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National Psychology Exam (NPE) -
Australia Latest Exam Version 2025-
2026| Questions and Answers | Graded
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What are the practice standards for working with Indigenous Australians? Develop an understanding of Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander history, and particularly, the impact of colonisation on present day grief, loss, and trauma, communicate in a culturally sensitive and respectful way, being aware of government mistrust as a result of past history, use culturally sensitive language and preferred terminology, implement culturally specific practices, work in collaboration with Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander cultural advisers, seek to understand local cultural protocols, kinship and structures of Aboriginal and Tress What is General Principle A in the Code of ethics? Respect for the rights and dignity of people and peoples What are the ethical Standards in Principle A? Justice, Respect, Informed Consent, Privacy & Confidentiality What is Justice? Don't discriminate against people based on diversity, understand the consequence of discrimination and stereotype What is respect? Communicate respectfully, do not be coercive or demeaning, respect the rights of others, and don't engage in conduct that demeans or harasses. What is Informed Consent? Clients should be fully informed about the nature and purpose of the procedures of the psychologist, including risks, data collection and storage, confidentiality etc. What is privacy? Do not collect irrelevant information and do not require supervisees to disclose their personal information, unless this is a normal expectation of a training procedure What is confidentiality?
Make provisions to ensure confidentiality in the collection, recording, access, storage, dissemination and disposal of information What is General Principle B? Propriety (providing services with competence, that do no harm and that protect client welfare) What are the ethical standards in Principle B? Competence, record-keeping, professional responsibility, interpreters, suspension of service, managing conflicting demands What is Competence? Maintaining appropriate skills in your area of professional practice What are the rules about record-keeping? Keep records for at least 7 years after client contact unless organisational requirements specify otherwise, if the individual was under 18, keep them until they are at least 25 What are a psychologist's professional responsibilities? The act with skill and care, to take responsibility for the risks of their conduct, to provide services only when it is necessary, to ensure their services are used appropriately, to maintain boundaries What are the rules about interpreters? Make sure the interpreters are competent, not in a multiple relationship with the client, will maintain confidentiality and that the client has given consent What are the rules about suspension of service? Make arrangements for professionals to be available to meet the emergency needs of the client, or professionals to consult What are the rules about termination of service? Terminate service if the client is not benefiting from the service, make arrangements for continuity of service, if incompetent, explain the need for termination, make steps to safeguard welfare, and offer help to the client to locate alternative assistance How do you manage conflicting demands between an organisation and the principles? Clarify the nature of the conflict, inform all parties of the responsibilities of psychologists, seek a constructive resolution of the conflict that upholds the code and consult a colleague What is general principle C? Integrity (ensuring the best interest of the client, profession and colleagues) What are the ethical standards in principle C? Reputable behaviour, communication, conflicts of interest, non-exploitation, managing finances
What is elder abuse? Physical, emotional, or sexual harm inflicted upon older adults, financial exploitation or neglect of their welfare Do Australian practitioners have a legal duty to protect by warning others who their patient threatened? No, but they are permitted to disclose confidential information in such cases What are the guidelines for reporting practitioners who place the public at risk due to impairment? To notify, the practitioner is unfit to correctly diagnose or treat because of impairment Who needs professional indemnity insurance? All practicing psychologists in Australia What is run-off cover and how long should it last? Cover for incidents that occurred when a practitioner was in a workplace, even if they are no longer there. It should last 7 years What is retroactive cover? Insurance cover for all past incidents What is the minimum amount for professional indemnity insurance? $2 Million What are the CPD requirements? 20 hrs of CPD with at least 10 hours of peer consultation What are your requirements if you are registered for part of the year? 2.5 hours of CPD with 50 minutes of peer consultation and 100 minutes of general CPD for ever month of registration What are the CPD requirements with endorsements 16 hrs in CPD area for one endorsement, 15 for 2, 30 for 3 split equally What is active CPD? Activities that engage the participant and reinforce learning through written or oral activities (optional) What should be in a CPD learning plan? Consider important aspects of practice, required competencies, what is needed to further develop understanding and performance, career goals and developments and research in psychology What should be in a CPD portfolio?
The learning plan, CPD log, peer consultation log, professional development journal with reflections and evidence of CPD What can count as evidence for CPD? Certificates of attendance/completion, receipts, reading list, evidence of compliance by professional association, degree certificates/academic transcripts, university assignments, plans and progess reports from supervision For how long must you keep CPD records? 5 years in case of audit What are the rules about social media? Only post information that complies with confidentiality and privacy obligations, not making unsubstantiated claims What are the rules about supervised practice when practitioners haven't practiced recently? If 5-10 years, 500-1000 hours usually, but can be as low as 250, and no more that 2000 If more than 10 but less than 15, usually 1000-2000 but no less than 800 and no more than 2800 If more than 15 years, usually 1500-2500 but no more than 2800 and no less than 1200 When is there a legal obligation to report on child abuse? Physical abuse: non-accidental injury to a young person Neglect: not meeting a child's needs of supervision, shelter, medical care, hygiene, clothing, mental health care, schooling, or nutrition, sexual abuse (victim or perpetrator), Psychological harm: a child is a danger to themself or others due to parent behaviour, underage marriage, suicide, Carer concern: the young person is significantly affected by carer conerns like substance abuse, mental heath or DV, and concern for unborn child's welfare What are the guidelines on reporting on vulnerable peopl In the absence of a statutory requirement, if psychologists notice indicators of abuse or neglect, they consider the welfare of the client as paramount and take appropriate action What are the guidelines on reporting criminal offences? When receiving information from a client about a crime, the psychologist should consider: the client's best interests, whether there is a specified risk of harm to an identifiable person, and the ongoing therapeutic relationship How does psychodynamic psychotherapy work? The therapist uncovers intepersonal conflicts. The therapist also aims to interpret subconscious motivations for the client's behaviours, thoughts, and feelings. These motivators are indicated by cues such as avoidance, re-occurrence of themes, and evasive behaviours. What is the purpose of psycho-dynamic psychotherapy?
What are solution-focused interventions Therapies that focus on building solutions by developing the client's abilities to cope and problem-solve. What are the steps involved in problem-solving? defining the problem, setting goals, brainstorming solutions, evaluating possible solutions, selecting solutions and identifying steps to attempt the chosen solution and evaluating the outcome What is pharmacodynamics? The psychotropic agents that alter the activities of receptors, enzymes, ion channels, and chemical transporter systems What is pharmacokinetics? The process by which drugs move through the body. This process involves absorption, distribution, metabolism, and elimination. What is a half-life? It is the time for 1/2 a substance from the system What is the therapeutic index? Ratio of a drug's toxic level to the level that provides therapeutic benefits What is potentiation? When one drug enhances the effects of another What is synergism? the effect of two drugs together is greater than the effect of either alone What is Acetylcholine? A neurotransmitter thought to be involved in learning, memory and attention. What is norepinephrine? related to wakefulness and alertness What is dopamine Related to behavioural regulation, movement, learning, mood and attention What is serotonin? Affects mood, hunger, sleep, appetite and arousal What is GABA? a major inhibitory neurotransmitter What drugs are used to treat cluster A personality disorders?
low doses of atypical anti-psychotic medication e.g. risperidone, olanzapine, questiapine (Risperadal, Zyprexa, Seroquel) What are cluster B personality disorders treated with? Duloxitine and SSRIs, also Neurontin and Revia What are cluster C personality disorders treated with? SSRIs and Benzos (like clonazepam (Klonopin and buspirone (Buspar) What drugs are used to treat bipolar? Sedation and mood stabilising drugs like Lithium (though this may have effects on cognition and risk death if toxic levels are reached), valproate (Epilim), caramazepine (Tegretol), antipsychotics like seroquel What drugs are used to treat dementia? donepinal (Aricept) is aimed to slow cognitive decline What kinds of drugs are used to treat depression? Tricyclics, SSRIS, SNRIs, Agomelatine (Valdoxan) to increase melatonin What drugs are used to treat OCD? Antidepressants - clomipramine (Anafranil) more effective than newer drugs, dosages usually higher than in depression What drugs are used to treat schizophrenia? Antipsychotics including Olanzapine (Zyprexa) Risperidone (Risperdal), quetiapine (Seroquel), clozapine (Clozaril) of the other treatments fail, also, sometimes mood-stabilisers are added, clopixol fortnightly for aggression What drug is used for persistent tiredness? Modafanil (also used for narcolepsy) What does Naltrexone (ReVia) do? It blocks the subjective effects of opioids. When it is administered with the opioid buprenorphone (Suboxone), it blocks physical dependence to opioids What is acamprosate (Campral) used for? It stabilises chemical signals that are otherwise disrupted in alcohol dependence. What does marijuana do? They have characteristics of both depressants and hallucinogens. High doses can cause delirium, confusion, loss of coordination and hallucinations. The most common aversive reaction is anxiety. The main effects are euphoria, disinhibition and increased appetite.
Similarities, Vocabulary, Information, Block Design, Matrix Reasoning, Visual Puzzles, Digit Span, Arithmetic, Symbol Search and Coding What are the indices in the WISC V? Verbal Comprehension, Visual Spatial, Fluid Reasoning, Working Memory, Processing Speed and FSIQ What are the qualitative ranges in the WISC V? Extremely Low (<69), very low (70-79), Low-Average (80-89), Average (90-109), High Average (110-119), Very High (120-129), and Extremely High (>130) What is the PAI? A multi-scale self-report test of personality for adults. It is designed to provide information for clinical diagnosis, treatment planning, and screening for psychopathology. What does the inconsistency scale measure? The consistency of answers throughout the inventory What does the infrequency scale measure? Careless or random responding What do the negative and positive impression scales measure? exaggerated negative symptoms and the presentation of favourable impressions respectively What does the somatic complaints scale measure? Health complaints associated with somatisation What does the anxiety scale measure? Symptoms and signs of anxiety What does the Anxiety-Related Disorders scale measure? Symptoms of specific anxiety disorders What does the Depression scale measure Symptoms of depressive disorders What does the MAN scale measure? Mania and hypomania What does the PAR scale measure? paranoid and personality disorders What does the SCZ scale measure? Symptoms of a schizophrenic episode
What does the BOR scale measure? Features of borderline personality (impulsivity, unstable relationships, affective instability and lability) What does the ANT scale measure Illegal acts, authority problems, a lack of empathy and excitement-seeking What do the DRG and ALC scales measure The problematic consequences of alcohol and drug use and some features of dependence What are the scales which measure factors that might interfere with treatment? Aggression (AGG) (anger and hostility), Suicidal Ideation (SUI), Recent Stressors (STR), Nonsupport (NON) (perceived social support), and Treatment Rejection (RXR) (motivation for change), Treatment process index (amenability for therapy) What risk indices can be obtained from the PAI A suicide Potential Index, and a Violence Potential Index What does the DOM scale measure? Agressiveness/passivity What does the WRM scale measure? An individual's interest in supportive and empathic interpersonal relationships What do the PAI validity scales measure? The respondent's approach to the test What do the PAI clinical scales measure? Psychiatric diagnostic categories What do the treatment consideration scales in the PAI measure? Factors that relate to the treatment of clinical disorders that are not captured by diagnosis alone What do the Interpersonal Scales in the PAI measure? The dimensions of personality functioning What do the critical item lists measure Delusions, hallucinations, violence and the potential for self-harm Is the DASS a clinical scale? No. While severity ranges are given, the DASS is not diagnostic, and does not replace a clinical interview What is a common purpose of the DASS?
What scores indicate severe stress on the DASS? 26 - 33 What scores indicate extremely severe depression on the DASS? 28+ What scores indicate extremely severe anxiety on the DASS? 20+ What scores indicate extremely severe stress on the DASS? 34+ What is the k10? A ten-item measure of psychological distress What scores indicate moderate disorder on the k10? 25 - 29 What scores indicate severe disorder on the k10? 30 - 50 What is the SDQ? A brief screening questionnaire assessing emotional and behavioural problems in children and adolescents What is the purpose of the SDQ? To identify people who should be referred for further assessments and to evaluate treatment outcomes What scales does the SDQ measure? Conduct problems, hyperactivity, emotional problems, peer-problems and pro-social behaviour What does the impact supplement assess Whether respondents think that a young person has a problem in regard to chonicity, distress, social impairment, and burden to others What additions do the follow-up SDQ make They ask about whether the intervention has reduced problems, and whether it has helped in other ways What versions of the SDQ are there? Teacher and parent version for 4-17 years, parent and teacher version for 2-4 years, and a self-report version for young people aged 11- 17
For what ages is the WPPSI-IV appropriate? children aged 2 years, 6 months to 7 years, 7 months How long does it take to administer the WPPSI Depends on age group - 24 minutes for 2-year-olds and 32 minutes for 5-year-olds. What indicates an extremely low score on the WPPSI? < 69 What indicates a very superior score on the WPPSI?
130 What are the indices in the Stanford Binet? Fluid Reasoning, Knowledge, Quantitative Reasoning, Visual-Spatial Processing, and Working Memory (both nonverbal and verbal subtests in each) What indicates giftedness on the Stanford Binet? A score > 130 What indicates mild impairment or intellectual disability on the Stanford Binet? A score of < 69 What ages can be tested with teh Kaufman Adolescent and Adult Intelligence Test (KAIT) Individuals aged between 11 and 85+ What kinds of intelligence does the Kaufman Adolescent and Adult Intelligence Test measure? Fluid and Crystallised What are the crystallised subtests? Auditory comprehension, definitions and double meanings What components are in the fluid intelligence indices? Logical steps, Mystery codes, and Rebus learning What does the extended KAIT battery include? Two subtests of delayed memory (Rebus delayed recall and Auditory delayed recall) and two alternate subtests (memory for famous faces and block design) What is the Wechsler Abbreviated Scale of Intelligence (WASI) A brief measure of general cognitive ability, suitable for individuals aged 6-91. What is the purpose of the WASI?
The parent form (ages 0-5), the teacher form (2-5), the parent from (5-21), the teacher form (5-21) and the adult form (16-89). The adult form can be complete by the referred individual if they have adequate reading comprehension or by a family member. What domains are measured with the ABAS? Communication (speech, lanugage, listening), Functional Academics (reading, writing, and academic skills), self-direction (skills needed for independence e.g. following directions, making choices), leisure, social skills, community use (e.g. shopping skills, getting around in the community), home/school living (e.g. cleaning, cooking), health and safety (skills needed to protect health and prevent injury), self-care (eating, bathing, grooming), motor (0-5 years) gross motor skills, work (adults) What does the Wechsler Memory Scale measure? Auditory memory, visual memory, visual working memory (16-69), immediate memory, and delayed memory, and a brief MSE and cognitive screener What does the Wide Range assessment of Memory and learning measure? Memory in a range of contexts including individuals with brain injury, dementia, and learning and developmental disabilities What ages can used the WRAML? Individuals aged 5- 90 What are the subtests of the WRAML? Verbal memory, visual memory, and attention-concentration. Also optional tests of working memory, delayed recall and recognition memory. A screening memory index can also be used to establish whether to do the assessment What is the Self-directed search? A widely used self-assessment for people over the age of 15 to identify their career interests and match them to suitable occupations. Careers are classified into realistic, investigative, artistic, social enterprising and conventional. How is the self-directed search administered and scored? Can be self-administered and self-scored online or in paper. What is the Strong Interest inventory? Assesses client's interests for range of occupations, work, leisure activities, and educational subjects ( yrs and over). Scales include general occupational themes (based on SDS themes), basic interest scale (e.g. art science), occupational scales (occupations in the US), and 5 personality scales including working style, learning environment, leadership style, risk taking and team orientation). What is the 16PF test?
A personality test which measures warmth, reasoning, emotional stability, dominance, liveliness, rule- consciousness, social boldness, sensitivity, vigilance, abstractness, privateness, apprehension, openness to change, self-reliance, perfectionism and tension. The scale also measures impression management. The five global personality factors are extroversion, anxiety, tough-mindedness, independence and and self-control How is the 16 PF administered Individually or in groups, online or on paper. It takes 25-35 minutes What ages can use the NEO? Individuals aged 12 and over How is the NEO administered? Individually or in groups, online or in paper What is the Patient Health Questionnaire? A 9-item screener and diagnostic tool for depression, anxiety, alcohol, somatoform and eating disorders. The mood module measures depression, the general anxiety disorder scale measyres common anxiety symptoms. The items were sourced from teh DSM IV What can the patient health questionnaire be used for To monitor treatment progress What does a score between 0-4 on the PHQ indicate? minimal depressive symptoms What does a score between 5-9 on the PHQ 9 indicate? mild depressive symptoms What does a score between 10-14 on the PHQ indicate? moderate depressive symptoms What does a score between 15-19 on the PHQ indicate? moderately severe depression What does a score of greater than 20 on the PHQ indicate? severe major depression When can someone be diagnosed with depression if using the PHQ-9? If 5 of the 9 symptoms are present at least more than half of the time, and one of these symptoms must be item 1 (loss of interest/pleasure) or item 2 (feeling down/depressed) What is the Beck depression inventory?
Continually monitor the client for signs of increased risk, and take reasonable steps to mitigate the risk, accurately record threats made. Consider previous history, present thinking, protective and risk factors. Consider method, frequency, intensity, and duration of the thoughts, and intent What is adjustment disorder? A behavioural or emotional reaction in response to an identifiable situation/event. The Situation must haveoccured within 3 months of the onset of the symptoms. The distress felt must be out of proportion the the event and/or impair the individual's functioning. Six specifiers are present: With depressed mood, anxious mood, mixed anxiety and depression, disturbance in conduct or mixed disturbed emotions. What is antisocial personality disorder? A pervasive pattern of disregard for and violation of the rights of others since age 15. This pattern can be indicated with criminal activity, lying/manipulation, impulsivity, fighting/assaults, disregard of the safety of self or others, irresponsibility and lack of remorse. Behaviour prior to age 15 should indicate conduct disorder. What is ADHD? A pattern of inattention or hyperactivity-impulsivity for at least 6 months. With at least 6 (5 in individuals over 17) Inattention symptoms: making careless mistakes, difficulty sustaining attention, not listening, being easily distracted, and being forgetful in daily activities. Hyperactivity symptoms: fidgeting, leaving the seat, restlessness or inappropriate running around, inability to play quietly or engage in leisure quietly, difficulty being still for extended periods, excessive talking, blurting out answers, difficulty taking turns, and interrupting others. What is Autism? Social deficit in communication (no social-emotional reciprocity, deficits in nonverbal communication e.g. eye-contact and body language, deficits in developing, maintaining and understanding relationships e.g. adjusting behaviours in certain contexts, making friends or engaging in imaginative play), Restrictive repetitive patterns of behaviour interest or activities (stereotyped movements or speech like echolalia, insistence on sameness and inflexible adherence to routine, hypo/hypersensitivity to sensations) What is Bipolar 1? At least 1 manic episode (persistently elevated/expansive/ irritable mood and increased activity for at least 1 week and three of the following (four if irritable mood): Grandiosity, decreased need for sleep, pressured speech, flight of ideas, distractability, increased goal-oriented behaviour and excessive involvement in risky behaviour). A hypo-manic episode might also occur (manic episode symptoms, but not severe enough to cause marked impairment in functioning or necessitate hospitalisation). A depressive episode may also occur What is Bipolar II? A person has met criteria for a hypomanic and a depressive episode What is borderline personality disorder?
Instability of interpersonal relationships, self-image, and affect, and marked impulsivity as indicated at least 5 of the following: frantic efforts to avoid abandonment, unstable interpersonal relationships altering between idealisation and devaluation, unstable self-image, impulsivity in at least 2 areas, recurrent suicidal behaviours or threats or self-harm, affective instability and reactive mood, chronic feelings of emptiness, inappropriate intense anger or difficulty controlling anger and transient, stress- related paranoid ideation or severe dissociative symptoms What is conduct disorder? A pattern of behaviour where the basic rights of others or age-appropriate societal normals or rules are violated with at least 3 of the following in the past 12 months from any category, with one of the symptoms present in the past 6 months: Aggression to peoples and animals, Destruction of property, Deceitfulness or theft, Serious Violation of Rules What is dementia? Another name for major neurocognitive disorder. A cognitive decline in one or more domains: attention, executive function, learning and memory, language, perceptual-motor, or social cognition. This decline should be demonstrated by concern from the individual and clinician and by objective assessments that show declines in performance usually 2 SDs below the norm. What is pica? consumption of non-food substances What is rumination disorder? Repeated regurgitation of food for at least 1 month, which does not occur exclusively in the context of another eating disorder. What is Avoidant/restrictive food intake disorder> Disturbed eating behaviour evidenced by one or more of the following: Not meeting appropriate nutritional needs associated with significant weight loss, not meeting expected weight gain, nutritional deficiency or dependence on enteral feeding or nutritional supplements which is not explained by cultural practice, another eating disorder or distortion in the experience of body weight or shape and not attributed to a mental or medical condition What is Anorexia? Restriction of food resulting in low body weight, Intense fear of gaining weight or persistent behaviour that interferes with weight gain, and disturbance in the way in which one's body weight or shape is experienced or of the seriousnes of low body weight (Specify if binge/purge or restrictive type) What is bulimia? Recurrent episodes of binge eating characterised by: Eating an abnormal amount of food in a discrete period of time and feeling out of control, compensating for a binge with behaviours to avoid weight gain, binges and purging occures at least once a week for 3 months, and self-evaluation is unduly focused on body shape or weight, doesn't occur in the presence of anorexia
