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1) Select the correct answers that identify the Five I's of culturing microorganisms. A) Identification B) Inspection C) Inhibition D) Inoculation E) Isolation F) Infection G) Incubation 2) Select the methods below that enable the isolation of bacteria. A) Quadrant streak plate B) Bright-field microscopy C) Loop dilution D) Use of selective media E) Spread plate F) Gram stain 3) Choose the three basic ways that media are classified. A) Chemical composition B) Purpose C) Temperature of incubation D) Physical state E) Ease of preparation 4) Select the elements necessary for good microscopy. A) Adequate magnification B) Ability to observe cells in the living state C) Use of wavelengths other than the visible spectrum D) Contrast E) Resolution F) Specimen holder
5) The Five I's of studying microorganisms include all of the following except _____. A) inoculation B) incubation C) infection D) isolation E) identification 6) The term that refers to the purposeful addition of microorganisms into a laboratory nutrient medium is _____. A) isolation B) inoculation C) immunization D) infection E) contamination 7) A pure culture contains ______. A) only one species of microorganism B) only bacteria C) a variety of microbes from one source D) a variety of species from the same genus E) None of the choices are correct. 8) The correct microbiological term for the tiny sample of specimen that is put into a nutrient medium in order to produce a culture is the _____. A) colony B) inoculum C) streak D) loop E) incubator
13) Agar is an important component of media because ______. A) bacteria require agar to grow B) agar inhibits mold growth C) agar provides a solid surface for bacterial growth D) agar prevents contamination E) All of the choices are correct. 14) The three physical forms of laboratory media are ______. A) solid, liquid, and gas B) solid, semisolid, and liquid C) streak plate, pour plate, and broth D) aerobic, anaerobic, and micro aerobic E) None of the choices are correct. 15) Which of the following is not an inoculating tool? A) Petri dish B) Loop C) Needle D) Pipette E) Swab 16) Agar is a complex polysaccharide that comes from a(n) _____. A) green plant B) fungus C) mold D) algae E) euglena 17) Which of the following is not a benefit of agar as a solid medium?
A) Has flexibility B) Holds moisture C) Can be inoculated and poured at a temperature that is not harmful D) Is solid at room temperature E) Is digested by most microbes 18) A nutrient medium that has all of its chemical components identified, and their precise concentrations known and reproducible, would be termed ________. A) a complex media B) a reducing media C) an enriched media D) a chemically defined media E) None of the choices are correct. 19) A nutrient medium that contains at least one ingredient that is NOT chemically definable would be termed _____. A) complex B) reducing C) enriched D) synthetic E) minimal 20) All of the following are examples of different types of microbiological media except _____. A) broth B) enriched C) agar D) petri dish E) selective 21) Which type of
25) Which type of medium is able to distinguish different species or types of microorganisms based on an observable change in the colonies or in the medium? A) Differential B) Selective C) Enumeration D) Enriched E) Reducing 26) Differential media results in which of the following growth characteristics? A) Different color colonies B) Different media color post incubation C) Precipitates D) Gas bubbles E) All of the choices are correct. 27) A reducing media is used to culture ______. A) fastidious organisms B) aerobic organisms C) anaerobic organisms D) any pathogenic organisms E) None of the choices are correct. 28) For which bacterial genus does mannitol salt agar differentiate between species? A) Salmonella B) Streptococcus C) Neisseria
D)
Staphylococcus E) Escherichia
29) A microbiologist must culture a patient's feces for intestinal pathogens. Which of the following would likely be present in selective media for analyzing this fecal specimen? A) NaCl B) Sheep red blood cells C) Bile salts D) Thioglycollic acid E) Peptone 30) Bacteria that require special growth factors and complex nutrients are termed _____. A) aerobic B) anaerobic C) fastidious
D)
microaerophilic E) autotrophic 31) A microbiologist inoculates Staphylococcus aureus into a culture medium. Following incubation, both Staphylococcus aureus and Staphylococcus epidermidis are determined to be growing in this culture. What is the most likely explanation? A) Themicrobiologist used too much inoculum. B) The culture iscontaminated. C) The incubationtemperature was incorrect. D) The culturemedium must be selective. E) The culturemedium must be differential. 32) Newly inoculated cultures must be _____ at a specific temperature to encourage growth. A) streaked B) poured C) incubated D) contaminated E) All of thechoices are correct.
C) Ocular lens D) Body E) Nosepiece
37) Which of the following magnifies the specimen to produce its virtual image? A) Objective lens B) Ocular lens C) Condenser D) Body E) Iris diaphragm 38) Which of the following controls the amount of light entering the specimen? A) Objective lens B) Ocular lens C) Condenser D) Body E) Iris diaphragm 39) If a microbiologist is studying a specimen at a total magnification of 950x, what is the magnifying power of the objective lens if the ocular lens is 10x? A) 100x B) 950x C) 85x D) 850x E) 95x 40) Magnification is achieved in a compound microscope through the initial magnification of the specimen by the ______ lens. This image is then projected to the ______ lens that will further magnify the specimen to form a virtual image received by the eye. A) ocular; objective B) scanning; objective C) objective;
41) Which of the following characteristics refers to the microscope's ability to show two separate entities as separate and distinct? A) Resolving power B) Magnification C) Refraction D) All of thechoices are correct. E) None of the choices are correct. 42) All of the following are diameters of cells that would be resolved in a microscope with a 0.2 μm limit of resolution except _____. A) 0.2 μm B) 0.2 mm C) 0.1 μm D) 0.3 μm E) 2.0 μm 43) The type of microscope in which you would see brightly illuminated specimens against a black background is _____. A) bright field B) dark field C) phase contrast D) fluorescence E) electron 44) Which type of microscope shows cells against a bright background but also differentiates intracellular structures of unstained cells based on their varying densities?
A) Bright field B) Dark field C) Phase contrast D) Differential interference E) Electron 45) Which type of microscope is the most widely used and shows cells against a bright background? A) Bright field B) Dark field C) Phase contrast D) Fluorescence E) Electron 46) All of the following pertain to the fluorescence microscope except ______. A) it uses electrons to produce a specimen image B) it is a type of compound microscope C) it requires the use of dyes like acridine and fluorescein D) it is commonly used to diagnose certain infections E) it requires an ultraviolet radiation source 47) A confocal scanning microscope ______. A) uses visible light to form a specimen image B) shows three-dimensional cell images from the cell surface to the middle of the cell C) produces specimen images on electron micrographs D) uses dyes that emit visible light when bombarded by electrons E) requires specimens to be stained
A) kill them B) secure them to the slide C) enlarge the cells D) add contrast in order to see them better E) see motility 53) What do the Gram stain, acid-fast stain, and endospore stain have in common? A) They are used on a wet mount of the specimen. B) They use heat to force the dye into cell structures. C) The outcome is based on cell differences. D) They use a negative stain technique. E) They are simple stains. 54) Basic dyes are ______. A) attracted to the negatively charged acidic substances of bacterial cells B) anionic C) used in negative staining D) repelled by cells E) dyes such as India ink and nigrosin 55) A microbiologist makes a fixed smear of bacterial cells and stains them with Loeffler's methylene blue. All the cells appear blue under the oil lens. This is an example of ______. A) negative staining B) using an acidic dye C) simple staining D) using the acid- fast stain E) capsule staining
56) The Gram staining procedure is best described as a(n) _______ staining technique. A) acid-fast or Ziehl-Neelson B) differential C) capsule D) flagellar E) simple 57) The all-purpose media Tryptic Soy Agar (TSA) contains the following four ingredients; pancreatic digest of casein, digest of soybean meal, NaCl and agar. TSA is best described as ______. A) a differential media B) a complex media C) a selective media D) a defined media E) a reducing media 58) Comparing defined vs. complex media is analogous to comparing ______. A) baby formula to breast milk B) Coca-cola ®^ to Pepsi ® C) the generic version of the drug Lipitor ®^ to the brand name produced by Pfizer Pharmaceuticals D) a strawberry- banana smoothie to a mixed berry smoothie 59) The diameter of field for a 4x lens is measured at 4. mm. How many bacterial cells, each measuring 4 μm, could be lined up along the diameter? A) 1,150 cells B) 1.15 cells C) 18.4 cells D) 115 cells E) 1840 cells
what type of bacterial growth is supported by this medium? A) Selective; gram-negative bacteria B) Differential; fastidious bacteria C) Enriched; fastidious bacteria D) Enriched; gram-negative bacteria 64) Choose the term that describes motility media. A) Solid, but can liquefy B) Solid C) Semisolid D) Liquid E) Synthetic 65) Choose the description that best fits a medium that has been designed to support the growth of MRSA (methicillin- resistant Staphylococcus aureus ) while inhibiting all species and strains of other bacteria. A) Differential B) Selective C) Reducing D) Enriched E) Anaerobic 66) A bacterial cell that measures 2.5 μm (micrometers) would measure _____ nm (nanometers). A) 2,500 nm B) 25 nm C) 0.0025 nm D) 0.25 nm 67) A virus that is 150 nm (nanometers) in diameter would be _____ μm
(micrometers) in diameter. A) 0.150 μm B) 15 μm C) 150,000 μm D) 0.0150 μm 68) A human squamous epithelial cell measures 75 μm in diameter. The size of this cell represented in millimeters (mm) would be _____ mm. A) 0. B) 0.
C) 75,
D) 750
69) Reducing the intensity of light using the iris diaphragm or staining a specimen can improve ______. A) contrast B) magnification C) resolving power D) reflection 70) The resolving power of electron microscopes is much better than the resolving power of light microscopes because the wavelength of electron beams is _____ than the wavelength of visible light. A) shorter B) longer C) faster D) slower
