Docsity
Log inSign up
Docsity
Prepare for your exams
Prepare for your exams

Study with the several resources on Docsity

Earn points to download
Earn points to download

Earn points by helping other students or get them with a premium plan

Guidelines and tips
Guidelines and tips
Sell on Docsity
Sell on Docsity
Log inSign up

Prepare for your exams

Study with the several resources on Docsity

Find documents

Prepare for your exams with the study notes shared by other students like you on Docsity

Search Store documents

The best documents sold by students who completed their studies

Search through all study resources
Docsity AINEW

Summarize your documents, ask them questions, convert them into quizzes and concept maps

Explore questions

Clear up your doubts by reading the answers to questions asked by your fellow students

Earn points to download

Earn points by helping other students or get them with a premium plan

Share documents
download point icon20 Points

For each uploaded document

Answer questions
download point icon5 Points

For each given answer (max 1 per day)

All the ways to get free points
Get points immediately

Choose a premium plan with all the points you need

Study Opportunities

Choose your next study program

Get in touch with the best universities in the world. Search through thousands of universities and official partners

Community

Ask the community

Ask the community for help and clear up your study doubts

University Rankings

Discover the best universities in your country according to Docsity users

Free resources

Our save-the-student-ebooks!

Download our free guides on studying techniques, anxiety management strategies, and thesis advice from Docsity tutors

From our blog

Exams and Study
Go to the blog

Meaghan Harvley’s Kahoot, Exams of Nursing

Los Angeles Pierce CollegeNursing

Meaghan Harvley’s KahootMeaghan Harvley’s Kahoot

Typology: Exams

2022/2023

Available from 08/24/2023

Peterr
Peterr 🇺🇸

215 documents

1 / 25

Toggle sidebar

This page cannot be seen from the preview

Don't miss anything!

bg1
MDC4 Exam 1 Kahoots!
Meaghan Harvley’s Kahoot
1. Alzheimer’s disease is a rapid, reversible brain disease. t/f
a. False—slow, progressive, irreversible
2. The patient can eat solid foods for up to 2 hours before their procedure/surgery. t/f
a. False—6-8 hours of NPO before a procedure
3. What are the cardinal signs of PD?
a. Tremors
b. Muscle rigidity
c. Shuffling gait/postural instability
d. Bradykinesia
4. In the severe stages of PD, the pts arms are affected, shuffling gate and they have a mask-
like face. t/f
a. False—in the mild stage this occurs
5. With migraines, if an aura is present, it includes visual changes, flashing lights, colors? t/f
a. True
6. Generalized seizures involve both cerebral hemispheres. t/f
a. True
7. In the ictal phase of a seizure, what should the nurse do first?
a. Maintain the airway by turning the pt on their side.
8. What is the preferred medication to admin during a
seizure?
a. Lorazepam
9. Status epilepticus is not a life-threatening t/f
a. False
10. Viral meningitis has a high fatality rate, even with tx, typically within 24-48 hours. T/f
a. False—bacterial meningitis is highly fatal
11. Progressive relapsing MS (PRMS) includes frequent relapses with only partial recovery. t/f
a. True
12. Signs of ALS include: progressive weakness and wasting in the hands and limbs, then upper
arms and shoulders. t/f
a. True
13. Hyperextension is sudden and extreme movement of the head forward causing extreme
flexion of the neck. t/f
a. False—hyper reflection is a sudden and extreme movement of the head forward
causing extreme flexion of the neck.
b. Hyperextension is an accelerated and then decelerated movement of the
head. Associated with motor vehicle accidents from the rear.
14. With incomplete (paresis), the spinal cord has been damaged so at there so no
innervation below the level of injury. t/f
a. False—incomplete means the ability of the spinal cord to convey messages to or from
the brain is not completely lost. Some sensation (even if faint) and movement is
possible below the level of injury.
pf3
pf4
pf5
pf8
pf9
pfa
pfd
pfe
pff
pf12
pf13
pf14
pf15
pf16
pf17
pf18
pf19

Partial preview of the text

Download Meaghan Harvley’s Kahoot and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!

Meaghan Harvley’s Kahoot

  1. Alzheimer’s disease is a rapid, reversible brain disease. t/f a. False—slow, progressive, irreversible
  2. The patient can eat solid foods for up to 2 hours before their procedure/surgery. t/f a. False—6-8 hours of NPO before a procedure
  3. What are the cardinal signs of PD? a. Tremors b. Muscle rigidity c. Shuffling gait/postural instability d. Bradykinesia
  4. In the severe stages of PD, the pts arms are affected, shuffling gate and they have a mask- like face. t/f a. False—in the mild stage this occurs
  5. With migraines, if an aura is present, it includes visual changes, flashing lights, colors? t/f a. True
  6. Generalized seizures involve both cerebral hemispheres. t/f a. True
  7. In the ictal phase of a seizure, what should the nurse do first? a. Maintain the airway by turning the pt on their side.
  8. What is the preferred medication to admin during a seizure? a. Lorazepam
  9. Status epilepticus is not a life-threatening t/f a. False
  10. Viral meningitis has a high fatality rate, even with tx, typically within 24-48 hours. T/f a. False—bacterial meningitis is highly fatal
  11. Progressive relapsing MS (PRMS) includes frequent relapses with only partial recovery. t/f a. True
  12. Signs of ALS include: progressive weakness and wasting in the hands and limbs, then upper arms and shoulders. t/f a. True
  13. Hyperextension is sudden and extreme movement of the head forward causing extreme flexion of the neck. t/f a. False—hyper reflection is a sudden and extreme movement of the head forward causing extreme flexion of the neck. b. Hyperextension is an accelerated and then decelerated movement of the head. Associated with motor vehicle accidents from the rear.
  14. With incomplete (paresis), the spinal cord has been damaged so at there so no innervation below the level of injury. t/f a. False—incomplete means the ability of the spinal cord to convey messages to or from the brain is not completely lost. Some sensation (even if faint) and movement is possible below the level of injury.
  1. Autonomic dysreflexia is a sudden, potentially life-threatening occurrence in patients with SCIs. t/f a. True

a. False—this is an epidural hematoma or an extradural hematoma.

b. A subdural hematoma is venous bleeding into the space beneath the dura and above the arachnoid from a tearing of the bridging veins within the cerebral hemispheres or from a laceration of brain tissue.

  1. Chronic SDH presents within 48 hours after impact. t/f a. False—An acute SDH presents within 48 hours after impact; Subacute SDH presents between 48 hours and 2 week; Chronic SDH presents from 2 weeks to several months after injury
  2. Primary tumors originate within the CNS and rarely metastasize (spread) outside this area. t/f a. True
  3. Benign tumors require more aggressive intervention, including surgery, radiation, and/or chemotherapy. t/f a. False-malignant tumors require more aggressive therapy
  4. Cerebral tumors involve hearing loss, nystagmus, ataxia, and dysarthria. t/f a. False—brainstem tumors involve the above s/s and more (dysphagia, hoarseness, apnea, bradycardia, hypotension b. Cerebral tumors involve headaches (most common feature), vomiting, seizure, changes in visual acuity and visual fields, diplopia, hemiparesis or hemiplegia, hypokinesia (decreased motor ability), hyperesthesia, paresthesia, decreased tactile discrimination, aphasia, and changes in personality or behavior.
  5. Cushing’s Triad indicated decreasing ICP. t/f a. False—indicates increased ICP
  6. What is most important variable to assess with brain injury? a. Level of consciousness
  7. As with any critically injured patient, priority is given to maintaining a patent airway, breathing, and circulation. t/f a. True
  8. What is the first priority of pre-op nurse? a. Witnessing informed consents—sign the consent as a witness to the signature, not to the fact that the client is informed.
  9. Post op nausea and shivering occurs with local/regional anesthesia. t/f a. False—can occur with general anesthesia
  10. With malignant hyperthermia, the nurse should immediately admin which medication IV? a. Dantrolene
  11. Epidural blocks are injected into the CSF. t/f a. False—injected into epidural space
  12. What is the first priority intervention the post-op nurse should implement? a. Airway management
  13. The PACU RN is assessing Aldrete scoring, what is an appropriate score for the patient to meet criteria for discharge? a. 8-

a. Padded tongue blade available (don’t stick anything in the patient’s mouth) b. Precautions should include: suction equipment at bedside, keep bed rails up and padded, and ensure patient has IV access.

  1. If the nurse notices the patient is experiencing tachycardia, diaphoresis, and rising body temp during surgery… a. He/she should alert the anesthesiologist and surgeon immediately. Signs of malignant hyperthermia.
  2. The circulating nurse is responsible for verifying that the consent form is signed and surgical site is marked. t/f a. True
  3. What intervention should the nurse anticipate for a wound evisceration prior to receiving order from the provider? a. Apply warm, moist normal saline sterile dressing
  4. A patient experiencing dyspnea, cyanosis, and tachycardia may be experiencing what complication of surgery? a. Pulmonary embolus
  5. A finding f 7 or less on the Glasgow coma scale indicates a coma. a. True. A score of 8 is coma.
  6. The nurse would expect to see what effect of the use of baclofen in a patient with MS? a. Reduction of muscular spasticity
  7. The nurse must observe for the risk of aspiration in patient with myasthenia gravis. t/f a. True
  8. What intervention can help reduce the risk of increased ICP in a patient with bacterial meningitis? a. Elevate head of bead as high as tolerated to reduce the pressure going to the head.
  9. A patient with AD is considered in early stages when they exhibit wandering, anger, and visuospatial deficits. t/f a. False. This occurs in the moderate stage of AD. The early stage includes minor memory loss, long term memory and reasoning is typically intact, forget where common items are kept.
  10. Progressive proximal to distal muscle weakness and mild diplopia are seen in patient with MS. t/f a. False. These signs are seen in patients with myasthenia gravis.
  11. What category of medications are typically given to patients actively experiencing a seizure? a. Benzodiazepines
  12. A patient with weakness and tingling in feet and legs and spreads to the upper body is seen in GBS. t/f a. True
  13. If the nurse notices a clear drainage from the patient’s nose with a “halo sign,” what should he/she do next? a. Check the presence of glucose in drainage and report to provider.
  14. What is the nurse’s role for a patient that is a probable organ donor? a. Maintain perfusion and care for the patient to maintain organs for harvest.
  15. Most embolic stroke occur due to blood clots that come from the heart. t/f a. True
  1. Besides time of onset, what is important to assess in a patient that presents with slurred speech and weakness? a. Blood glucose
  2. Phenytoin should only be taken during a seizure. t/f a. False
  3. What is another name for CVA? a. Stroke
  4. What is the name of the tool used to assess for stroke? a. NIH Stroke Scale
  5. Identify all types of strokes: a. Ischemic b. Transient ischemic attack c. Hemorrhagic
  6. Family history, htm, dm, EtOH/illicit drug use, high-fat diet, atherosclerosis, and aneurysm/AVM are risk factors for: a. Stroke
  7. Select the ischemic stroke subtypes: a. Embolic stroke and thrombotic stroke
  8. Select the subtypes of hemorrhagic stroke: a. Intracerebral and subarachnoid hemorrhage
  9. Select the imaging studies used for diagnosis of stroke a. CT with contrast, MRI with Contrast (MRA), and Ultrasound
  10. Which is an absolute contraindication for tPA? a. Hemorrhagic stroke
  11. Changes in LOC, pupils, posturing, seizures, slurred speech, vomiting, and decreased motor function are s/sx of: a. Increased ICP
  12. Acceleration injury is caused when the head stops moving suddenly. t/f a. False—acceleration injury is caused by movement of the brain within the unrestrained head. Example whiplash injury
  13. What are the TBI risk factors? a. Men, EtOH, and illicit drug use
  14. A patient with a TBI has nonreactive dilated pupils. What would the nurse anticipate? a. Brain stem herniation
  15. Which symptom is the earliest indicator of increased ICP in a patient with a head injury? a. Agitation and confusion
  16. A patient has experienced a stroke in the LEFT cerebral hemisphere. What s/sx does the nurse expect? a. Aphasia, agraphia, and acalculia (loss of ability to perform simple arithmetic calculations)
  17. Which food allergy indicates a sensitivity to CT contrast dye? a. Shellfish
  18. When caring for a patient with a potential stroke, what are the important nursing considerations?

b. Blood pressure c. Blood sugar

  1. How are ergotamine medications beneficial in migraine headaches? a. Constrict cerebral blood vessels
  2. A priority nursing intervention for seizure management is a. Protect the patient from harm; safety
  3. s/sx of PD include the following: a. shuffling gait b. mask-like face c. bradykinesia
  4. migraine triggers include a. Foods, fasting, nicotine, hormonal changes, and oral contraceptives b. Changes in physical activity, stress, sleep patterns c. Exposure to pollution, chemical, perfumes, flashing lights
  5. All of the following are benefits of patient controlled analgesia: a. Patient is more satisfied and improved pain control b. Faster absorption and more predictability c. Consistent blood levels are maintained d. Do not let family member assist the patient in using it.
  6. What is the difference between quadriplegia and paraplegia? a. It depends where in the spinal cord the injury occurred. Paraplegia cant use their lower extremities. Quadriplegia cannot use any of their extremities.
  7. The best intervention for the postictal period is to: a. Allow the patient to rest
  8. What is not a component of the Glasgow Coma Scale? a. Pain response b. Components include i. Motor response, verbal response, and eye response.
  9. Once you have completed your surgical scrub, what is the next step? a. Hands above waist, dry with sterile towel.
  10. What are the treatments for a stroke? a. Surgical tx, IV fluids, rest, and thrombolytic therapy (depending on the type of stroke)
  11. You are caring for a pt with dysphasia, what related condition would you assess for? a. Aspiration pneumonia
  12. Which of these is a complication of a lumbar puncture? a. Spinal headache
  13. What is a late sign of increased ICP? a. Cushing’s Triad
  14. Which symptoms are associated with Cushing’s Triad? a. Widening pulse pressure and bradycardia b. Increased systolic BP, decreased pulse, decreased respirations

i. Symptoms of increased ICP are opposite of shock (decreased bp, increased pulse, and increased respiration)

  1. Who is responsible for explaining and making sure a surgical consent is obtained?
  1. George has just has a seizure and is now in the postictal period. Which od the following nursing cares are correct? a. Maintain airway, check vital signs, reassure patient
  1. The Glasgow Coma Scale assesses: a. Eye response, best motor response, and best verbal response
  2. Hemiplegia a. Paralysis on one side of the body
  3. Lumbar puncture is used to diagnose: a. Encephalitis
  4. Cushing’s Triad consists of a. Hypertension b. Bradycardia c. Irregular respiratory rate
  5. Agnosia is the inability to a. Process sensory input
  6. Apraxia is defined as a. Inability to perform familiar movements on demand
  7. Aphasia is: a. Inability to understand or produce language
  8. Dysphagia is a. Difficulty swallowing
  9. What is proprioception a. Awareness of your body’s position in space
  10. Bell’s Palsy symptoms a. Drooping side of face b. Facial paralysis
  11. Symptoms of trigeminal neuralgia may include all of the following: a. Extreme, intermittent facial pain in jaw or cheek b. Tingling or numbness on one side of the face c. Pain triggered by contact with the face or facial movements

Dr. Fitzgerald Kahoot

  1. Triptans and ergotamine preparations are contraindicated in: a. Coronary disease because these drugs vasoconstrict vessels, and can lead to heart attack or stroke b. These meds are given for migraines
  2. Suction, O2, passed side rails, and a tongue blade are part of seizure precautions. t/f a. False. No tongue blade. Nothing goes in their mouth. They can aspirate by biting down on the tongue blade. b. Other things we want is IV access, bed in lowest position.
  3. What is it called when a patient comes in with a seizure that lasts for more than 5 min or has multiple seizures back-to-back in a 30-minute period? a. Status epilepticus—medical emergency
  4. What is the first drug you MUST administer if your patient is in status epilepticus?

b. Antiseizure medication can deactivate birth control—education patient of childbearing age

  1. After the seizure, what position do we place the patient in? a. On their side (recovery position) in case they throw up to prevent aspiration
  2. Education for patients going home on antiseizure medications a. Take them on time b. Take them regularly c. Do not stop them d. Do not drive until you find out the cause of the seizures and seizures are reportable to the DMV because it is a public safety risk.
  3. Bradykinesia, muscle rigidity, mask-like face are clinical manifestations of: a. Parkinson’s Disease i. Chronic disease ii. Some concerns
  4. Falls
  5. Aspiration if trouble swallowing iii. Not curable iv. Meds to treat the symptoms, possibly slow progression.
  6. Tonic-clonic seizure a. Tensing of muscles, convulsions b. Priority to keep patient safe, get them to the floor.
  7. What is it called when the patient knows that they are about to have a seizure? a. An aura. Ex: someone’s aura is that they can smell fresh baked cookies every time they are about to have a seizure. This is their cue. b. People with migraines also get an aura
  8. Period after the seizure where they may be sleeping, confused, or hard to arouse? a. Postictal phase common in tonic-clonic
  9. Multiple sclerosis risk factors a. Female, 20-40 years old b. May show up with different signs and symptoms depending on which area is affected c. Could be autoimmune. Can put them on immunosuppressants or corticosteroids which puts them at risk for infection. d. Treat symptoms, if they have depression, give antidepressants, if they have incontinence, give them straight cath, or indwelling catheter. If function incontinence, educate about elastic waist bands. e. Give them support because this is a chronic disease and they need to know how to manage their disease at home. Educate about periods of exacerbation. Know what can cause these exacerbation (infection, weather—being overheated)
  10. What is Guillain-Barre Syndrome?

a. Ascending paralysis

b. Acute inflammatory disease c. Seen after exposure to viral infections (about 2-4 weeks)

  1. what system worries us the most about GBS?

ii. If there is a change in the patient for the worse, we need to let the provider know.

  1. Earliest sign of increased ICP:

a. Decreased level of consciousness

  1. Priority nursing concerns during the intraoperative period include: a. Safety and infection control b. Before they go to surgery, it is important to know how long they have been NPO c. Preop: consent and labs will be done d. Postop: wound assessment and dressing changes
  2. If patient is going to cath-lab with contrast, be aware of: a. Allergy to shellfish and iodine b. Know kidney function and monitor i. BUN and creatinine c. If client is on metformin, try to hold for about 48 hours before and 48 hours after.
  3. Client with a stroke requires a consult from a speech language pathologist. t/f a. True—make sure the patient can swallow, do evaluation first to prevent aspiration.
  4. What can patient be allergic to if they are allergic to latex a. Avocados, strawberries, kiwi, bananas
  5. If client with latex allergy has to go to surgery, when do we schedule them to go? a. First thing in the morning
  6. Nursing diagnoses for preop patient a. Risk for anxiety b. Knowledge deficit
  7. What is your concern if patient receives sedatives or any pain medication? a. They cannot sign the consent while under the influence of these drugs. b. Always get consent before giving any medications that cause sedation
  8. Level of consciousness in preop after medications were given: a. Patient is at risk for falls
  9. What are some things that can be done to prevent aspiration in stroke patients? a. Tuck the chin in, thicken fluids as indicated, sit up right 90 degrees, small bites of foods, give them time to chew and swallow, ask to double swallow, take distractions away, check mouth for food pockets
  10. If patient has left sided weakness, what side do we give them food? a. Right side, the unaffected side
  11. Homonymous hemianopsia a. Can only see half of their visual field on both sides.
  12. Clear drainage from the nose and ears of a head injury client should be tested for WBC. t/f a. False—test blood glucose or halo test. b. Positive glucose is indicative of CSF c. Halo present is indicative of CSF
  13. If patient had brain injury or surgery, what do we tell them not to do to minimize the risk of IICP? a. Do not cough, blow your nose, or strain (may need stool softener), no bending over, try not to sneeze, no vagal maneuver, do not bare down b. Position that is contraindicated for increased ICP i. Supine position