Download Michigan Core Pesticide Applicator Exam Questions and Answers and more Exams Pest Management in PDF only on Docsity!
MDARD MICHIGAN CORE PESTICIDE APPLICATOR EXAM
QUESTIONS WITH ACCURATE ANSWERS
List some types of adjuvants -- Answer ✔✔ - antifoaming
- Surfactants (wetting agents, spreaders)
- extenders
- stickers
- plant penetrators
- compatibility agents
- buffers or pH modifiers
- drift retardants
- defoaming agents
- thickeners Define surfactant -- Answer ✔✔ an inert ingredient that enhances the dispersing, spreading, and wetting properties of spray droplets, allow the pesticide to spread evenly over the surface of a leaf The capacity of a pesticide to cause short-term (acute) or long-term (chronic) injury is referred to as its ____________ -- Answer ✔✔ toxicity Which statement about harmful effects of pesticides is false? a) the most common form of pesticide injury is by inhalation b) asthma-like symptoms may be caused by allergies to pesticides c) many herbicides and fungicides cause dermatitis (skin reaction) -- Answer ✔✔ a) the most common form of pesticide injury is by inhalation Which signal word is associated with very low oral LD50 values? -- Answer ✔✔ DANGER-POISON
Which statements about pesticide toxicity is true? a) a pesticide with an oral LD50 of 5mg/kg is more toxic than a pesticide with an LD of 250mg/kg b) Manufacturers are not required to include chronic toxicity warning statements on product labels c) the signal word on the product label indicates how likely the product is to cause both acute and chronic toxic effects -- Answer ✔✔ a) a pesticide with an oral LD50 of 5mg/kg is more toxic than a pesticide with an LD50 of 250mg/kg For which class(es) of pesticides might cholinesterase monitoring be appropriate? a) Organophosphate and carbamate insecticides b) pyrethoids c) phenoxy herbicides, such as 2,4-D -- Answer ✔✔ a) Organophosphate and carbamate insecticides Which statement about what happens to pesticides inside the body is true? a) most pesticides used today are stored in our body fat b) the kidneys filter pesticides from the blood into the urine c) most chemical breakdown of toxic substances takes place wherever the pesticide is first absorbed -- Answer ✔✔ b) the kidneys filter pesticides from the blood into the urine Which statement about pesticide exposure routes is true? a) studies show that about 97% of all body exposure to pesticides during a spraying operation is by inhalation b) eating, drinking, smoking without first washing hands after handling pesticides is likely to transfer the product to your mouth c) the palms and forearms absorb pesticides more quickly than the scalp, ear canal, and forehead -- Answer ✔✔ b) eating, drinking, smoking without first washing hands after handling pesticides is likely to transfer the product to your mouth Which statement about first aid response for pesticide exposure to the eye is false?
- cover eye with clean cloth and seek medical attention immediately if pesticide inhaled -- Answer ✔✔ - immediately carry victim to fresh air DO NOT ALLOW THEM TO WALK
- have victim lie down, loosen clothing
- keep victim warm and quiet, do not allow to get chilled or overheated
- if victim convulsing, protect head, turn head to side, watch that breathing continues DO NOT ATTEMPT TO INSERT SOMETHING IN MOUTH WHILE SEIZING
- keep person's chin up to ensure air passage clear
- if breathing stops or is irregular, artificial respiration if pesticide swallowed or in mouth -- Answer ✔✔ - give victim large amount of water or milk
- ONLY INDUCE VOMITING IF LABEL INSTRUCTS NEVER induce vomiting if victim
- is unconscious or seizing
- swallowed corrosive poison
- has swallowed EC or oil product dissolved in petroleum solvents Hazard equation -- Answer ✔✔ hazard = toxicity x exposure Symptoms of heat stroke/stress -- Answer ✔✔ - fatigue, exhaustion, muscle weakness
- dizziness or fainting
- clammy hot, dry skin
- altered behavior, confusion, slurred speech, irrationality
- headache, nausea, chills
- heavy sweating--> complete lack of sweating Which statement about PPE requirements listed on the pesticide label is true? a) A label may have different PPE requirements for pesticide handlers and early-entry workers b) You are not required to wear all the PPE listed on the label
c) Wearing the PPE listed on the label eliminates your exposure to pesticides -- Answer ✔✔ a) A label may have different PPE requirements for pesticide handlers and early- entry workers Which part of the product formulation determines what glove type is needed? a) active ingredient b) surfactants c) solvents -- Answer ✔✔ c) solvents If there are no manufacturer use recommendations, a pesticide applicator should replace the chemical cartridges of his or her respirator: a) at the end of each season b) after one week of use c) at the end of each workday -- Answer ✔✔ c) at the end of each workday When oil is present, which particulate filter must be used? a) N-series b) P-series c) dust mask -- Answer ✔✔ b) P-series Air purifying respirators protect applicators from pesticide exposure by: a) filtering and/or absorbing the pesticide b) breaking down the pesticide c) neutralizing the pesticide -- Answer ✔✔ a) filtering and/or absorbing the pesticide You should do a qualitative fit test of your respirator a) every 5 years b) semiannually c) if you have a significant change in weight -- Answer ✔✔ c) if you have a significant change in weight
Sealing building cracks and small openings is an example of what kind of pest management method? -- Answer ✔✔ Physical Which statement about cultural control practices is true? a) They reduce pest establishment, reproduction, and survival b) They use naturally derived or synthesized chemicals to control pests c) they involve the release of parasites and predators found in foreign countries -- Answer ✔✔ a) They reduce pest establishment, reproduction, and survival Monitoring pests at airports and ocean ports that pose a serious threat to public health or widespread damage to crops or animals is an example of which type of pest management method? -- Answer ✔✔ Regulatory Which statements about pest management strategies in IPM is true? a) The goal is to prevent pests from reaching damaging levels b) Eradication is never the goal of an IPM program c) Nonchemical methods are short-term solutions to control pests -- Answer ✔✔ a) The goal is to prevent pests from reaching damaging levels Which would be considered a preventative pest management strategy? a) Planting weed- and disease-free seed on an athletic field b) Releasing natural enemies to help reduce pest populations c) Removing a pest that is a public health concern from an area -- Answer ✔✔ a) Planting weed- and disease-free seed on an athletic field Which statement about action thresholds is true? a) The IPM technician needs to implement control measures below the action threshold level b) The action threshold for a pest may be set at a 0 pest population density c) In an urban landscape, action thresholds are usually more related to economics than aesthetics -- Answer ✔✔ b) The action threshold for a pest may be set at a 0 pest population density
Which would increase the likelihood of pesticide resistance? a) An insect that has 1 generation per year b) Continual use of pesticides from the same chemical class c) Applying a pesticide that has little or no residual effect -- Answer ✔✔ b) Continual use of pesticides from the same chemical class Which statement about FIFRA is false? a) it provides the overall framework for the federal pesticide regulatory program b) it prevents states, tribes, and territories from creating laws that are stricter than federal regulations c) it allows applicators to deviate from the pesticide label under specific use situations -- Answer ✔✔ b) it prevents states, tribes, and territories from creating laws that are stricter than federal regulations Under federal law, which statement about trained and certified applicators is true? a) They may apply and/or supervise the application of RUPs b) They must receive supplemental training before mixing RUPs c) they are exempt from obtaining county bulletins for the protection of endangered species -- Answer ✔✔ a) They may apply and/or supervise the application of RUPs What is the purpose of the registration and reregistration process? -- Answer ✔✔ To provide evidence that the pesticide will not cause unreasonable risks to human health or the environment T/F- Approved pesticide labels have the force of law -- Answer ✔✔ True Which of the following criteria is used by EPA in establishing pesticide tolerances? a) Research data completely independent of the pesticide manufacturer b) The anticipated volume of product to be sold in any given year c) The toxicity of the pesticide and its breakdown products -- Answer ✔✔ c) The toxicity of the pesticide and its breakdown products
c) CAUTION -- Answer ✔✔ a) DANGER "Do not breathe vapors or spray mist" is an example of a ____________ -- Answer ✔✔ Specific action statement Directions for mixing and loading a pesticide are usually found under _________________ -- Answer ✔✔ Directions for use "If swallowed, call a doctor" is an example of what kind of statement? -- Answer ✔✔ Mandatory Who is responsible for developing SDSs for pesticides and providing them upon request? -- Answer ✔✔ the product manufacturer The name "X-Pest 5G" on a pesticide label indicates a: a) Granular pesticide with 5% active ingredient b) Granular pesticide with 5% inert ingredients c) Gel pesticide with 5% active ingredient -- Answer ✔✔ a) Granular pesticide with 5% active ingredient Which is the pesticide formulation process by which solid particles are dispersed in a liquid? -- Answer ✔✔ suspension? Which liquid pesticide formulation consists of a small amount of active ingredient (1% or less per unit volume)? -- Answer ✔✔ RTU, ready to use (low concentrate) solution Which liquid pesticide formulation may approach 100% active ingredient? -- Answer ✔✔ ULV, ultra-low volume Which is a disadvantage of both EC and ULV formulations? a) difficult to handle, transport, and store b) require constant agitation to keep in suspension
c) solvents may cause rubber or plastic hoses, gaskets, pump parts, and other surfaces to deteriorate -- Answer ✔✔ c) solvents may cause rubber or plastic hoses, gaskets, pump parts, and other surfaces to deteriorate Which dry/solid formulation is mixed in water and reduces the risk of inhalation exposure during mixing and loading? -- Answer ✔✔ Water-dispersible granule (WDG) or dry flowable (DF) Which type of dry/solid pesticide formulation consists of particles that are the same weight and shape? -- Answer ✔✔ pellet Which is an advantage of microencapsulated materials? a) delayed or slow release of active ingredient prolongs their effectiveness b) their pesticidal activity is independent of weather conditions c) they usually require only short restricted entry intervals -- Answer ✔✔ a) delayed or slow release of active ingredient prolongs their effectiveness Which type of adjuvant functions as a wetting agent and spreader (i.e. physically altering the surface tension of spray droplets)? -- Answer ✔✔ surfactant Which type of adjuvant increases the viscosity of spray mixtures? -- Answer ✔✔ thickener What is A an abbreviation for? -- Answer ✔✔ Aerosol What is AF an abbreviation for? -- Answer ✔✔ Aqueous Flowable What is B an abbreviation for? -- Answer ✔✔ bait What is C an abbreviation for? -- Answer ✔✔ concentrate What is D an abbreviation for? -- Answer ✔✔ Dust What is DF an abbreviation for? -- Answer ✔✔ Dry flowable
What is WSP an abbreviation for? -- Answer ✔✔ water-soluble powder Advantages and disadvantages of EC? -- Answer ✔✔ ADV
- easy to transport, handle, store
- easy to pour/measure
- little agitation required
- Not abrasive
- will not plug nozzles
- leave little visible residue DISADV
- high concentration of AI --> easy overdose
- may damage treated plants or surfaces
- easily absorbed thru skin
- spills difficult to decontaminate
- strong odor
- solvents may wear equipment
- flammable/corrosive Advantages and disadvantages of RTU S? -- Answer ✔✔ adv
- convenient
- often sold with application equipment
- less exposure risk disadv
- limited availability
- high cost Advantages and disadvantages of C, LC, or WSC/WSL -- Answer ✔✔ adv
- easy to handle, transport, store
- no agitation necessary
- not abrasive
- do not plug nozzles
- do not leave visible residue disadv
- limited availability
- spills difficult to decontaminate
- easily absorbed thru skin Advantages and Disadvantages of ULV -- Answer ✔✔ adv
- easy to handle, transport, store
- little/no agitation necessary
- not abrasive
- do not plug nozzles
- little residue disadv
- high drift risk
- specialized equipment required
- easily absorbed thru skin
- may cause parts to deteriorate
- special care required for calibration and application Advantages and Disadvantages of Invert Emulsions -- Answer ✔✔ adv
- low drift
- increased rate penetration/absorption
- decreased runoff disadv
- difficult to treat under surfaces because droplets large/heavy
- limited availability Advantages and Disadvantages of F or AF -- Answer ✔✔ adv
- easy to handle
- low exposure risk
- not phytotoxic
- low clogging risk
- splashes less likely disadv
- may settle, agitation required
- difficult to rinse
- uniform application difficult
- granules do not stick to foliage/uneven surfaces
- may need moisture to release AI
- may be hazardous to non-target species
- bulky Advantages and Disadvantages of W or WP -- Answer ✔✔ adv
- easy to transport, handle, store
- less likely than ECs and petroleum-based formulations to harm treated surfaces
- not phytotoxic
- less absorptive disadv
- not easy to measure, must be weighed
- not easy to mix
- inhalation hazard when mixing
- needs constant agitation when in suspension
- abrasive
- clogs
- residues visible on treated surfaces Advantages and Disadvantages of B -- Answer ✔✔ adv
- RTU
- attracts pest, don’t need to cover huge area
- controls mobile pests disadv
- risk to children and pets
- may kill non-target wildlife
- requires careful placement/inspection
- dead vertebrate pests may cause odor problem
- must be removed when stops working
- may not always work if pest has other food sources Advantages and Disadvantages of fumigants -- Answer ✔✔ adv
- toxic to wide range of pests
- can penetrate cracks, crevices, etc.
- single treatment will kill most pests disadv
- target site must be enclosed to prevent gas from escaping
- nonspecific and highly toxic
- high inhalation risk
- require lots of PPE
- may require special application equipment
- some temp requirements Advantages and Disadvantages of M -- Answer ✔✔ adv
- coatings help protect applicator
- easy to handle, transport, store
- timed release of AI prolongs effectiveness
- reduced volatility
- reduced odor
- less likely to stain
- reduced phytotoxicity disadv
- constant agitation may be required
- risk of harming bees
- long restricted-entry or preharvest intervals Advantages and Disadvantages of WSP or WSB -- Answer ✔✔ adv
- accurate, premeasured doses
- increased handling safety
- lower risk spills disadv
- packaged size may not match volume of equipment you have
- must be kept dry Factors that can affect the extent of breakthrough are: -- Answer ✔✔ - contact time
- concentration
- temperature
- product itself
- chemical cartridges or canisters- remove contaminant-specific gases and vapors Laundering woven work clothes guidelines -- Answer ✔✔ - outdoors, shake any dry material, hang to air out
- wash work clothes separately
- load only a few items into washing machine so plenty of water and agitation
- use hot water and highest water level
- prerinse items
- use heavy-duty detergent
- run on heaviest cycle, use 2 cycles
- discard heavily contaminated garments
- line dry outdoors if possible
- run additional cycle between loads before doing household laundry Which property of a pesticide would make it more likely to move in surface water runoff? a) high solubility b) high absorption c) high volatility -- Answer ✔✔ a) high solubility Which statement about movement of pesticides from the application site is true? a) Drift is seldom an issue with indoor applications b) Runoff and erosion are sources of surface water contamination by pesticides c) leaching is the main way that pesticides move great distances -- Answer ✔✔ b) Runoff and erosion are sources of surface water contamination by pesticides Which is an example of nonpoint-source contamination of groundwater? a) back-siphoning of pesticide spills at a wellhead b) leaching from a pesticide mixing area c) pesticides that dissolve and leach through soil after it rains -- Answer ✔✔ c) pesticides that dissolve and leach through soil after it rains
Under which conditions are pesticides more likely to leach through soil? a) heavy clay soil, high in organic matter b) sandy soil, high in organic matter c) sandy soil, low in organic matter -- Answer ✔✔ c) sandy soil, low in organic matter Which best management practice will help prevent contamination of surface water and groundwater by pesticides? a) using pesticides that are highly water-soluble b) Following IPM principles c) selecting persistant pesticides -- Answer ✔✔ b) Following IPM principles Which 2 factors are most important in avoiding vapor drift? a) Droplet size and wind speed b) air stability and temperature c) temperature and pesticide volatility -- Answer ✔✔ c) temperature and pesticide volatility Which statement about sensitive areas is true? a) do not spray a larger target site if it contains a sensitive area b) Pesticide labels may list special precautions around sensitive areas c) endangered species' habitats are not considered sensitive areas -- Answer ✔✔ b) pesticide labels may list special precautions around sensitive areas Which statement about protecting bees from pesticide injury is true? a) Use foliar applications when possible b) Spray crops when they are in bloom c) apply insecticides in the evening or at night -- Answer ✔✔ c) apply insecticides in the evening or at night List and describe the physical and chemical characteristics of pesticides that determine how they will interact with the environment (4) -- Answer ✔✔ - solubility- ability of a
