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NASM CES Final Exam ALL VERSIONS 2025 | LATEST AND ACCURATE REAL EXAM QUESTIONS, Exams of Physical Activity and Sport Sciences

1. What is perception in the context of neuromuscular function? A. Reaction to new stimuli B. Reflexive muscular contraction C. Integration of sensory info with past experiences or memories D. Spinal reflex loop Correct Answer: C Rationale: Perception involves interpreting sensory information using previous experiences and memories. 2. What is sensorimotor integration? A. The creation of sensory organs B. The process of motor neuron activation only C. Utilization of sensory information to develop efficient motor patterns D. Passive movement coordination Correct Answer: C Rationale: Sensorimotor integration supports neural encoding of motor patterns based on sensory feedback. 3. What does feedback provide the CNS with? A. Thoughts and emotions B. Data from receptors for body position and environment C. Voluntary muscle contraction D. Motor neuron inhibition Correct Answer: B Rationale: Sensory receptors send data about body position, temperature, and othe

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NASM CES Final Exam ALL VERSIONS 2025 |
LATEST AND ACCURATE REAL EXAM
QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED ANSWERS |
VERIFIED FOR GUARANTEED PASS | LATEST
UPDATE
1. What is perception in the context of neuromuscular function?
A. Reaction to new stimuli
B. Reflexive muscular contraction
C. Integration of sensory info with past experiences or memories
D. Spinal reflex loop
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Perception involves interpreting sensory information using previous experiences and
memories.
2. What is sensorimotor integration?
A. The creation of sensory organs
B. The process of motor neuron activation only
C. Utilization of sensory information to develop efficient motor patterns
D. Passive movement coordination
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Sensorimotor integration supports neural encoding of motor patterns based on
sensory feedback.
3. What does feedback provide the CNS with?
A. Thoughts and emotions
B. Data from receptors for body position and environment
C. Voluntary muscle contraction
D. Motor neuron inhibition
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Sensory receptors send data about body position, temperature, and other
environmental factors.
4. Supination involves which type of muscular action?
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Download NASM CES Final Exam ALL VERSIONS 2025 | LATEST AND ACCURATE REAL EXAM QUESTIONS and more Exams Physical Activity and Sport Sciences in PDF only on Docsity!

NASM CES Final Exam ALL VERSIONS 2025 |

LATEST AND ACCURATE REAL EXAM

QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED ANSWERS |

VERIFIED FOR GUARANTEED PASS | LATEST

UPDATE

1. What is perception in the context of neuromuscular function? A. Reaction to new stimuli B. Reflexive muscular contraction C. Integration of sensory info with past experiences or memories D. Spinal reflex loop Correct Answer: C Rationale: Perception involves interpreting sensory information using previous experiences and memories. 2. What is sensorimotor integration? A. The creation of sensory organs B. The process of motor neuron activation only C. Utilization of sensory information to develop efficient motor patterns D. Passive movement coordination Correct Answer: C Rationale: Sensorimotor integration supports neural encoding of motor patterns based on sensory feedback. 3. What does feedback provide the CNS with? A. Thoughts and emotions B. Data from receptors for body position and environment C. Voluntary muscle contraction D. Motor neuron inhibition Correct Answer: B Rationale: Sensory receptors send data about body position, temperature, and other environmental factors. 4. Supination involves which type of muscular action?

A. Isometric B. Eccentric C. Multi-planar concentric joint motion D. Inhibitory feedback Correct Answer: C Rationale: Supination involves synchronized joint movement through concentric muscle action.

5. Pronation involves which muscle contraction type? A. Isometric B. Concentric C. Eccentric D. Static Correct Answer: C Rationale: Pronation is typically controlled eccentrically by muscles to absorb impact and maintain balance. 6. What characterizes isometric contraction? A. Muscle shortens B. Muscle lengthens C. Contractive force equals resistive force D. No tension Correct Answer: C Rationale: Isometric contractions produce force without changing muscle length. 7. What happens during concentric contraction? A. Muscle maintains length B. Contractile force exceeds resistance C. Muscle elongates under tension D. No force is produced Correct Answer: B Rationale: Concentric contraction occurs when muscle force overcomes resistance. 8. The lateral sub-system includes which of the following? A. Gluteus maximus and hamstrings B. TFL, gluteus medius, adductors C. Obliques and pectorals D. Soleus and peroneals Correct Answer: B Rationale: The lateral sub-system helps in stabilizing the frontal plane and involves those muscles.

Correct Answer: C Rationale: Sensation refers to the afferent signals interpreted by the CNS.

14. What is the role of the central nervous system in movement? A. Enhancing blood flow B. Inhibiting coordination C. Optimizing muscle synergies D. Controlling hormones Correct Answer: C Rationale: The CNS organizes coordinated muscle activity for efficient motion. 15. What is dorsiflexion? A. Extension of the wrist B. Rotation of the shoulder C. Flexion at the ankle D. Hip extension Correct Answer: C Rationale: Dorsiflexion refers to lifting the foot upward at the ankle joint. 16. What is the concentric action of the anterior tibialis? A. Accelerate hip extension B. Accelerate ankle dorsiflexion and eversion C. Decelerate shoulder abduction D. Stabilize the lumbar spine Correct Answer: B Rationale: Anterior tibialis controls ankle dorsiflexion and eversion during motion. 17. The posterior fibers of the gluteus medius decelerate which movement? A. Hip adduction and internal rotation B. Knee flexion C. Shoulder flexion D. Ankle plantarflexion Correct Answer: A Rationale: The posterior fibers help stabilize the pelvis and control internal rotation. 18. What is the concentric action of the latissimus dorsi? A. Shoulder flexion and abduction B. Shoulder extension, adduction, internal rotation C. Knee extension D. Spinal flexion

Correct Answer: B Rationale: It pulls the shoulder back and down during pulling motions.

19. The short head of the biceps femoris concentrically accelerates? A. Hip flexion B. Knee flexion C. Ankle inversion D. Shoulder extension Correct Answer: B Rationale: The short head acts directly on the knee to flex it. 20. What is the concentric action of the TFL? A. Hip extension B. Hip flexion, adduction, and internal rotation C. Shoulder adduction D. Knee extension Correct Answer: B Rationale: The TFL aids in dynamic hip stability and movement. 21. What is the eccentric action of the pectoralis major? A. Accelerates shoulder flexion B. Decelerates shoulder extension, horizontal abduction, and external rotation C. Stabilizes the cervical spine D. Elevates the scapula Correct Answer: B Rationale: During eccentric motion, the pectoralis major slows down these shoulder movements. 22. A runner with recurring plantar fasciitis, shin splints, and patellar tendonitis likely has: A. Upper crossed syndrome B. Pronation distortion syndrome C. Anterior pelvic tilt D. IT band syndrome Correct Answer: B Rationale: Pronation distortion involves misalignment leading to overuse injuries of the lower extremities. 23. Approximately how many ACL injuries occur in the U.S. annually? A. 10,000–20, B. 40,000–60, C. 80,000–100,

A. Plantarflexion B. Supination C. Dorsiflexion D. Inversion Correct Answer: C Rationale: Dorsiflexion refers to moving the foot upward toward the shin.

29. For a foot and ankle impairment, which muscle should receive self-myofascial release (SMR)? A. Anterior tibialis B. Rectus femoris C. Biceps femoris D. Gluteus medius Correct Answer: C Rationale: SMR on the biceps femoris can relieve tightness that contributes to improper lower- limb alignment. 30. If knees move inward, what muscle should be statically stretched? A. Gluteus maximus B. Hamstrings C. TFL D. Soleus Correct Answer: C Rationale: The TFL contributes to internal rotation and adduction, promoting inward knee movement. 31. If a client shows asymmetric shift, what muscle on the same side should be stretched? A. Rectus abdominis B. TFL C. Gluteus maximus D. Vastus lateralis Correct Answer: B Rationale: Tightness in the TFL on the shifting side can cause imbalance and asymmetry. 32. If low back arches during a squat, which muscle should receive SMR? A. Biceps femoris B. Rectus femoris C. Latissimus dorsi D. Obliques

Correct Answer: C Rationale: Overactive lats can pull the lumbar spine into hyperextension.

33. Overactive muscles in lower extremity movement impairment syndrome include: A. Tibialis anterior and gluteals B. Peroneals, soleus, IT band, hamstrings C. Erector spinae and lats D. Diaphragm and obliques Correct Answer: B Rationale: These muscles often compensate for underactive stabilizers, leading to faulty movement patterns. 34. Excessive forward lean in a squat indicates overactivity in: A. Gluteus medius B. Rectus abdominis C. Soleus D. Hamstrings Correct Answer: C Rationale: Tightness in the soleus restricts ankle dorsiflexion, causing the body to lean forward. 35. A low back arch during a squat can be caused by overactive: A. Hamstrings B. Hip flexors C. Gluteus medius D. Obliques Correct Answer: B Rationale: Tight hip flexors pull the pelvis anteriorly, creating lumbar hyperextension. 36. Hips shifted off the midline are indicative of: A. Adductor inhibition B. Load-bearing habits to one side C. Tight external obliques D. Neural degeneration Correct Answer: B Rationale: Habitual uneven loading can shift hips away from the midline. 37. How many postural distortion patterns did Janda identify? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4

A. Rectus femoris B. Gastrocnemius and soleus C. TFL and hamstrings D. Adductors Correct Answer: B Rationale: Releasing tension in these muscles restores proper knee tracking and movement.

43. IT-Band tendonitis is also called: A. Shin splints B. Runners knee C. Patellar tendonitis D. Achilles tendinitis Correct Answer: B Rationale: IT band friction syndrome is commonly known as runner’s knee. 44. Knee injuries can reduce neural control to muscles that stabilize: A. The femoral nerve B. Patellofemoral and tibiofemoral joints C. The glenohumeral joint D. Lumbar spine Correct Answer: B Rationale: Joint trauma can alter the nervous system’s control over stabilizing muscles. 45. What percent of adults experience low back pain? A. 40% B. 50% C. 80% D. 95% Correct Answer: C Rationale: Low back pain is one of the most common musculoskeletal complaints, affecting 80% of adults. 46. Muscles that assist prime movers during movement are called: A. Agonists B. Stabilizers C. Synergists D. Antagonists Correct Answer: C Rationale: Synergists support and refine the action of the primary movers.

47. The most prevalent shoulder injury is: A. Labrum tear B. Shoulder dislocation C. Shoulder impingement D. Rotator cuff rupture Correct Answer: C Rationale: Impingement is the most common issue, especially in repetitive overhead movements. 48. When shoulder pain is reported, the most common diagnosis is: A. Frozen shoulder B. Shoulder impingement C. Rotator cuff tear D. Tendon rupture Correct Answer: B Rationale: Impingement is the most frequent cause of non-traumatic shoulder pain. 49. Swimmers often overuse which muscle relative to scapular retractors? A. Upper trapezius B. Latissimus dorsi C. Pectoralis D. Rhomboids Correct Answer: C Rationale: Pecs become tight and overactive from repetitive forward movement in swimming. 50. Anterior pelvic tilt is a key feature of which distortion pattern? A. Upper crossed syndrome B. Pronation distortion C. Lower crossed syndrome D. Forward head posture Correct Answer: C Rationale: Lower crossed syndrome involves tight hip flexors and lumbar extensors. 51. The tibiofemoral joint consists of the femur and the: A. Fibula B. Talus C. Tibia D. Patella Correct Answer: C

What is the general effect of beta blockers on heart rate and blood pressure? - ANSWER decreases heart rate and decreases blood pressure what is the process by which a tight muscle diminishes neural drive and inhibits recruitment of its functional antagonist? - ANSWER Altered reciprocal inhibition what is the process whereby a synergist compensates for a prime mover to maintain force production? - ANSWER synergistic dominance what motions occur at the knee during lower extremity supination? - ANSWER extension, abduction, external rotation which joint is comprised of the patella and femur? - ANSWER patellafemoral joint which levers are the most common in the body and have pull between the fulcrum and resistance? - ANSWER third class levers which muscle is commonly tight in an individual with lower crossed syndrome? - ANSWER rectus femoris which muscle is repeatedly placed in a shortened position during sitting - ANSWER illiopsoas which is a muscle that is prone to lengthening? - ANSWER infraspinatus which is an example of a predominantly transverse plane movement? - ANSWER radioulnar supination which of the following is an example of predominantly frontal plane movement? - ANSWER side shuffling

Which of the following muscles would become synergistically dominant when the gluteus maximus lacks the ability for neural recruitment and force production to properly perform hip extension during functional movements? - ANSWER hamstrings which plane of motion bisects the body into top and bottom halves, and consists of primarily rotational movements? - ANSWER transverse plane which plane of motion consists of primarily flexion and extension movements? - ANSWER sagittal plane which of the following bones comprise the subtalar joint? - ANSWER talus-calcaneus working with arms overhead for long periods of time (such as painting) may lead to shoulder soreness that could be the result of tightness in the latissimus dorsi and pectoralis and weakness in the? - ANSWER rotator cuff Muscles involved in the Anterior Oblique subsystem (AOS) - ANSWER Internal Oblique and adductor complex, external oblique and hip external rotators Function of anterior oblique subsystem - ANSWER provides transverse plane stabilization and force transmission * necessary for functional activities involving the trunk and extremities *Provides rotation of the pelvis *provides dynamic stabilization of lumbo-pelvic-hip complex Muscles involved in the lateral subsystem (LS) - ANSWER Gluteus medius, tensor fascia latae, adducor complex and quadratus lumborum Function of lateral subsystem (LS) - ANSWER frontal plan stability and pelvo-femoral stability, Dysfunction in the Lateral subsystem (LS) is evident by - ANSWER increased pronation of the knee, hip, or feet during walking, squats, lunges or climbing chairs

The muscles that make up global movement system - ANSWER gastrocnemius, hamstrings, quadriceps, gluteus maximus, latissimus dorsi and pectoralis major The local muscular system or local stabilization system consists of muscles that are primarily involved in - ANSWER joint support or stabilization The local muscular system or local stabilization system joint support muscles are not - ANSWER movement specific The local muscular system or local stabilization system joint support muscles provide - ANSWER stability to allow joint movement Overhead squat anterior view, feet turn out probable overactive muscles - ANSWER soleus, lat. gastrocnemius, biceps femoris, tensor fascia late Overhead squat anterior view, feet turn out probable under active muscles - ANSWER med gastrocnemius, med hamstring, gluteus medius/maximus, gracilis, sartorius, popliteus Overhead squat anterior view, feet move inward probable overactive muscles - ANSWER adductor complex, biceps femoris, TFL, lat gastrocnemius, vastus lateralis Overhead squat anterior view, feet move inward probable underactive muscles - ANSWER med hamstring, med gastrocnemius, gluteus medius/maximus, vastas medialis Overhead squat anterior view, feet move outward probable overactive muscles - ANSWER piriformis, bicep femoris, TFL, gluteus medius/maximus Overhead squat anterior view, feet move outward probable under active muscles - ANSWER medial gastrocnemius, medial hamstring complex, gracilis & sartorius (wrap on the inside of the thigh/knee from pubis to tibia), popliteus

overhead squat assessment lateral view, LPHC, excessive forward lean probable overactive muscles - ANSWER soleus, gastrocnemius, hip flexor complex, abdominal complex overhead squat assessment lateral view, LPHC, excessive forward lean probable under active muscles - ANSWER anterior tibialis, gluteus maximus, erector spinae overhead squat assessment lateral view, LPHC, low back arches probable overactive muscles - ANSWER hip flexor complex, erector spinae, latissimus dorsi overhead squat assessment lateral view, LPHC, low back arches probable under active muscles - ANSWER gluteus maximus, erector spinae, latissimus dorsi, psoas, intrinsic core, stabilzers overhead squat assessment lateral view, LPHC, arms fall forward probable overactive muscles - ANSWER latissimus dorsi, pectoralis major/minor, teres major, corcobrachialis overhead squat assessment lateral view, upper body, arms fall forward probable under active muscles - ANSWER mid/lower trapezius, rhomboids, rotator cuff, posterior deltoid overhead squat assessment posterior view, feet flatten probable over active muscles - ANSWER peroneal complex (peroneus tertius, peroneus brevis, peroneus longus) biceps femoris, TFL, lat gastrocnemius overhead squat assessment posterior view, feet flatten probable under active muscles - ANSWER posterior tibialis, anterior tibialis, med gastrocnemius, gluteus medius, med hamstring overhead squat assessment posterior view, heels rise probable under active muscles - ANSWER anterior tibialis over head squat assessment posterior view, asymmetrical weight shift probable under active muscles - ANSWER gluteus medius (on one side) adductor complex (opposite side of shift) over head squat assessment posterior view, asymmetrical weight shift probable over active muscles -

one form of sensory afferent iformation that uses mechanoreptors from cutaneous muscle, tendon, and joint receptors to provide information about static and dynamic positions, movements, and sensations related to muscle force and movement - ANSWER proprioception the cumulative neural input from sensory afferents to the central nervous system - ANSWER Lephart definition of proprioception common static malalignments - ANSWER poor posture, joint hypomobility, myofascial adhesions. one of the most common cause of pain - ANSWER joint dysfunction (hypomobility) compensations for the anterior view of the single leg squat, feet flatten probable over active muscles - ANSWER soleus, lat gastrocnemius, bicpes femoris, TFL compensations for the anterior view of the single leg squat, feet flatten probable under active muscles - ANSWER med gastrocnemius, med hamstring, gluteus medius, gluteus maximus, gracilis, sartorius, popliteus compensations for the anterior view of the single leg squat,knees move inward probable under active muscles - ANSWER med hamstring, med goastrocenemius, gluteus medius, gluteus maximus compensations for the anterior view of the single leg squat,knees move inward probable over active muscles - ANSWER piriformis, bicep femoris, TFL, gluteus minimus, gluteus medius compensations for the anterior view of the single leg squat, LPHC hip hike probable over active muscles - ANSWER quadratus lumborum (opposite side), TFL, gluteus minimus (same side) compensations for the anterior view of the single leg squat, LPHC hip hike probable under active muscles - ANSWER adductor complex (same side), gluteus medius (same side)

compensations for the anterior view of the single leg squat, LPHC hip drop probable under active muscles - ANSWER gluteus medius (same side) quadratus lumbrum (opposite side) compensations for the anterior view of the single leg squat,upper body inward trunk rotation probable over active muscles - ANSWER internal oblique (same side) external oblique opposite side, TFL same side, adductor complex(same side) compensations for the anterior view of the single leg squat,upper body inward trunk rotation probable under active muscles - ANSWER internal oblique opposite side, external oblique same side, gluteus medius gluteus maximus compensations for the anterior view of the single leg squat,upper body outward trunk rotation probable under active muscles - ANSWER internal oblique same side, external oblique opposite side, adductor complex same side, gluteus medius, gluteus maximus compensations for the anterior view of the single leg squat,upper body outward trunk rotation probable over active muscles - ANSWER inernal oblique opposite side, external oblique same side, piriformis same side used to alleviate the side effects of active or latent trigger points - ANSWER self-myofascial release used to influence the autonomic nervous system - ANSWER self-myofascial release believed to stimulate the golgi receptors through sustained pressure at a specific intensity, amount, and duration to produce produces an inhibitory response to the muscle spindle and decrease gamma loop - ANSWER self-myofascial release ischemic compression - ANSWER pressure from an object can reduce trigger-point and sensitivity in individuals - ANSWER ischemic compression