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Michigan Core Pesticide Applicator Exam 2025: Questions and Answers, Exams of Pest Management

A comprehensive set of multiple-choice questions and answers covering various aspects of pesticide application and safety. It includes topics such as pesticide storage, transportation, security, emergency response planning, and pesticide labeling. Designed to help individuals prepare for the michigan core pesticide applicator exam.

Typology: Exams

2024/2025

Available from 04/05/2025

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MDARD MICHIGAN CORE PESTICIDE APPLICATOR
EXAM 2025 | ALL QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
ANSWERS | GRADED A+ | VERIFIED ANSWERS |
NEWEST EXAM
Which statement about transporting pesticides is true?
a) carry pesticides in the passenger compartment to prevent unauthorized
access
b) enclosed and lockable cargo boxes offer the greatest protection
c) the operator (driver) is not held responsible if a pesticide spill or accident
occurs ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------b) enclosed and lockable
cargo boxes offer the greatest protection
Which statement about pesticide storage facilities is true?
a) a ventilation system may reduce noxious vapors by venting air into an
adjoining room
b) carefully consider the terrain when selecting a storage site
c) the floor should remain as bare soil, to absorb any spilled material --------
-CORRECT ANSWER-----------------b) carefully consider the terrain when
selecting a storage site
What is the first thing to do if a pesticide container is leaking?
a) put on PPE
b) transfer contents into another container
c) clean up any spilled material ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------a)
put on PPE
Which recommended practice will minimize pesticide storage problems?
a) Purchase quantities based on previous usage
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Download Michigan Core Pesticide Applicator Exam 2025: Questions and Answers and more Exams Pest Management in PDF only on Docsity!

MDARD MICHIGAN CORE PESTICIDE APPLICATOR

EXAM 2025 | ALL QUESTIONS AND CORRECT

ANSWERS | GRADED A+ | VERIFIED ANSWERS |

NEWEST EXAM

Which statement about transporting pesticides is true? a) carry pesticides in the passenger compartment to prevent unauthorized access b) enclosed and lockable cargo boxes offer the greatest protection c) the operator (driver) is not held responsible if a pesticide spill or accident occurs ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------b) enclosed and lockable cargo boxes offer the greatest protection Which statement about pesticide storage facilities is true? a) a ventilation system may reduce noxious vapors by venting air into an adjoining room b) carefully consider the terrain when selecting a storage site c) the floor should remain as bare soil, to absorb any spilled material --------

  • CORRECT ANSWER-----------------b) carefully consider the terrain when selecting a storage site What is the first thing to do if a pesticide container is leaking? a) put on PPE b) transfer contents into another container c) clean up any spilled material ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------a) put on PPE Which recommended practice will minimize pesticide storage problems? a) Purchase quantities based on previous usage

b) purchase more than you need to ensure availability of the product c) store metal pesticide containers on the higher shelves to prevent rusting ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------c) store metal pesticide containers on the higher shelves to prevent rusting What is the first step a business should take to develop an effective pesticide security program? a) coordinate planned actions with authorities b) conduct a risk assessment of business vulnerabilities c) train employees on security measures ---------CORRECT ANSWER------- ----------b) conduct a risk assessment of business vulnerabilities Which of the following is considered a good security practice? a) instruct employees on pesticide inventory control b) allow employees access to inventory c) back up confidential data daily and keep it at the facility --------- CORRECT ANSWER-----------------a) instruct employees on pesticide inventory control A well-designed pesticide storage site: ---------CORRECT ANSWER---------- --------limits access

  • permits better inventory control
  • protects people from exposure
  • reduces chance of environmental contamination
  • prevents damage to pesticides from temperature extremes and excess moisture
  • safeguards pesticides from theft, vandalism, and unauthorized use
  • allows fire departments to know the location of products

a) store pesticides close to a heat source to prevent freezing b) keep a fire-detection system in the storage area c) post the storage area with a storage sign ---------CORRECT ANSWER---- -------------b) keep a fire-detection system in the storage area Which is a recommended action to take in the event of a pesticide fire? a) construct berms to contain contaminated runoff water b) enter the storage facility and remove as much pesticide as possible c) try to extinguish fire before calling 911 ---------CORRECT ANSWER------- ----------a) construct berms to contain contaminated runoff water Which is an appropriate action to take in the event of a pesticide spill? a) take a "time out" to read your emergency response plan b) Call 911 only if the spill has a chance of entering surface water c) put on the appropriate PPE before responding to the spill --------- CORRECT ANSWER-----------------c) put on the appropriate PPE before responding to the spill List the guidelines for developing an emergency response plan: --------- CORRECT ANSWER------------------designate emergency coordinator as "go to person"

  • post a lis of names & numbers of response agencies that may require notification
  • prepare form with info to convey to emergency personnel, facility map, area map
  • keep product inventory and labels and SDSs
  • maintain emergency equipment needed to respond to fires and spills
  • train employees how to execute response plan

The backbone of an emergency response plan is a: ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------description of the sequence of actions to take in a crisis Which of the following criteria is used by EPA in establishing pesticide tolerances? a) Research data completely independent of the pesticide manufacturer b) The anticipated volume of product to be sold in any given year c) The toxicity of the pesticide and its breakdown products --------- CORRECT ANSWER-----------------c) The toxicity of the pesticide and its breakdown products Under federal law, which is unlawful and subject to civil or criminal penalties? a) Allowing a person under the direct supervision of a certified applicator to apply RUPs b) detaching, altering, defacing, or destroying any part of a container or labeling c) Keeping inadequate records of employees who received training on the proper use of pesticides ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------b) detaching, altering, defacing, or destroying any part of a container or labeling Which federal regulation requires employee training in the use of pesticides? ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------WPS (Workers protection standard) Which group of pesticides is exempt from registration because it poses little or no risk to humans and the environment? ---------CORRECT ANSWER---- -------------Minimum risk pesticides

Directions for mixing and loading a pesticide are usually found under _________________ ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------Directions for use "If swallowed, call a doctor" is an example of what kind of statement? ------- --CORRECT ANSWER-----------------Mandatory Who is responsible for developing SDSs for pesticides and providing them upon request? ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------the product manufacturer The name "X-Pest 5G" on a pesticide label indicates a: a) Granular pesticide with 5% active ingredient b) Granular pesticide with 5% inert ingredients c) Gel pesticide with 5% active ingredient ---------CORRECT ANSWER------ -----------a) Granular pesticide with 5% active ingredient Which is the pesticide formulation process by which solid particles are dispersed in a liquid? ---------CORRECT ANSWER----------------- suspension? Which liquid pesticide formulation consists of a small amount of active ingredient (1% or less per unit volume)? ---------CORRECT ANSWER-------- ---------RTU, ready to use (low concentrate) solution

Which liquid pesticide formulation may approach 100% active ingredient? -- -------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------ULV, ultra low volume Which is a disadvantage of both EC and ULV formulations? a) difficult to handle, transport, and store b) require constant agitation to keep in suspension c) solvents may cause rubber or plastic hoses, gaskets, pump parts, and other surfaces to deteriorate ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------c) solvents may cause rubber or plastic hoses, gaskets, pump parts, and other surfaces to deteriorate Which dry/solid formulation is mixed in water and reduces the risk of inhalation exposure during mixing and loading? ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------Water-dispersible granule (WDG) or dry flowable (DF) Which type of dry/solid pesticide formulation consists of particles that are the same weight and shape? ---------CORRECT ANSWER----------------- pellet Which is an advantage of microencapsulated materials? a) delayed or slow release of active ingredient prolongs their effectiveness b) their pesticidal activity is independent of weather conditions c) they usually require only short restricted entry intervals --------- CORRECT ANSWER-----------------a) delayed or slow release of active ingredient prolongs their effectiveness

Which statement about cultural control practices is true? a) They reduce pest establishment, reproduction, and survival b) They use naturally derived or synthesized chemicals to control pests c) they involve the release of parasites and predators found in foreign countries ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------a) They reduce pest establishment, reproduction, and survival Monitoring pests at airports and ocean ports that pose a serious threat to public health or widespread damage to crops or animals is an example of which type of pest management method? ---------CORRECT ANSWER------ -----------Regulatory Which statements about pest management strategies in IPM is true? a) The goal is to prevent pests from reaching damaging levels b) Eradication is never the goal of an IPM program c) Nonchemical methods are short-term solutions to control pests --------- CORRECT ANSWER-----------------a) The goal is to prevent pests from reaching damaging levels Which would be considered a preventative pest management strategy? a) Planting weed- and disease-free seed on an athletic field b) Releasing natural enemies to help reduce pest populations c) Removing a pest that is a public health concern from an area --------- CORRECT ANSWER-----------------a) Planting weed- and disease-free seed on an athletic field Which statement about action thresholds is true?

a) The IPM technician needs to implement control measures below the action threshold level b) The action threshold for a pest may be set at a 0 pest population density c) In an urban landscape, action thresholds are usually more related to economics than aesthetics ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------b) The action threshold for a pest may be set at a 0 pest population density Which would increase the likelihood of pesticide resistance? a) An insect that has 1 generation per year b) Continual use of pesticides from the same chemical class c) Applying a pesticide that has little or no residual effect ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------b) Continual use of pesticides from the same chemical class Which statement about FIFRA is false? a) it provides the overall framework for the federal pesticide regulatory program b) it prevents states, tribes, and territories from creating laws that are stricter than federal regulations c) it allows applicators to deviate from the pesticide label under specific use situations ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------b) it prevents states, tribes, and territories from creating laws that are stricter than federal regulations Under federal law, which statement about trained and certified applicators is true? a) They may apply and/or supervise the application of RUPs b) They must receive supplemental training before mixing RUPs

What is DF an abbreviation for? ---------CORRECT ANSWER----------------- Dry flowable What is E or EC an abbreviation for? ---------CORRECT ANSWER------------ -----emulsifiable concentrate What is F an abbreviation for? ---------CORRECT ANSWER----------------- flowable What is G an abbreviation for? ---------CORRECT ANSWER----------------- granules What is GL an abbreviation for? ---------CORRECT ANSWER----------------- gel What is L an abbreviation for? ---------CORRECT ANSWER----------------- liquid What is LC an abbreviation for? ---------CORRECT ANSWER----------------- liquid concentrate What is LV an abbreviation for? ---------CORRECT ANSWER----------------- low volatile

What is M an abbreviation for? ---------CORRECT ANSWER----------------- microencapsulated What is P or PS an abbreviation for? ---------CORRECT ANSWER------------- ----pellets What is RTU an abbreviation for? ---------CORRECT ANSWER----------------- ready to use What is S an abbreviation for? ---------CORRECT ANSWER----------------- solution What is SP an abbreviation for? ---------CORRECT ANSWER----------------- soluble powder What is ULV an abbreviation for? ---------CORRECT ANSWER----------------- ultra low volume What is W or WP an abbreviation for? ---------CORRECT ANSWER----------- ------wettable powder What is WDG an abbreviation for? ---------CORRECT ANSWER----------------

  • water-dispersible granules
  • often sold with application equipment
  • less exposure risk disadv
  • limited availability
  • high cost Advantages and disadvantages of C, LC, or WSC/WSL ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------adv
  • easy to handle, transport, store
  • no agitation necessary
  • not abrasive
  • do not plug nozzles
  • do not leave visible residue disadv
  • limited availability
  • spills difficult to decontaminate
  • easily absorbed thru skin Advantages and Disadvantages of ULV ---------CORRECT ANSWER--------- --------adv
  • easy to handle, transport, store
  • little/no agitation necessary
  • not abrasive
  • do not plug nozzles
  • little residue disadv
  • high drift risk
  • specialized equipment required
  • easily absorbed thru skin
  • may cause parts to deteriorate
  • special care required for calibration and application

Advantages and Disadvantages of Invert Emulsions ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------adv

  • low drift
  • increased rate penetration/absorption
  • decreased runoff disadv
  • difficult to treat under surfaces because droplets large/heavy
  • limited availability Advantages and Disadvantages of F or AF ---------CORRECT ANSWER----- ------------adv
  • easy to handle
  • low exposure risk
  • not phytotoxic
  • low clogging risk
  • splashes less likely disadv
  • may settle, agitation required
  • difficult to rinse
  • may be abrasive
  • hard to clean spills (not soluble water or oil)
  • may leave residue Advantages and Disadvantages of RTU A ---------CORRECT ANSWER------ -----------adv
  • easy to use, transport, store
  • retain potencu disadv
  • practical for only limited uses
  • risk inhalation
  • hazardous if punctured
  • difficult to release only direct/small target
  • easy to transport, handle, store
  • less likely than ECs and petroleum-based formulations to harm treated surfaces
  • not phytotoxic
  • less absorptive disadv
  • not easy to measure, must be weighed
  • not easy to mix
  • inhalation hazard when mixing
  • needs constant agitation when in suspension
  • abrasive
  • clogs
  • residues visible on treated surfaces Advantages and Disadvantages of B ---------CORRECT ANSWER------------- ----adv
  • RTU
  • attracts pest, dont need to cover huge area
  • controls mobile pests disadv
  • risk to children and pets
  • may kill non-target wildlife
  • requires careful placement/inspection
  • dead vertebrate pests may cause odor problem
  • must be removed when stops working
  • may not always work if pest has other food sources Advantages and Disadvantages of fumigants ---------CORRECT ANSWER-- ---------------adv
  • toxic to wide range of pests
  • can penetrate cracks, crevices, etc
  • single treatment will kill most pests disadv
  • target site must be enclosed to prevent gas from escaping
  • nonspecific and highly toxic
  • high inhalation risk
  • require lots of PPE
  • may require special application equipment
  • some temp requirments Advantages and Disadvantages of M ---------CORRECT ANSWER------------ -----adv
  • coatings help protect applicator
  • easy to handle, transport, store
  • timed release of AI prolongs effectiveness
  • reduced volatility
  • reduced odor
  • less likely to stain
  • reduced phytotoxicity disadv
  • constant agitation may be required
  • risk of harming bees
  • long restricted-entry or preharvest intervals Advantages and Disadvantages of WSP or WSB ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------adv
  • accurate, premeasured doses
  • increased handling safety
  • lower risk spills disadv
  • packaged size may not match volume of equipment you have
  • must be kept dry List some types of adjuvants ---------CORRECT ANSWER------------------ antifoaming