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CPT® Coding Guidelines for Medical Billing: A Comprehensive Guide, Assignments of Medical Sciences

medical coding questions and answers

Typology: Assignments

2020/2021

Uploaded on 08/24/2023

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Evaluation and management
1. How does the CPT Professional Edition define a new patient?
a. A new patient is one who has not received any professional services from the physician or another
physician of the same specialty who belongs to the same group practice, within the past two years.
b. A new patient is one who has not received any professional services from the physician or another
physician of the same specialty who belongs to the same group practice, within the past three years.
c. A new patient is one who has received professional services from the physician or another physician
of the same specialty within the last two years for the same problem.
d. A new patient is one who has received hospital services but has never been seen in the clinic by the
reporting physician.
2. James, a 35-year-old new patient, received 45 minutes of counseling and risk factor reduction
intervention services from Dr. Kelly. Dr. Kelly talked to James about how to avoid sports injuries.
Currently, James does not have any symptoms or injuries and wants to maintain this status would you
report this.This was the only service rendered. How service?
a. 99213
b. 99203
c. 99385
d. 99403
3. Andrea, a 52-year-old patient, had a hysterectomy on Monday morning. That afternoon, after
returning to her hospital room, she suffered a cardiac arrest. A cardiologist responded to the call and
delivered one hour and 35 minutes of critical care. During this time the cardiologist ordered a single
view chest x-ray and provided ventilation management. How should you report the cardiologist’s
services?
a. 99291, 99292
b. 99291, 99292, 71010, 94002
c. 71010, 94002, 99231
d. 99291, 99292, 99292-52
4. Brandon was seen in Dr. Shaw’s office after falling off his bunk bed. Brandon’s mother reported that
Brandon and his sister were jumping on the beds when she heard a “thud.” Brandon complained of knee
pain and had trouble walking. Dr. Shaw ordered a knee x-ray that was done at the imaging center across
the street. The x-ray showed no fracture or dislocations. Dr. Shaw had seen Brandon for his school
physical six months ago. Today, Dr. Shaw documented a detailed examination and decision-making of
moderate complexity. He also instructed Brandon’s mother that if Brandon had any additional pain or
trouble walking he should see an orthopedic specialist. How should Dr. Shaw report her services from
today’s visit?
a. 99204
b. 99394, 99214
c. 99214
d. 99203
5. Adam, a 48-year-old patient, presented to Dr. Crampon’s office with complaints of fever, malaise,
chills, chest pain, and a severe cough. Dr. Crampon took a history, did an exam, and ordered a chest x-
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Evaluation and management

  1. How does the CPT Professional Edition define a new patient? a. A new patient is one who has not received any professional services from the physician or another physician of the same specialty who belongs to the same group practice, within the past two years. b. A new patient is one who has not received any professional services from the physician or another physician of the same specialty who belongs to the same group practice, within the past three years. c. A new patient is one who has received professional services from the physician or another physician of the same specialty within the last two years for the same problem. d. A new patient is one who has received hospital services but has never been seen in the clinic by the reporting physician.
  2. James, a 35-year-old new patient, received 45 minutes of counseling and risk factor reduction intervention services from Dr. Kelly. Dr. Kelly talked to James about how to avoid sports injuries. Currently, James does not have any symptoms or injuries and wants to maintain this status would you report this.This was the only service rendered. How service? a. 99213 b. 99203 c. 99385 d. 99403
  3. Andrea, a 52-year-old patient, had a hysterectomy on Monday morning. That afternoon, after returning to her hospital room, she suffered a cardiac arrest. A cardiologist responded to the call and delivered one hour and 35 minutes of critical care. During this time the cardiologist ordered a single view chest x-ray and provided ventilation management. How should you report the cardiologist’s services? a. 99291, 99292 b. 99291, 99292, 71010, 94002 c. 71010, 94002, 99231 d. 99291, 99292, 99292-
  4. Brandon was seen in Dr. Shaw’s office after falling off his bunk bed. Brandon’s mother reported that Brandon and his sister were jumping on the beds when she heard a “thud.” Brandon complained of knee pain and had trouble walking. Dr. Shaw ordered a knee x-ray that was done at the imaging center across the street. The x-ray showed no fracture or dislocations. Dr. Shaw had seen Brandon for his school physical six months ago. Today, Dr. Shaw documented a detailed examination and decision-making of moderate complexity. He also instructed Brandon’s mother that if Brandon had any additional pain or trouble walking he should see an orthopedic specialist. How should Dr. Shaw report her services from today’s visit? a. 99204 b. 99394, 99214 c. 99214 d. 99203
  5. Adam, a 48-year-old patient, presented to Dr. Crampon’s office with complaints of fever, malaise, chills, chest pain, and a severe cough. Dr. Crampon took a history, did an exam, and ordered a chest x-

ray. After reviewing the x-ray, Dr. Crampon admitted Adam to the hospital for treatment of pneumonia. After his regular office hours, Dr. Crampon visited Adam in the hospital where he dictated a comprehensive history, comprehensive examination, and decision-making of moderate complexity. How would you report Dr. Crampon’s services? a. 99214 b. 99222 c. 99204, 99222- d. 99223, 99214-

  1. Why are the following codes not reported with continuing intensive care services (99478–99480): 36510, 36000, 43752, 51100, 94660, or 94375? a. These codes are deleted from the 2008 edition. b. These codes are included with continuing intensive care services. c. These codes are only add-on codes and should be reported with a modifier - d. These codes are Category III Codes and should never be reported with Category I codes.
  2. Larry is being managed for his warfarin therapy on an outpatient basis. Dr. Nancy continues to review Larry’s INR tests, gives patient instructions, dosage adjustment as needed, and ordered additional tests. How would you report the initial 90 days of therapy including 8 INR measurements? a. 99363 b. 0074T c. 99214 d. This services is bundled with evaluation and management services
  3. Dr. Jane admitted a 67-year-old woman to the coronary care unit for an acute myocardial infarction. The admission included a comprehensive history, comprehensive examination, and high complexity decision-making. Dr. Jane visited the patient on days two and three and documented (each day) an expanded problem focused examination and decision-making of moderate complexity. On day four, Dr. Jane moved the patient to the medical floor and documented a problem focused examination and straightforward decision-making. Day five, Dr. Jane discharged the patient to home. The discharge took over an hour. How would you report the services from day one to day five? a. 99213, 99232, 99231, 99239 x 2 b. 99221, 99222, 99223, 99238 c. 99231, 99232, 99355, 99217 d. 99223, 99232, 99232, 99231, 99239
  4. Which code range would describe services for a critically ill patient who is 23 days old as a out patient? a. 99291– 99292 b. 99293– 99294 c. 99295– 99296 d. None of the above
  5. Mr. Johnson, a 38-year-old established patient is being seen for management of his hypertension, diabetes, and weight control. On his last visit, he was told he had a diabetic foot ulcer and needed to be hospitalized for this condition. He decided to get a second opinion and went to see Dr. Myers. This was the first time Dr. Myers had seen Mr. Johnson. Dr. Myers documented a comprehensive history, comprehensive examination, and decision-making of high complexity. He concurred with hospitalization

back with an abnormal reading and is worried since her aunt had passed away with cervical cancer. The physician spends an extra 45 minutes face-to-face time discussing with her the awareness, other screening procedures and treatment if it turns out to be cervical cancer. What code(s) should be used for this visit? A. 99215 B. 99213, 99354 C. 99213 D. 99213, 99403

  1. A patient was admitted yesterday to the hospital for possible gallstones. The following day the physician who admitted the patient performed a detailed history, a detailed exam and a medical decision making of low complexity. The physician tells her the test results have come back positive for gallstones and is recommending having a cholecystectomy. What code should be reported for this evaluation and management service? A. 99253 B. 99221 C. 99233 D. 99234
  2. A patient came in to the ER with wheezing and a rapid heart rate. The ER physician documents a comprehensive history, comprehensive exam and medical decision of moderate complexity. The patient has been given three nebulizer treatments. The ER physician has decided to place him in observation care for the acute asthma exacerbation. The ER physician will continue examining the patient and will order additional treatments until the wheezing subsides. Select the appropriate code(s) for this visit. A. 99284, 99219 B. 99219 C. 99284 D. 99235
  3. Patient is here to follow up on her atrial fibrillation. Her primary care physician is not in the office. She will be seen by the partner physician that is also in the same practice. No new problems. Blood pressure is 110/64. Pulse is regular at 72. Temp is 98.6F Chest is clear. Cardiac normal sinus rhythm. Medical making decision is straightforward. Diagnosis: Atrial fibrillation, currently stable. What CPT® code is reported for this service? A. 99201 B. 99202 C. 99212 D. 99213
  4. Documentation of a new patient in a doctor’s office setting supports the History in four elements for an extended history of present illness (HPI), three elements for an extended review of systems (ROS) and three elements for a complete Past, Family, Social History (PFSH). There is an extended examination of six body areas and organ systems. The medical making decision making is of high complexity. Which E/M service supports this documentation? A. 99205 B. 99204 C. 99203 D. 99202 21.Two-year-old is brought to the ER by EMS for near drowning. EMS had gotten a pulse. The ER physician performs endotracheal intubation, blood gas, and a central venous catheter placement. The

ER physician documents a total time of 30 minutes on this critical infant in which the physician already subtracted the time for the other billable services. Select the E/M service and procedures to report for the ER physician? A. 99291-25, 36555, 31500 B. 99291, 36556, 31500, 82803 C. 99285-25, 36556, 31500, 8280 3 D. 99475, 36556

  1. 2 - year-old is coming in with his mom to see the pediatrician for fever, sore throat, and pulling of the ears. The physician performs a brief history along with a problem pertinent review of systems. A limited exam was performed on the ears, nose and throat and respiratory systems. A strep culture was taken and came back positive. A diagnosis was also made of the infant having acute otitis media with effusion. The medical decision making was of moderate complexity with the giving of a prescription. What CPT® and ICD- 9 - CM codes should be reported? A. 99212, 462, 382. B. 99213, 034.0, 381. C. 99212, 034.0, 381. D. 99213, 034.0, 381.
  2. 42 - year-old woman is being discharged today, 2/5/XX. She was admitted to the hospital 2/2/XX for acute diverticulitis. Refer to dictated notes for a detailed description of the history, exam, and assessment and treatment protocol. Patient was also seen in consultation by Dr Z. She was placed on intravenous antibiotics and has made slow steady progress. Today has no abdominal pain. Labs are normal and CT of the abdomen and pelvis showed changes consistent with diverticulitis in the left side of colon. She was given follow up instructions of her medications, what diet to have and to follow up with PCP in 10 to 14 days or return if pain resumes. Total time spent with patient 40 minutes. What CPT® code(s) should be reported? A. 99233, 99239 B. 99217 C. 99252, 99238 D. 99239
  3. 63 - year-old man is coming in for a second opinion for his sleep apnea. He has had it for the past five months. Sleep is disrupted by frequent awakenings and getting worse due to anxiety and snoring. He feels tired all the time, has some joint stiffness and night sweats; all other systems were negative. He is going through a divorce which is causing him anxiety and had a hernia repair two month ago. Doctor performs a comprehensive exam and orders labs and a sleep study test. Prescription was given to help with the anxiety. What CPT® code should be reported? A. 99203 B. 99204 C. 99244 D. 99214
  4. A 55-year-old established patient is coming in for a pre-op visit; he is getting a liver transplant due to cirrhosis. The physician performs an expanded problem focused history, detailed examination, and moderate MDM. Patient agrees with his physician’s recommendations and the transplantation will take place as scheduled. After the evaluation, the patient expresses a number of concerns and questions for the prospective liver transplant. Physician spends an additional 30 minutes, excluding the time spent in doing the E/M service, in counseling and answering questions regarding the surgery and discussing possible outcomes. What CPT® codes should be reported? A. 99213, 99354 B. 99214, 99358 C. 99213, 99358 D. 99214, 99354
  5. Physician performs a medical review and documentation on an 83-year-old patient still hospitalized

physician. The child was monitored with pulse oxymetry, cardiac monitor and frequent physician evaluation. The patient was discharged with a sling and requested to follow up with the orthopedic surgeon. Code the services performed by the ED physician. A. 99284, 99143 B. 99284-25, 99148 C. 99283-25, 99143 D. 99283

  1. Dr. X performs a follow-up consultation on certain tests that were not available in a nursing facility for a 75- year-old-male that was having chest pain. Today the patient is feeling better after a GI cocktail with Maalox and Xylocaine. The EKG showed an arrhythmia and the chest X-ray came back normal. Dr. X performs a problem focused history. He listens to the patient’s heart and lungs. Dr. X makes the recommendation of repeat cardiac enzymes and EKG and to have a GI evaluation. The PCP accepts the recommendations and implements the plan of care. What CPT® code should be reported for Dr. X? A. 99241 B. 99232 C. 99308 D. 99251
  2. Physician was called to the floor to evaluate a 94-year-old that had sudden weakness, hypotension, and diaphoresis. Physician found the patient in mild distress and dyspenic. Her BP 101/60, pulse 85. Her heart was positive for a systolic murmur. EKG came back with ST elevation V2-V6. Labs were still pending. She was admitted to CCU for Acute Antero-lateral MI and hypotension. Physician spent total critical care time of 48 minutes. Select the appropriate CPT® code for this visit: A. 99253 B. 99233 C. 9 9291 D. 99236

ANSWERS

  1. “b” A new patient is described as not receiving any professional serves in the past three years. You can find this answer in the Evaluation and Management Services Guidelines and on the Decision Tree for New vs. Established Patients (same guidelines) in the CPT Professional Edition.
  2. “d” Counseling and/or risk factor reduction intervention services are provided to patients with symptoms or established illness.
  3. “a” The guidelines for critical care have a list of services that are included with critical care when performed by the physician providing the critical care and these services should not be reported separately.
  1. “c” This is an established patient visit and meets two of the three key components for a 99214 level visit.
  2. “b” The subcategory guidelines for Initial Hospital Care state, “When the patient is admitted to the hospital as an inpatient in the course of an encounter in another site of service (e.g., hospital, emergency department, observation status in a hospital, physician’s office, nursing facility) all evaluation and management services provided by that physician in conjunction with that admission are considered part of the initial hospital care when performed on the same date as the admission. Therefore, the services are reported with the initial hospital care code only. The office visit is a bundled service.
  3. “b” These codes are included (bundled) and you can’t report them in addition to the Continuing Intensive Care Services. In the subcategory guidelines for these services it is noted, “…These codes include the same procedures that are outlined in the Pediatric Critical care services section and these services should not be separately reported.”
  4. “a” This question deals with outpatient anticoagulant management. The code 99363 gives specific parameters for reporting.
  5. “d” Day one admission or initial hospital care is 99223. Days two and three are subsequent hospital care services at 99232 and you should report them separately. Day four is subsequent hospital care at level 99231. Day five is the discharge service, which is based on time and code 99239 is reported for services of more than 30 minutes, regardless of the actual time. Report this code only once.
  6. “a” Refer the page 21 in CPT manual.

1 0. “b” This is a new patient visit not a consultation. “A “consultation” initiated by a patient and/or family, and not requested by a physician or other appropriate source, …is not reported using the consultation codes but may be reporting using the office visit, home service, or domiciliary/rest home care codes.” Report a consultation code only when a request (written or verbal) is made by another physician or appropriate source, an opinion is rendered, and a written report is sent back to the “requestor.” In this case the patient initiated the visit.

1 1. “a” You can find this definition in the CPT Professional Edition under the subcategory guidelines for Emergency Department Services.

1 2. “d” Preventive medicine services are based on new vs. established patient and age.

  1. B Scenario documents patient returning to the gynecologist guiding you to the codes for established patient office visit. This eliminates multiple choices A and C. For this scenario, the patient did not have any complaints that required the presence of a physician. There was no examination or medical making decision performed for the patient guiding you to code 99211. There must be an order for the patient to come in for the office visit. For the diagnosis code, the pessary was removed for cleaning with no documentation of a complication of the device nor is this device a contraceptive device; therefore, report V52.8 (Fitting, device, prosthetic, other specified)

  2. C According to CPT® guidelines: When the patient is admitted to the hospital as an inpatient in the course of an encounter in another site of service (example, hospital emergency department, observation status in a hospital, physician’s office, nursing facility) all evaluation and management services provided by that physician in conjunction with that admission are considered part of the initial hospital care when

components: Problem Focused History + Expanded Problem Focused Exam + Straightforward MDM = 99212

  1. C All three key components (history, exam, and medical decision making) need to be met to qualify for a particular level of E/M service for an office visit of a new patient. According to the subsection guidelines in the CPT® manual under the heading: Instructions for Selecting a Level of E/M Service: Determine the Extent of History Obtained: (Scenario) -Extended HPI + Extended ROS + Complete PFSH = Detailed History; Determine the Extent of Examination Performed: -Extended Examination = Detailed Exam; [Detailed history + Detailed exam + Medical Decision Making of high complexity = 99203] Detailed history and exam brought the level down to code 99203.
  2. A According to the CPT® subsection guidelines for Inpatient Neonatal and Pediatric Critical Care: To report critical care services provided in the outpatient setting (example, emergency department or office) for neonates and pediatric patients of any age, see the Critical Care codes 99291, 99292. This would eliminate multiple choice D. There is documentation in which the ER physician spent a total of 30 minutes on a critical patient, eliminating multiple choice C. Blood gas (82803) is a lab procedure that is not separately reported by the physician when billing for critical care. A list of services included in reporting critical care is found in the subsection guidelines under Critical Care Services. Modifier 25 needs to be appended to 99291 since it is an evaluation and management service in which billable procedures were performed on the same date of service.
  3. D An established patient office visit requires 2 of the 3 key components (history, exam and medical decision making) to qualify for a particular level of E/M service. The documentation in the scenario provides: Expanded Problem Focused History = Brief history (HPI) + Problem Pertinent review of systems (ROS) + No documentation of a Past, Family, and Social history (PFSH); Expanded Problem Focused Exam =Limited two organ systems (Ears, nose, mouth and throat and Respiratory); Medical Decision Making = Moderate complexity [Expanded Problem Focused History + Expanded Problem Focused Exam + MDM Moderate = 99213] The strep culture came back positive for strep. This is indexed in the ICD-9-CM under Infection/streptococcal/sore throat guiding you to code 034.0. The second diagnosis is indexed under Otitis/media/acute/with effusion guiding you to code 381.00.
  4. D. According to CPT® guidelines: Final hospital care for discharge of a patient includes final examination of the patient, discussion of the hospital stay, instructions for continuing care, and preparation of discharge records.(Final day of a multiple day stay) This code includes all the E/M services provided on the day of discharge. No other E/M code is reported with discharge codes. The patient for this encounter was admitted on one date of service and got discharged a few days after.
  5. B. The patient was not referred by another physician for a second opinion for his sleep apnea, so this is not a consultation visit. The patient decided to go on his own to get the opinion from another doctor. According to CPT® guidelines: If a "consultation" is requested by a patient and/or family and not requested by a physician (self-referral), an office visit code may be used to report this service The doctor is seeing the patient for the first time, making him a new patient. In the CPT® index, look up Evaluation and Management/Office or Outpatient. You are referred to 99201-99215. Review the codes to choose the appropriate level of service. 99204 is the correct code. Comprehensive History (Extended HPI, Complete ROS, and Complete PFSH) + Comprehensive Exam + Moderate MDM (New patient to examiner; 1 data point; moderate risk) = 99204.
  6. D. For this encounter the established patient is coming into a doctor’s office to get an evaluation before he goes in for surgery. In the CPT® book, look up Evaluation and Management/Office and Other Outpatient. You are referred to 99201-99215. Review codes to choose the appropriate level of service.

Two out of three key components are required. The provider performs a detailed exam and moderate MDM. 99214 is the correct code. After the evaluation the patient needs the physician to address questions and concerns he has regarding the liver transplant surgery. According to CPT® guidelines: 99354-99355 are used to report the total duration of face-to-face time spent by a physician beyond the usual service in either the inpatient or outpatient setting. The prolonged service includes the time he spent in face-to-face contact with the patient when he was not performing the history, physical examination, and medical decision making related to the level of E/M service he reported. In the CPT® index, look up Prolonged Services. You are referred 99354-99357, 99360. 99354 is the correct code since 30 minutes was spent face-to-face.

  1. A. The patient is in the hospital for 3 days being seen by the physician for subsequent hospital care. In the CPT® index, look up Hospital Services/Inpatient Services/Subsequent Hospital Care. You are referred to 99231-99233. Review codes to choose appropriate level of service. 99231 is the correct code. Two out of three key components are needed for subsequent hospital care codes. The physician documented a problem focused exam (1 system) + Low MDM (Established problem to examiner; stable, 2 data points, low level of risk) =99231.
  2. C. The E/M service is at the request of the ED physician to render an opinion on whether the patient needs surgery. A written report of the findings is documented in the ED chart. According to CPT® coding guidelines, the requirements for a consultation have been met. The service is provided in the ED, which is an outpatient setting. The plastic surgery performs a detailed history (extended HPI, extended ROS and pertinent PFSH), a detailed exam (extended 4 body area/organ system exam) and moderate MDM (New problem to examiner no additional workup planned and need for major surgery). For an outpatient consultation three of the three key components are required. 99243 is the appropriate code. During this encounter, the physician made the decision to perform a major surgery, which is scheduled for the next day. Modifier 57 is appended to the E/M service.
  3. D. During this encounter, the physician performs resuscitation, endotracheal intubation, and inserts an umbilical line. According to CPT® coding guidelines, “procedures that are performed as a necessary part of the resuscitation are reported separately in addition to 99465”. Code 99464 cannot be reported with 99465. The critically ill neonate is admitted to critical care. According to CPT® coding guidelines, 99468 can be reported with 99465. The guidelines also state “other procedures performed as a necessary part of the resuscitation are also reported separately when performed as part of the pre- admission delivery room care". In this scenario the intubation (31500) and the umbilical line (36510) were performed pre-admission for resuscitation so they are both reported. Modifier 59 is required because both services are bundled with 99468 when performed during after admission. Modifier 25 is reported to indicate a separate and significant E/M service.
  4. B. In the CPT® book, look up Evaluation and Management/Office or Outpatient. You are referred to 99201-99215. Review the codes to choose the appropriate level of service. 99204 is the correct code. Patient is a “new patient” since this is an initial visit. Comprehensive HPI (Extended HPI, Complete ROS, and Complete PFSH) + Comprehensive Exam (eight system exam) + Moderate MDM (New problem to examiner with additional work up planned, 1 data point (radiology), moderate level of risk (prescription) = 99204.
  5. B. In this case, the ED physician performed an E/M service and moderate conscious sedation so the orthopedic surgeon could provide fracture care. The services are performed in the ED setting, which is reported with codes 99281-99285. This category requires three of three key components for the E/M code. The physician performs a detailed history (extended HPI, extended ROS and complete PFSH), detailed exam (extended six system exam), and moderate MDM (New problem to the examiner, no additional workup planned, 1 data point, moderate risk). The documentation supports a 99284. Modifier