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MID-CURRICULAR REVIEW 172 QUESTIONS & complete accurate answers., Exams of Advanced Education

MID-CURRICULAR REVIEW 172 QUESTIONS & complete accurate answers. MID-CURRICULAR REVIEW 172 QUESTIONS & complete accurate answers. MID-CURRICULAR REVIEW 172 QUESTIONS & complete accurate answers. MID-CURRICULAR REVIEW 172 QUESTIONS & complete accurate answers. MID-CURRICULAR REVIEW 172 QUESTIONS & complete accurate answers. MID-CURRICULAR REVIEW 172 QUESTIONS & complete accurate answers. MID-CURRICULAR REVIEW 172 QUESTIONS & complete accurate answers. MID-CURRICULAR REVIEW 172 QUESTIONS & complete accurate answers. MID-CURRICULAR REVIEW 172 QUESTIONS & complete accurate answers. MID-CURRICULAR REVIEW 172 QUESTIONS & complete accurate answers. MID-CURRICULAR REVIEW 172 QUESTIONS & complete accurate answers. MID-CURRICULAR REVIEW 172 QUESTIONS & complete accurate answers. MID-CURRICULAR REVIEW 172 QUESTIONS & complete accurate answers. MID-CURRICULAR REVIEW 172 QUESTIONS & complete accurate answers.

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MID-CURRICULAR REVIEW 172
QUESTIONS & complete accurate
answers.
MID-CURRICULAR REVIEW 172
QUESTIONS & complete accurate
answers.
Which of the following is an example of a negative nonverbal communication
technique?
a. Giving a pleasant smile
b. Maintaining eye contact
c. Leaning toward the patient when talking to him or her
d. Talking to the patient with your back turned as you record in the chart - Answer-d.
Talking to the patient with your back turned as you record in the chart
All of the following are nonverbal communication characteristics EXCEPT your:
a. tone of voice.
b. body language.
c. amount of eye contact.
d. professional appearance. - Answer-a. tone of voice.
Good history taking involves the collection of objective and subjective data. All of the
following are examples of subjective data EXCEPT the patient's:
a. emotions.
b. respiratory rate.
c. speech pattern.
d. ability to follow your instructions. - Answer-b. respiratory rate.
Man's first and foremost need is:
a. being accepted by peers.
b. succeeding at job or work.
c. shelter and protection from outside enemies.
d. nourishment and water. - Answer-d. nourishment and water.
According to Elisabeth Kübler-Ross, the customary stages of the dying or grieving
process in the typical sequence are:
a. acceptance, denial, depression, anger, bargaining.
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QUESTIONS & complete accurate

answers.

MID-CURRICULAR REVIEW 172

QUESTIONS & complete accurate

answers.

Which of the following is an example of a negative nonverbal communication technique? a. Giving a pleasant smile b. Maintaining eye contact c. Leaning toward the patient when talking to him or her d. Talking to the patient with your back turned as you record in the chart - Answer-d. Talking to the patient with your back turned as you record in the chart All of the following are nonverbal communication characteristics EXCEPT your: a. tone of voice. b. body language. c. amount of eye contact. d. professional appearance. - Answer-a. tone of voice. Good history taking involves the collection of objective and subjective data. All of the following are examples of subjective data EXCEPT the patient's: a. emotions. b. respiratory rate. c. speech pattern. d. ability to follow your instructions. - Answer-b. respiratory rate. Man's first and foremost need is: a. being accepted by peers. b. succeeding at job or work. c. shelter and protection from outside enemies. d. nourishment and water. - Answer-d. nourishment and water. According to Elisabeth Kübler-Ross, the customary stages of the dying or grieving process in the typical sequence are: a. acceptance, denial, depression, anger, bargaining.

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b. denial and isolation, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance. c. anger, denial, bargaining, depression, acceptance. d. denial and isolation, anger, depression, bargaining, acceptance. - Answer-b. denial and isolation, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance. When radiographing a very young child or a mentally impaired patient: a. work silently in order to avoid questions and alarming the patient. b. ask the patient if he or she has ever had this type of procedure before c. try and get a family member to be a part of the examination for communication and reassurance. d. speak loudly and take charge of the examination from the beginning. - Answer-c. try and get a family member to be a part of the examination for communication and reassurance. Which of the following affects communication? a. Values b. Perception c. Emotions d. All of the above - Answer-d. All of the above The patient coming to you for an abdominal examination states, "My belly hurts." A logical question to ask next would be: a. "Can you touch the area of your belly that hurts?" b. "Can you draw on a diagram of the human body the area that hurts?" c. "Did you tell the nurse this when you were in the Urgent Care center?" d. "Would you point to the area that hurts for the radiologist when he enters the examination room?" - Answer-a. "Can you touch the area of your belly that hurts?" An imaging sciences professional: a. relates his or her personal experiences to the patient's when taking a history. b. uses "pet names" such as "dear," "cutie," and "honey" in order to encourage the patient to provide more intimate information about his or her condition. c. relies exclusively on objective patient data so as not to bias the patient history. d. does none of the above. - Answer-d. does none of the above. When communicating with a young child as part of a radiographic examination, an effective strategy to communicate would be to:1. kneel down to the child's eye level and lower your voice.2. speak loudly and quickly so the child knows you're in charge.3. allow

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b. vehicle c. receiver d. transmitter - Answer-d. transmitter Which of the following is the first stage in the grieving process? a. anger b. denial c. acceptance d. bargaining - Answer-b. denial A common emotion of most patients entering the hospital is: a. optimism. b. fear of the unknown and about their condition. c. eagerness to meet new people. d. insincerity. - Answer-b. fear of the unknown and about their condition. When working with an elderly patient: a. speak slowly and clearly, and ask for understanding and feedback. b. write down your instructions first for the patient to read. c. give the patient breathing instructions while you're positioning him or her, in order to hasten the procedure. d. assume the patient can see and hear you clearly, and move quickly and deliberately in order to get done. - Answer-a. speak slowly and clearly, and ask for understanding and feedback. Objective data regarding a patient's history: a. are more important than subjective data. b. deal with a patient's feelings. c. consist of a patient's vital signs. d. are an effective way to explain the patient's pain level. - Answer-c. consist of a patient's vital signs. All of the following are forms of subjective patient data EXCEPT: a. blood pressure and temperature. b. patient facial expressions. c. patient mood or demeanor. d. patient complaints of pain and tenderness in a generalized region of the body. - Answer-a. blood pressure and temperature.

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What is the direction of the conventional current flow within the x-ray tube? a. from cathode to anode b. from anode to cathode c. depends on kV used d. depends on mAs used - Answer-b. from anode to cathode What is the total voltage in a series circuit with three resistances, each supplied with 10 volts? a. 10 volts b. 20 volts c. 30 volts d. 40 volts - Answer-c. 30 volts The voltage control is found between the a. incoming line and the exposure switch. b. autotransformer and the timer circuit. c. exposure switch and the step-up transformer. d. incoming line and the step-down transformer. - Answer-a. incoming line and the exposure switch. The four properties of photons are _____, _____, _____ and _____. a. size, shape, spin, mass b. frequency, mass, amplitude, wavelength c. frequency, wavelength, velocity, amplitude d. refraction, velocity, spin, amplitude - Answer-c. frequency, wavelength, velocity, amplitude What is the name of the exact area on the anode that is struck by the electron stream? a. Focal spot b. Focal point c. Focal range d. Any of the above - Answer-a. Focal spot Which of the following could be defined as the production of an x-ray photon by the electrostatic attraction between the incident electron and the nucleus of the tungsten atom?

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c. 240 mR d, 60 mR - Answer-b. 480 mR The shape of the x-ray emission spectrum can be affected by the different factors. Increase in which factor will decrease the amplitude and cause shift of the spectrum to the right? a. mAs b. kVp c. filtration d. distance - Answer-c. filtration What is the percentage of the Bremsstrauhlang radiation in the x-ray beam if the exposure was made using 65 kVp @ 3 mAs a. 5%-10% b. 15%-20% c. 65% d. 100% - Answer-d. 100% Which of the following characteristics describes diagnostic X-ray beam? a. photoelectric and compton b. heterogeneous and polyenergetic c. herterogenous and monoenergetic d. all of the listed - Answer-b. heterogeneous and polyenergetic What is the name of the electrical device that turn mechanical energy into the electric energy? a. transformer b. generator c. electric motor d. alternator - Answer-b. generator Exposure of the knee was done using 70 kVp @ 9 mAs and 6:1 grid. The new exposure was done without the grid using 70 kVp @ 3 mAs. What effect on optical density will have abovementioned change in technical factors? a. increase in the optical density b. decrease in the optical density c. no effect on the optical density

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d. not enough info to determine - Answer-c. no effect on the optical density Which of the following interactions between the x-ray beam and patient are the most important in the image production?

  1. Compton scattering
  2. Coherent scattering
  3. Photodisintegration
  4. Pair production
  5. Photoelectric effect a. 1, 2 and 5 b. 2 and 5 c. 1 and 5 d. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 - Answer-c. 1 and 5 Which of the following x-ray interactions with matter is described as: Incoming x-ray photon interacts with the entire atom, cause momentary vibration of the orbital electrons and continues it's path in the forward direction with little (less than 200)or no deviation from its intended destination? a. Compton scattering b. photoelectric effect c. coherent scattering d. incoherent - Answer-c. coherent scattering Diagnostic X-ray tube that operates on 70 kVp and higher requires to have at least _________ mm of Aluminum equivalent. a. 0.5-1. b. 1.5- 2 c. 2. d. 3 - Answer-c. 2. Which of the following grids would demonstrate the highest efficiency? a. 6: b. 8: c. 10: d. 12:1 - Answer-d. 12: Which of the following grids would demonstrate the greatest positioning latitude?

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The kinetic energy of photoelectrons in the image intensifier is greatly increased by the _____. a. mAs of the exposure b. potential difference across the tube c. cesium iodide at the input phosphor d. zinc cadmium sulfide at the output phosphor - Answer-b. potential difference across the tube The scattered x-ray from a Compton interaction usually retains _____ of the energy of the incident photon. a. none b. little c. most d. all - Answer-c. most Which x-ray interaction involves the ejection of the K-shell electron? a. Coherent scattering b. Compton interaction c. Pair production d. Photoelectric absorption - Answer-d. Photoelectric absorption Only at energies above 10 MeV can _____ take place. a. Photodisintegration b. Pair production c. Compton scatter d. Photoelectric absorption - Answer-a. Photodisintegration A charge-coupled device used in digital fluoroscopy provides high _____. a. spatial resolution b. signal-to-noise ratio c. detective quantum efficiency d. all of the above - Answer-d. all of the above A negative contrast agent is _____. a. air

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b. iodine c. barium d. water - Answer-a. air The two primary forms of x-ray interaction in the diagnostic range are _____. a. Compton scattering and photoelectric absorption b. Compton scattering and pair production c. photoelectric absorption and coherent scattering d. coherent scattering and Thompson scattering - Answer-a. Compton scattering and photoelectric absorption Compton scatter is directed at _____ angle from the incident beam. a. a 180° b. a 90° c. a 0° d. any - Answer-d. any With image intensification the light level is raised to _____ vision. a. photopic b. scotopic c. night d. twilight - Answer-a. photopic The _____ in the image intensifier emits electrons when it is stimulated by light photons. a. input phosphor b. output phosphor c. photocathode d. electron gun - Answer-c. photocathode Fluoroscopy was developed so that radiologists could view _____ images. a. static b. dynamic c. magnified d. darkened - Answer-b. dynamic An outer-shell electron is ejected and the atom is ionized during _____.

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b. antimony c. zinc cadmium sulfide d. graphite - Answer-a. cesium iodide The ability of the eye to detect differences in brightness levels is termed _____. a. visual acuity b. scotopic vision c. photopic vision d. contrast perception - Answer-d. contrast perception What is the velocity of all electromagnetic radiation? a. 8 ´ 103 m/s b. 2 ´ 108 m/s c. 3 ´ 108 m/s d. 4 ´ 103 m/s - Answer-c. 3 ´ 108 m/s X-rays are usually identified by their _____. a. energy b. velocity c. wavelength d. hertz - Answer-a. energy The input phosphor converts _____ to _____. a. x-rays, electrons b. light, electrons c. electrons, light d. x-rays, light - Answer-d. x-rays, light An incident x-ray interacts with an atom without ionization during _____. a. Photoelectric absorption b. Compton scattering c. Coherent scattering d. Pair production - Answer-c. Coherent scattering Which has the greatest mass density? a. fat b. soft tissue

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c. bone d. air - Answer-c. bone Which of the following is true about the pineal gland? a. It is located in the brain. b. It produces melatonin. c. It helps regulate the body's "biological clock". d. All of the above are true of the pineal gland. - Answer-d. All of the above are true of the pineal gland. Which of the following is not part of the cell? a. plasma membrane b. interstitial fluid c. nucleus d. All of the above are part of the cell. - Answer-b. interstitial fluid Which two types of tissue have the greatest ability to repair themselves? a. epithelial and muscle b. connective and muscle c. epithelial and connective d. muscle and nervous - Answer-c. epithelial and connective The role of hemoglobin in the red blood cell is to carry a. oxygen b. carbon dioxide c. hormones d. both a and b - Answer-d. both a and b The ability of the muscular tissue to return to its original shape and length after being stretch or contracted is............... a. elasticity b. resistibility c. extensibility d. excitability - Answer-a. elasticity Which of the following muscle cells are striated and involuntary?

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Both hair and nails are composed mainly of dead cells packed with a. melanin b. collagen c. carotene d. keratin - Answer-d. keratin Which term refers to an increase in the number of cells? a. hyperplasia b. hypertrophy c. atrophy d. anaplasia - Answer-a. hyperplasia Which epidermal layer is found in thick skin only? a. stratum basale b. stratum spinosum c. stratum lucidum d. stratum corneum - Answer-c. stratum lucidum Which clotting disorder is an inherited X-linked disorder? a. thrombosis b. thrombocytopenia c. hemophilia d. embolism - Answer-c. hemophilia Which of the following are called the "power plants" of the cell? a. ribosomes b. mitochondria c. Golgi apparatus d. lysosomes - Answer-b. mitochondria The main function of the muscular system is: a. determine the form and contour of the body d. form body weight c. movement of all kinds d. regulation of organ volume - Answer-c. movement of all kinds

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The blood type considered the universal recipient is type a. A b. B c. O d. AB - Answer-d. AB The components of the integumentary system: a. hair b. nails c. skin d. glands e. All of the above - Answer-e. All of the above Which of the following pairs is incorrect according to functional classification of the joints? a. cartilaginous joints - small synovial cavity b. synarthrosis - immovable joints c. amphiarthroses - slightly movable joints d. diarthrosis - freely movable joints - Answer-a. cartilaginous joints - small synovial cavity Which of the following is not a function of the integument? a. acts as a physical barrier b. stores calcium in the dermis c. regulates temperature through dermal blood vessels d. participates in immune defense - Answer-b. stores calcium in the dermis In which of these areas of the body is thick skin found? a. back of the hands b. abdomen c. heel of the foot d. bridge of the nose - Answer-c. heel of the foot The strength of each muscle depends on

  1. length of the muscle
  2. cross-sectional area of the muscle
  3. size of the muscle fibers a. 1, 2 and 3

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Which of the following would be included in the mediastinum? 1.) thymus 2.) larynx 3.) diaphragm 4.) lungs a. 1 only b. 1 and 2 only c. 1 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 only e. 1, 2, 3, and 4 - Answer-a. 1 only What is the respiration phase for an AP abdominal radiograph done in the supine position? a. inspiration b. expiration c. suspended respiration d. slow, deep breathing - Answer-b. expiration Where is the center of the IR positioned for an AP abdominal radiograph done in the supine position? a. L b. lower rib margin c. at the umbilicus d. iliac crests - Answer-d. iliac crests Which of the following muscles must be demonstrated on a well-exposed abdomen projection? a. Latissimus dorsi b. Erector spinae c. Psoas major d. Quadratus lumborum - Answer-c. Psoas major The two most important landmarks for chest positioning are: a. top of shoulders and xiphoid process b. jugular notch and top of shoulders c. lower margin of thyroid cartilage and vertebrae prominens

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d. jugular notch and vertebra prominens. - Answer-d. jugular notch and vertebra prominens. The inner layer of the pleura that encloses the lungs is called the: a. parietal pleura b. pericardial sac c. visceral pleura d. pleural cavity. - Answer-c. visceral pleura Which of the following are prime considerations in producing an optimal radiograph of the abdomen? 1.) apply compression 2.) explain the breathing procedure to the patient 3.) do not start the exposure for 1 to 2 seconds after suspension of respiration a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3 - Answer-c. 2 and 3 Which of the following structures is considered to be most inferior? a. Epiglottis b. Hyoid bone c. Carina d. Vocal cords - Answer-c. Carina Which of the following structures is part of the lymphatic system? a. Suprarenal glands b. Inferior vena cava c. Kidneys d. Spleen - Answer-d. Spleen Situation: A PA chest radiograph reveals that the left sternoclavicular joint is closer to the spine than the right joint. What specific positioning error has been committed? a. Left tilt b. Rotation into the LAO position c. Right tilt