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Multiple Choice Questions and Answers on Human Physiology and Pharmacology, Exams of Nursing

University of AllahabadNursing

A series of multiple-choice questions and answers covering key concepts in human physiology and pharmacology. It covers topics such as the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (raas), hypersensitivity reactions, pharmacokinetics, drug metabolism, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (copd), diabetes management, rheumatoid arthritis, parkinson's disease, heart failure, hyperglycemia, immunity, electrolyte imbalances, anaphylaxis, multiple sclerosis, cardiac cycle, warfarin overdose, genetic disorders, proton pump inhibitors, myocardial infarction, water reabsorption, inr, ace inhibitors, asthma management, nephrotic syndrome, anxiety disorders, vasodilators, c. Difficile infection, insulin therapy, hypertension in diabetic patients, left-sided heart failure, diuretics, red blood cell production, renal failure, cortisol deficiency, and hospital-acquired infections. Explanations for each answer, making it a valuable resource for students studying these subjects.

Typology: Exams

2024/2025

Available from 11/15/2024

akash-kumar-meher
akash-kumar-meher 🇮🇳

6 documents

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1. What is the primary role of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS)?
a) Regulate blood sugar levels
b) Maintain water and electrolyte balance
c) Control blood pressure
d) Stimulate red blood cell production
Answer: c) Control blood pressure
Explanation: The RAAS is critical in regulating blood pressure by adjusting blood volume and systemic vascular resistance.
2. Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is associated with asthma?
a) Type I
b) Type II
c) Type III
d) Type IV
Answer: a) Type I
Explanation: Asthma is primarily a Type I hypersensitivity reaction mediated by IgE antibodies.
3. In pharmacokinetics, which phase involves the drug’s movement into the bloodstream?
a) Absorption
b) Distribution
c) Metabolism
d) Excretion
Answer: a) Absorption
Explanation: Absorption is the process of a drug entering the bloodstream from its site of administration.
4. Which enzyme is primarily responsible for drug metabolism in the liver?
a) Amylase
b) Cytochrome P450
c) Lactase
d) Protease
Answer: b) Cytochrome P450
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Download Multiple Choice Questions and Answers on Human Physiology and Pharmacology and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!

  1. What is the primary role of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS)? a) Regulate blood sugar levels b) Maintain water and electrolyte balance c) Control blood pressure d) Stimulate red blood cell production Answer: c) Control blood pressure Explanation: The RAAS is critical in regulating blood pressure by adjusting blood volume and systemic vascular resistance.
  2. Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is associated with asthma? a) Type I b) Type II c) Type III d) Type IV Answer: a) Type I Explanation: Asthma is primarily a Type I hypersensitivity reaction mediated by IgE antibodies.
  3. In pharmacokinetics, which phase involves the drug’s movement into the bloodstream? a) Absorption b) Distribution c) Metabolism d) Excretion Answer: a) Absorption Explanation: Absorption is the process of a drug entering the bloodstream from its site of administration.
  4. Which enzyme is primarily responsible for drug metabolism in the liver? a) Amylase b) Cytochrome P c) Lactase d) Protease Answer: b) Cytochrome P

Explanation: The cytochrome P450 enzyme family plays a major role in the metabolism of many drugs.

  1. What is the hallmark characteristic of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)? a) Reversible airway obstruction b) Progressive airway obstruction c) Rapid onset of symptoms d) Alveolar hypertrophy Answer: b) Progressive airway obstruction Explanation: COPD is characterized by irreversible, progressive airway obstruction, often due to smoking.
  2. Which medication class is most commonly used for managing Type 2 diabetes? a) Beta-blockers b) Sulfonylureas c) Proton pump inhibitors d) Statins Answer: b) Sulfonylureas Explanation: Sulfonylureas stimulate insulin secretion and are often prescribed for Type 2 diabetes.
  3. What pathological process underlies rheumatoid arthritis? a) Autoimmune attack on synovial membranes b) Cartilage degeneration due to wear and tear c) Uric acid deposition in joints d) Infectious agents in joint spaces Answer: a) Autoimmune attack on synovial membranes Explanation: Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune condition that causes inflammation of the synovial joints.
  4. Which neurotransmitter imbalance is associated with Parkinson’s disease? a) Decreased dopamine b) Increased serotonin
  1. Which electrolyte imbalance is associated with Chvostek's and Trousseau's signs? a) Hyperkalemia b) Hypocalcemia c) Hypernatremia d) Hypomagnesemia Answer: b) Hypocalcemia Explanation: Both signs indicate neuromuscular irritability, often caused by low calcium levels.
  2. What is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis? a) Diphenhydramine b) Epinephrine c) Albuterol d) Corticosteroids Answer: b) Epinephrine Explanation: Epinephrine is life-saving in anaphylaxis as it rapidly reverses airway constriction and hypotension.
  3. Which condition is characterized by demyelination in the central nervous system? a) Multiple sclerosis b) Guillain-Barré syndrome c) Myasthenia gravis d) Parkinson’s disease Answer: a) Multiple sclerosis Explanation: MS is an autoimmune condition causing CNS demyelination and neurological dysfunction.
  4. Which phase of the cardiac cycle is directly affected by beta-blockers? a) Depolarization b) Repolarization c) Diastole d) Systole

Answer: c) Diastole Explanation: Beta-blockers extend diastole, allowing the heart to fill more effectively and reduce oxygen demand.

  1. What is the antidote for warfarin overdose? a) Vitamin K b) Protamine sulfate c) Activated charcoal d) Naloxone Answer: a) Vitamin K Explanation: Vitamin K reverses the anticoagulant effects of warfarin by promoting clotting factor synthesis.
  2. Which genetic disorder is characterized by the accumulation of phenylalanine? a) Cystic fibrosis b) Tay-Sachs disease c) Phenylketonuria (PKU) d) Huntington’s disease Answer: c) Phenylketonuria (PKU) Explanation: PKU is caused by a deficiency in phenylalanine hydroxylase, leading to toxic levels of phenylalanine.
  3. What mechanism explains the action of proton pump inhibitors (PPIs)? a) Blocking histamine H2 receptors b) Inhibiting gastric proton pumps c) Neutralizing stomach acid d) Enhancing mucus production Answer: b) Inhibiting gastric proton pumps Explanation: PPIs irreversibly block H+/K+ ATPase in the stomach lining, reducing acid production.
  4. Which cardiac enzyme is most specific for diagnosing myocardial infarction? a) Lactate dehydrogenase

Answer: b) Persistent cough Explanation: ACE inhibitors increase bradykinin levels, which can lead to a dry, persistent cough.

  1. In asthma management, which medication is used as a rescue inhaler? a) Salmeterol b) Fluticasone c) Albuterol d) Montelukast Answer: c) Albuterol Explanation: Albuterol is a short-acting beta-agonist used for rapid relief of asthma symptoms.
  2. What is the characteristic finding in nephrotic syndrome? a) Hematuria b) Proteinuria c) Hyperkalemia d) Hypotension Answer: b) Proteinuria Explanation: Nephrotic syndrome is marked by excessive protein loss in the urine due to glomerular damage.
  3. Which neurotransmitter is primarily associated with anxiety disorders? a) Dopamine b) Glutamate c) GABA d) Acetylcholine Answer: c) GABA Explanation: Reduced GABA activity leads to increased neuronal excitability and anxiety symptoms.
  4. What is the primary effect of vasodilators like nitroglycerin? a) Increased cardiac output

b) Decreased afterload c) Increased preload d) Reduced heart rate Answer: b) Decreased afterload Explanation: Vasodilators lower systemic vascular resistance, reducing the workload on the heart.

  1. Which antibiotic is most commonly associated with the risk of C. difficile infection? a) Amoxicillin b) Clindamycin c) Vancomycin d) Ceftriaxone Answer: b) Clindamycin Explanation: Clindamycin disrupts gut flora, increasing susceptibility to C. difficile infection.
  2. What is the main goal of insulin therapy in diabetes management? a) Prevent hyperglycemia b) Increase glycogen stores c) Reduce glucagon production d) Promote lipid breakdown Answer: a) Prevent hyperglycemia Explanation: Insulin lowers blood glucose levels, preventing complications associated with hyperglycemia.
  3. What is the first-line treatment for hypertension in diabetic patients? a) Calcium channel blockers b) ACE inhibitors c) Beta-blockers d) Thiazide diuretics Answer: b) ACE inhibitors Explanation: ACE inhibitors protect against diabetic nephropathy and control hypertension effectively.

d) Hypocalcemia Answer: c) Hyperkalemia Explanation: Renal failure reduces the kidneys’ ability to excrete potassium, leading to hyperkalemia.

  1. Which condition is characterized by a deficiency in cortisol production? a) Addison’s disease b) Cushing’s syndrome c) Grave’s disease d) Hashimoto’s thyroiditis Answer: a) Addison’s disease Explanation: Addison’s disease results from adrenal insufficiency, leading to reduced cortisol and aldosterone.
  2. What is the most effective method of preventing hospital-acquired infections? a) Antibiotic prophylaxis b) Use of personal protective equipment (PPE) c) Hand hygiene d) Sterile surgical techniques Answer: c) Hand hygiene Explanation: Proper hand hygiene reduces the spread of pathogens and is key in preventing infections.
  3. Which of the following is an example of a primary prevention strategy? a) Chemotherapy b) Physical therapy c) Vaccination d) Pain management Answer: c) Vaccination Explanation: Primary prevention strategies, like vaccination, aim to prevent the occurrence of disease.
  4. Which phase of wound healing involves collagen formation and tissue remodeling?

a) Hemostasis b) Inflammatory phase c) Proliferative phase d) Maturation phase Answer: d) Maturation phase Explanation: The maturation phase involves remodeling of tissue and collagen deposition to strengthen the wound.

  1. Which medication is primarily used in the treatment of opioid overdose? a) Morphine b) Naltrexone c) Naloxone d) Methadone Answer: c) Naloxone Explanation: Naloxone rapidly reverses opioid effects by blocking opioid receptors in the brain.
  2. In Type 1 diabetes, which cells in the pancreas are destroyed? a) Alpha cells b) Beta cells c) Delta cells d) Acinar cells Answer: b) Beta cells Explanation: Beta cells produce insulin, and their destruction results in insulin deficiency in Type 1 diabetes.
  3. Which type of anemia is commonly associated with vitamin B12 deficiency? a) Sickle cell anemia b) Iron deficiency anemia c) Pernicious anemia d) Aplastic anemia Answer: c) Pernicious anemia Explanation: Pernicious anemia occurs when vitamin B12 absorption is impaired due to lack of intrinsic factor.

b) Inflammatory diseases c) Hypertension d) Hyperlipidemia Answer: b) Inflammatory diseases Explanation: ESR rises in response to inflammation, making it a useful marker for inflammatory diseases.

  1. What is the primary action of calcium channel blockers? a) Reducing blood volume b) Dilating blood vessels c) Increasing cardiac contractility d) Raising blood pressure Answer: b) Dilating blood vessels Explanation: Calcium channel blockers prevent calcium entry, relaxing blood vessel walls and reducing blood pressure.
  2. Which organ is primarily affected in cirrhosis? a) Pancreas b) Liver c) Kidneys d) Lungs Answer: b) Liver Explanation: Cirrhosis causes scarring of liver tissue, impairing its function over time.
  3. Which lab value is most indicative of renal function? a) Bilirubin b) Blood glucose c) Creatinine d) Hemoglobin Answer: c) Creatinine Explanation: Creatinine levels correlate with kidney function and are monitored in patients with renal concerns.
  1. What type of shock is caused by fluid loss from the bloodstream? a) Cardiogenic shock b) Hypovolemic shock c) Neurogenic shock d) Septic shock Answer: b) Hypovolemic shock Explanation: Hypovolemic shock occurs when blood volume decreases, impairing circulation to organs.
  2. Which mineral is essential for thyroid hormone synthesis? a) Iron b) Magnesium c) Calcium d) Iodine Answer: d) Iodine Explanation: Iodine is crucial for synthesizing thyroid hormones like T3 and T4.
  3. Which medication is commonly prescribed for hyperlipidemia management? a) Aspirin b) Lisinopril c) Atorvastatin d) Metformin Answer: c) Atorvastatin Explanation: Statins like atorvastatin reduce cholesterol synthesis, aiding in hyperlipidemia management.