statins. B. Fibrates. C. Barbiturates. D. Bile acids sequestrants. E. Niacine and its derivatives.
Statins are all drugs except of: A. Lovastatine. B. Simvastatine. C. Atorvastatine. D. Somatostatine. E. Pravastatine.
The main route of nicotinic acid elimination (about88% of the dose) is: A. Kidney excretion. B. Liver elimination. C. Sweat glands. D. Breast milk. E. Salivary glands.
… drugs increase activity of lipoprotein-lipases, promote catabolism as well as decrease the synthesis of LDL, increase excretion of cholesterol with bile (which group?). A. Statins. B. Fibrates. C. Barbiturates. D. Sequestrants of bile acids. E. Niacine.
To the polar cardiac glycosides belong
A. High therapeutic index B. Low therapeutic index C. Low cumulation ability D. The ability of quick withdrawal with the help of plasmapheresis E. Practically do not bind with blood protein
To the symptoms of digitalis intoxication belong all except A. Atrio-ventricular block B. Anorexia C. Perception of things in yellow and green shades of colour D. Maniac depressive syndrome E. Hypertonic crysis
To Beta-1-adrenomimetics belongs A. Isodibut B. Amrinone C. Dobutamine D. Oxprenolol E. Dioxin
To inhibitors of phosphodiesterase belongs A. Isodibut B. Amrinone C. Dobutamine D. Oxprenolol E. Dioxin
Indications to prescribing cardiac glycosides A. Severe inflammatory and dystrophic myocardiac changes with the rhythm disorder B. Progressing atrio-ventricular block C. Ventricular paroxysmal tachycardia D. Strong bradycardia E. Atrial flutter
There are such periods in treatment with cardiac glycosides: A. The period of exhaustion and the period of digitalis saturation B. The period of digitalization and the period of supportive therapy C. Acute and chronic digistalis periods D. The period of digitalis saturation and the period of adaptative therapy E. The periods of digistalis cumulation and withdrawal from the body
It is characteristic of cardiac glycosides A. High therapeutic index B. Low therapeutic index C. Low cumulation ability D. The ability of quick withdrawal with the help of plasmapheresis
E. Practically do not bind with blood protein
To the symptoms of digitalis intoxication belong all except A. Atrio-ventricular block B. Anorexia C. Perception of things in yellow and green shades of colour D. Maniac depressive syndrome E. Hypertonic crysis
To Beta-1-adrenomimetics belongs A. Isodibut B. Amrinone C. Dobutamine D. Oxprenolol E. Dioxin
To inhibitors of phosphodiesterase belongs A. Isodibut B. Amrinone C. Dobutamine D. Oxprenolol E. Dioxin
β-adrenoblockators fall into the following groups except A. Blockators of β 1 - and β 2 -adrenoreceptors B. Selective blockators of β 1 - adrenoreceptors C. Combined blockators of β- and α-adrenoreceptors D. Blockators of α 1 - and α 2 -adrenoreceptors E. Not connected with blocking of adrenoreceptors
β-adrenoblockators have the following peculiarities except A. Negative inotropic effect B. Negative chronotropic effect C. Negative bathmotropic effect D. Positive inotropic effect E. Negative dromotropic effect
Which effect is not characteristic of β-adrenoblockators? A. Lowering arterial pressure B. Blocking of β- adrenoreceptors in the vessels inhibits vasodilatation C. Relative increase of α- adrenoreceptors in vessels D. Increased lipolys E. Development of Raynaud's syndrome
Which statement is false for β-adrenoblockators? A. Lower insulin emission from the β-cells of islets of Langerhans
Which of the following medicines blocks calcium channels in the blood vessels of the brain most? A. Amlodipine B. Verapamil C. Dilitazem D. Cinnarizine E. Nitrendipinе
Which of the following medicines are not used to influence calcium channels in the blood vessels of the brain? A. Cinnarizine B. Flunarizin C. Nicardipine D. Nimodipine E. Dilitazem
Which toxic effect after prescribing Dihydropyridin derivatives is most likely? A. Diarrhea B. Arterial hypertension C. Hypoglykemia D. Swelling E. Hypothermia
The choice of the dosage of calcium channel blockator is made the following way: A. The treatment should be started and carried out with an average therapeutic dosage recommended for the illness B. Gradually from less to more effective C. From double therapeutic dosage during the first three days with the following decrease of the dosage to the average therapeutic D. Initial loading dose should last not less than a week E. The frequency of medicine use is gradually increased during the day
Name pharmacological effect which is typical for calcium channel blockers A) decline of automaticity in pacemaker cells B) increase platelet aggregation C) increase smooth muscle tone in brain vessels D) increase myocardial contractility E) promote oxyhemoglobin dissociation
One of the following side effects occurs fore often than others regarding use of calcium channel blockers. A) cardiac failure B) parkinsonism C) headache D) constipation
E) bigeminy or trigeminy
One of the following condition does not require usage of calcium channel blockers. A) essential hypertension B) hypertensive crisis with paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia C) Prinzmetal’s angina D) alleviation of stuttering E) ventricular tachyarrhythmia
What duration of action of azamethonium bromide following IV administration? A) 20-30 min B) 1-2 hours C) 2-4 hours D) 5-6 hours E) 10-12 hours
Single dose of hexamethonium benzosulfonate in mg equal to: A) 1- B) 6- C) 8- D) 15- E) 100-
Choose the absolute contraindication for ganglioblockers. A) glaucoma B) pheochromocytoma C) hypotension D) advanced liver failure E) thrombosis
Choose the relative contraindication for ganglioblockers. A) glaucoma B) sleeplessness C) advanced liver failure D) Severe cerebral atherosclerosis with coronary E) subarachnoid hemorrhage
Duration of action of reserpine equal to: A) 1-2 hours B) 2-4 days C) 2-4 weeks D) 5-6 weeks E) more than 6 weeks
All drugs, given below are α-adrenoblockers, except: A) teratozin
What statement is not correct regarding α-adrenoblockers? A) proroxan has been used as an antihypertensive and in the treatment of Meniere’s disease, motion sickness, and allergic dermatitis B) side effects of prazosin do not include orthostatic hypotension, syncope, and nasal congestion C) the primary application for phentolamine is for the control of hypertensive emergencies, most notably due to pheochromocytoma D) labetalol and carvedilol block α and β adrenergic receptors E) cadralazine is an antihypertensive of the hydrazinophthalazine chemical class
What drug is not included in the group of K+ATP channel agonists? A) minoxidil B) nicorandil C) pinacidil D) ribomunyl E) cromakalim
Choose incorrect effect for clonidine. A) smooth muscle relaxation B) sedative C) increase cardiac output and heart rate D) somniferous E) pain relieving
Reserpine may be combined with: A) cardiac glycosides B) tricyclic antidepressants C) β-adrenolytics D) diuretics E) clonidine-like compounds
Find side effect for reserpine. A) extrapyramidal disorder B) tachycardia C) inhibition of unconditioned reflexes (sucking, swallowing) and breathing in newborn D) decreased libido E) hyperacid gastritis
Adverse effects of epinephrine include all of the given below, except: A) trembling B) dyspnea C) redness of face D) sweating
E) hypotension
Single IV dose of phenylephrine hydrochloride equal to: A) 1-5 mg B) 5-10 mg C) 15-20 mg D) 20-25 mg E) 50-100 mg
Single intramuscularly dose of etafedrine equal to: A) 1-2 mg B) 2-5 mg C) 7-10 mg D) 10-12 mg E) 15-20 mg
Maximum dose of midodrine equal to: A) 5 mg B) 10 mg C) 12 mg D) 30 mg E) 100 g
What triggers withdrawal of theophylline from the human body? A. Hyperthyreosis B. Taking the medicine in the morning C. Cor pulmonale D. Liver cirrhosis E. Smoking
Which antibiotics group enhances the increase of theophylline concentration in blood? A. Fluoroquinolones B. Linkozamides C. Penicillins D. Rifampicinum E. Cephalosporins
All groups of medicines enhance the increase of theophylline concentration in blood except: A. Н 2 -histamineblockastors B. Barbituric acid derivatives C. Macrolides D. Fluoroquinolones E. β-adrenoblockators
C. Selective adrenostimulators of short term action D. Selective adrenostimulators of long term action E. M-cholinobacters
Which medicine has sedative and antigistamine effect? A. Cromoglocic acid B. Cromolyn sodium C. Nedocromil sodium D. Chloropyramine E. Fexofenadine hydrochloride
Choose the medicine of the adrenomimetcs group, which is not selective: A. Salbutamol B. Fenoterol C. Orciprenaline D. Terbutaline E. Formoterol
All the following sympatomimetics have prolonged action except: A. Orciprenaline B. Clenbuterol hydrochloride C. S almeterol D. Formoterol E. None of the mentioned
Choose the beginning of Sulbutamol effect in inhalations: A. During the first minute B. During the second minute C. During the third minute D. During the 4th-5th^ minutes E. During the 10th^ minute
At which concentration of theophylline in blood may coma develop? A. 1 0 mg/l B. 20 mg/l C. 30 mg/l D. 40 mg/l E. 50 mg/l
Which is the pharmacocinetics peculiarity of theophylline in newly born? A. Fermentative oxidation is decreased B. The speed of elimination is decreased C. Fermentative oxidation is increased D. Elimination is increased E. Fermentative oxidation and elimination speed are decreased
The insulin that does not have a peak of action is: A. Glulisin (Apidra) B. Glargine (Lantus) C. Isophane (Protaphane) D. Biphasic Insulin N 70/ E. Aspart (Novolog)
Insulin formulation that has a very fast onset of action is: A. Glargine (Lantus) B. Soluble human (Humodar) C. Lispro (Humalog) D. Human Isophane (Фармасулін НNP) E. Detemir (Levemir)
Oral hypoglycemic agents include all of the following, except: A. Sulfonylureas B. Biguanides C. Phosphodiesterase inhibitors D. Thiazolidinediones E. Alpha-glucosidase inhibitors
Which side effects are not commonly seen with sulfonylureas? A. Hypoglycemia B. Headache C. Dizziness D. Diaphoresis E. Gastrointestinal disturbances
Sulfonylureas are contraindicated in all of the following patients, except: A. Patients with type I diabetes mellitus B. Patients with renal insufficiency C. Patients with liver disease D. Pregnant patients E. Patients with arterial hypertension
Metformin is contraindicated in all of the following situations, except: A. Increased BMI B. Tendency to develop lactic acidosis C. Diarrhea and other gastrointestinal disturbances D. Pregnancy E. Breast feeding
All of the following are indications for acarbose use, except: A. Monotherapy for type II diabetes B. Monotherapy for type I diabetes
