Download NATOPS Closed Book Test | 100% Correct Answers | Verified | Latest 2024 Version and more Exams Military Strategy and Training in PDF only on Docsity!
NATOPS Closed Book Test | 100% Correct
Answers | Verified | Latest 2024 Version
NATOPS publications provide the best available operating instructions for ______. However, no manual can cover everything situation or be a substitute for _____; operational situations may require modification of the procedures contained therein. Read these products thoroughly. As an aircrew member, it is your responsibility to have a ____ knowledge of their contents. - ✔✔Most circumstances, sound judgement, complete Which is not a defined change recommendation for NATOPS changes? - ✔✔Immediate Revised text is indicated by a _____ in the outside margin of the page. - ✔✔Black vertical line Explanatory information about an operating procedure, practice, or condition, etc., that may result in damage to equipment if not carefully observed or followed. - ✔✔Caution Explanatory information about an operating procedure, practice or condition, etc., that may result in injury, or death, or loss of aircraft if not carefully observed or followed. - ✔✔Warning Explanatory information about an operating procedure, practice, or condition, etc., that must be emphasized. - ✔✔Note __________ means extended flight is not recommended. The landing sight and duration of flight are at the discretion of the pilot in command. - ✔✔LAND AS SOON AS PRACTICABLE The MH-60R primary mission include _______ - ✔✔SUW, ASW, EW, CC, NCO Secondary missions include ______, Air warfare (AW; e.g LSF) Health services (HS e.g. MEDIVAC), Fleet support - Operations (FS-O e.g. SAR) _____, Logistics (LOG; e.g. VERTREP) Combat Search and Rescue (CSAR) - ✔✔Amphibious Warfare (AMW; e.g. Naval Surface Fire Support), Intelligence Operations (INT; e.g. ISR) ______ significantly reduces the field of view and the success rate of obtaining visual contact with a survivor when performing SAR lookout duties from the SO window. Due to the visual restrictions,
dedicated SAR missions should consider removal of the _____ to enhance probability of detection / sighting of survivor - ✔✔Left hand extended pylon Use of the sonobuoy launcher window is _____ - ✔✔Prohibited The center rear seat shall be removed if ____ - ✔✔RAST probe is installed The Simula seat ______ be removed during flights not requiring its use. When installed the Simula seat creates an egress hazard for the Aircrewman. - ✔✔Should The primary passenger seat is the ____ seat position during single passenger flights. - ✔✔Instructor The center rear seat ____ be removed if RAST probe is installed. The RAST probe prevents proper stroking of the seat in the event of a crash. - ✔✔Shall All essential engine electrical functions are powered by the ____. The engine ____ contains separate windings providing AC power to the igniter assembly, DECU, and Ng signal to the vertical instruments. - ✔✔Alternator The ____ attenuates the magnitude and reduces the duration of the peak vibratory loads produced by the main rotor at the main rotor blade passage vibration frequency. - ✔✔AVCS - Active vibration control system In flight or on deck, the instantaneous nature of the AVCS commanded vibrations can sometimes cause a vibration spike or a "_____" that is felt throughout the aircraft. It can range in intensity from barely noticeable to extremely uncomfortable and excessive. - ✔✔Bump Water-contaminated fuel may cause fluctuations/surges in one or both engines with no associated ____ or ____ caution. - ✔✔FUEL PRESS / FUEL FLTR BYPASS A pressure refueling port is provided for standard ___-PSI pressure refueling on the ground without electrical power. - ✔✔ 55
The ____ ____ must be extended before the _____ _____ can be reeled out, and the ____ ____must be seated in order to retract the ____ ____. - ✔✔MAIN PROBE / messenger cable / messenger cable / MAIN PROBE The RADALT digital display indicates altitude up to ___ feet AGL. - ✔✔5, When HELO STB is active, helo symbol becomes fixed to _____ display while the plot moves in relation to helo. - ✔✔The current position on the Used in the ACST Analysis displays to remove the text from the displays. The ___ bezel key is used to speed up screen refreshes - ✔✔L The mini caution summary displays the ___ most recent active cautions in order of occurrence, with the most recent active cautions at the top - ✔✔ 10 The pilots can control the hoist in either direction at a fixed speed of ___ fpm. - ✔✔ 100 These limit switches of the rescue hoist are ___ when the ___ CONTROL HOIST switch is operating the hoist. - ✔✔Inoperative / BACKUP The portable fire extinguishers provide ___ to ___ seconds of continuous discharge. - ✔✔ 15 - 20 seconds Aircrewman safety belts do not provide impact protection; therefore use of the belts ____ be restricted to only those occurrences when mission accomplishment requires personnel to be out of their seats. Such belts ____ be worn when strapped into a seat. - ✔✔Shall / Shall not _____ Aircrewman safety belt anchor points (V-rings) are located in the cabin overhead. - ✔✔Five Using loose pyrotechnics, smoking, or striking matches while working on the aircraft, or using any flame- producing device within ____ feet of the helicopter, may result in injury or death and is strictly prohibited. - ✔✔ 50 During fueling operations, fire-extinguishing equipment ___ be readily available. - ✔✔Shall
T/F: Flameouts may be encountered following nose down ground operations in excess of 10 minutes when using JP-5, JP-8 or equivalent fuels and could result in loss of aircraft or personnel - ✔✔True All PQMs and Aircrewman qualified in model are authorized to preform servicing and handling of the aircraft if ____ ____ ____ are not available. - ✔✔Qualified maintenance personnel PRIST is ____. - ✔✔Authorized when premixed with fuel Failure to monitor fuel cell pressure gauge may result in fuel cell over pressurization. Internal fuel cell pressure greater than __ PSI can cause rapid fuel cell expansion, resulting in aircraft damage and fuel spill. - ✔✔ 2 During pressure refueling, if there is a flow fuel when ore check valve is in PRE-CHECK position, it indicates a ____ system malfunction. - ✔✔Shutoff When holding PRE-CHECK VALVES during pressure refueling, fuel flow to main tanks should stop or be significantly reduced within how many seconds? - ✔✔ 5 - 10 T/F: Gravity fueling is authorized with APU operating. - ✔✔FALSE T/F: If RAST operations are to be conducted, no servicing shall be performed on external tank/AUX tank configured aircraft, which will lower the vertical clearance to less than 12 inches between the bottom of the AUX. - ✔✔TRUE Failure to return the manual selector valve handle to the ___ position prior to pressurizing the utility hydronic system ____ result in damage to the servicing reservoir. - ✔✔Vertical / Will Deviating from a prescribed tiedown configuration is ___, as deviations may lead to oversight of tiedown removal, which may result in an attempt to launch with tiedowns attached. - ✔✔Not authorized If a limit is exceeded to the extent that a red "XXX" is indicated, the crew shall ____. - ✔✔Land as soon as practicable.
- Both cockpit mission displays or 2/3 if aircrewman is onboard WCA shall be functional
- Both EGIs.
- One ADC
- Slip/skid indicators on FD
- Standby magnetic compass
- Primary MC and backup computer
- RADALT
- Digital clock
- Pitot heat
- Windshield wipers
- All backup flight instruments
- Instrument, navigation and cockpit lighting
- Communication equipment (one radio, ICS, IFF)
- TACAN
- SAS 2, trim and autopilot
- LAWS - ✔✔True T/F The following operable equipment is required for night flight over water: LAWS, RADALT / BARALT hold - ✔✔True T/F Flight into forecasted or known moderate or severe icing conditions is not recommended. - ✔✔False, Prohibited Except in ____, helicopter emergency egress lighting system (ADHEELS and IHEELS) shall be operational for all overwater flights requiring passengers/non-aircrew in the cabin. - ✔✔Emergency situations T/F Gunner belts do not provide impact protection; therefore, use of those belts shall be restricted to only those occurrences when mission accomplishment requires persons to be out of their seats. - ✔✔True WARNING: Night shipboard external cargo operations present serious hazards to personnel and equipment and shall not be conducted by except ____. - ✔✔For reasons of operational necessity
T/F: Day VMC flights from air-capable ships shall include a minimum of two H2P's and one helicopter aircrewman, or one HAC, one qualified observer, and one helicopter aircrewman. - ✔✔TRUE T/F: Night or IMC flights from air-capable ships shall include a minimum of one HAC, one PQM, and one helicopter aircrewman. - ✔✔True Mission planning ___ be conducted in accordance with OPNAV 3710.7 (series) publications. - ✔✔Shall Each flight shall be throughly debriefed as soon as practical upon return by the ___/Flight lead. - ✔✔Pilot in command While conducting preflight: In each location, inspect for corrosion, FOD, condition, and ____. - ✔✔Security On preflight the sonobuoy launcher safety valve shall be in the ___ position. - ✔✔SAFE Care must be taken when opening the nose avionics compartment to prevent ____. - ✔✔Water intrusion damage Articles or equipment ____ be stowed under seats or what no seat wells. - ✔✔Shall not In winds over ___ knots or nearby jet blast / rotor wash, the hydraulics bay cover can be blown off when in transit or in the open position and may cause loss of the bay cover and/or cause personal injury. - ✔✔ 10 Daggered steps ____ be accomplished on subsequent flights the same day. - ✔✔Need not T/F: For ADTS equipped aircraft, utility mode with no DTU 1 advisory may be indicative of an invalid MSN DTD load or failure to properly mount. - ✔✔True Helicopter ____ not be flown if the stabilator fails any check involving manual operation, position indications, or warnings. - ✔✔Shall
T/F Blanking of the outboard FLIR laser is provided by the installed MWS/FLIR equipment, when enabled by the operator. - ✔✔True During a torpedo hover launch, establish ____KGS sideward drift towards side of the aircraft with the torpedo to be launched. Failure to ensure dome is folded may result in loss of ____. - ✔✔6 / Staves Exceeding 8 KGS with array folded or 4 KGS with array unfolded may cause ____. - ✔✔Dome cable separation The field of Fire checks should be preformed with the rotors ___. - ✔✔Engaged Night / IMC decent over water procedures ___ be used for all descents overwater at 1000' AGL or below, Descents _____ be commenced and conducted in a wings-level attitude. - ✔✔Shall / Should T/F Personnel should remain outside the rotor arc during engagement/disengagement. - ✔✔False, Shall The parking break _____ be set for all shipboard takeoffs/landings - ✔✔Should On launching from an aviation ship/amphibious assault aviation ship, the helicopter ____ be rolled forward slightly to make sure chocks/tiedowns are removed. - ✔✔May Regardless of deck status, ship maneuvers (to include speed changes) shall be restricted anytime an aircraft is on deck to avoid conditions that will expose the aircraft to direct contact with the sea or waves over the deck. If there is doubt in the ability to avoid such conditions, the rotor system shall be disengaged as soon as possible. Contact between an engaged rotor system and the sea can result in catastrophic rotor damage. - ✔✔True The Wiggins/NI HIFR assembly ___ be installed backwards. The aircrewman must ensure the emergency release T-handle is located near the Wiggins fitting that attaches to the aircraft fitting. Opposite connection is possible and will force the helicopter to shear the hoist to effect an emergency breakaway.
- ✔✔Can Physical contact between a submarine and the AQS-22 dipping sonar can result in loss of the sonar dome. Consider conducting a ___ to clear the area prior to commanding the dome to increased depths. - ✔✔Shallow dip (90 ft.)
After initially engaging CABLE ANGLE HVR, the AFCS takes the first ___ seconds to calculate lateral and longitudinal velocity biases to account for environmental factors such as current, winds, sea state, etc. - ✔✔ 25 Excessive aircraft pitch or roll attitudes (during a TA deployment) may result in ____ - ✔✔Cable miswrap, dome separation, CFIT (all of the above) T/F Dipping sonar missions require clear, concise communications between crew members. The sensor operator shall maintain continuous communications with pilots concerning dipping sonar raising and lowering. - ✔✔True Abrupt of excessive collective inputs while dome is submerged and array is unfolded may result in ___ separation. - ✔✔TA So ____ visually monitor the dome control, cable angle display, SONAR funnel, and reeling machine during all raise and lower operations. - ✔✔Shall Cable angle disconnect circuits interrupt the cable angle inputs to the AFCC for ___ seconds each time the transducer is stopped. This prevents erratic helicopter movement due to cable waves. Aircrew may expect momentary instability when transducer is stopped. The cable angle button will ___ during these periods, indicating cable angle mode is momentarily disengaged. - ✔✔9 / Flash Cable angle indicator ___ be within the ___ ring while raising transducer; otherwise, severe oscillations may occurs after the transducer breaks the water surface. - ✔✔Shall / Inner Except when executing troubleshooting emergency procedures, ____ mode shall only be used when dome is submerged. - ✔✔Auxiliary During manual lower of the dome, release lower push button approximately __ feet prior to desired depth (15-30 feet prior for slow speed) - ✔✔ 45 While raising, if done manually stopped after clearing water but before trail position, wait __ seconds before continuing to raise the dome. - ✔✔ 10
During sonar operational check, the TA will lower approximately ___ inches during mechanical Built-In Test (MBIT). Ensure a minimum of ___ inches of clearance beneath the TA to prevent damage to the TA. - ✔✔3 / 3 For AN/APS-153(V)1 equipped aircraft m, the MMR will perform an automatic self-test and an automatic initialization the first time MMR and MC initialize together following MSN PWR activation. Following initialization, ____ MMR faults may appear on the DIAG and WCA pages. Selecting CLEAR EQ STATUS will clear all ____ MMR faults. - ✔✔False For AN/APS-153(V)1 equipped aircraft m, the MMR will perform an automatic self-test and an automatic initialization the first time MMR and MC initialize together following MSN PWR activation. Following initialization, false MMR faults may appear on the DIAG and WCA pages. Selecting _____ will clear all false MMR faults. - ✔✔CLEAR EQ STATUS The MH-60R is considered to be hovering in ground effect at RADAR altimeter altitudes at or below ___ ft. - ✔✔ 45 Procedure indicated by an asterisk (*) are considered ___. These steps must be performed immediately, without reference to the checklist. - ✔✔Critical memory items. The aircraft may maintain some degree of buoyancy in the fuel cell transition section approximately ____ after water landing. - ✔✔ 2 - 5 minutes T/F: Aircrew emergency crash position is sitting erect with head firmly against the headrest, elbows tucked in tightly, cross arms, grasp opposite shoulder harness, and feet flat on deck. - ✔✔True T/F: In order to minimize the potential for serious injury, instructor seat occupant should assume crash position and lower head until their chin touches their chest prior to an emergency landing or ditching. - ✔✔True If sonobuoy launcher pressure is less than ____ PSI, the last sonobuoys in sequence may not jettison, with system securing at ___ PSI to ensure safe separation of launches sonobuoys. - ✔✔1100/ Minimum pressure to jettison a full sonobuoy launcher is ___ PSI. - ✔✔ 1100
T/F: CMDS stores can only be jettisoned by selective jettison. - ✔✔True A ___ is a failure of the weapon to fire satisfactorily or perform as designed. - ✔✔Malfunction A ___ is the unintentional interruption in the normal cycle of operations. - ✔✔Stoppage Any suspected reeling machine malfunction, caution light, or error code should be handled initially with the ___. - ✔✔Reeling machine malfunction emergency procedure. T/F: If ENABLE/DISABLE Switch is placed in DISABLE position while dome is in transit, a sudden stop will occur, possibly resulting in a miswrap. - ✔✔True ____ A procedure to be preformed as a means of recovering the dome when all reeling machine modes will not recover the dome or when the aircraft needs to depart the hover due to safety of flight. - ✔✔Free stream recovery ACST 1 Allows operators to listen to dipping sonar or sonobuoys. Can also be used for ___ with dipping sonar. - ✔✔Underwater communications T/F: A complete alignment should occur within 15 minutes. (EGIs) - ✔✔True Both EGIs are required for full ___ functionality. - ✔✔AFCS The payed out cable length is displayed in the range 0 to ____ feet with a resolution of 1 foot. - ✔✔ 2550 A _____ is defined as initialized a device by selecting the DIAG bezel key (opening the EQUIPMENT STATUS page), scrolling to highlight the specified device and selecting INIT from the pop-up menu. - ✔✔Soft init A ___ is defined as initializing a device by pulling the circuit breaker for the specific device, waiting 20 seconds, resetting the circuit breaker then performing a soft INIT. - ✔✔Hard INIT
Night HIFR operations are extremely demanding and are only permitted for ____ ____. - ✔✔Operational necessity If a U.S helicopter performs a HIFR with a NATO ship, it will be given a Parker nozzle. An adapter to covert the nozzle to a ___ type connection will be required. - ✔✔Wiggins Due to the possible adverse effects of ___ on aircraft mission systems and flight displays when operating in the vicinity of SPY-1 radars MH-60R aircraft should not close within ___ nm of CG or DDG class ships. - ✔✔EMI / 1 To avoid ___ with RMCU, dipping sonar operations should not be conducted within ____ of naval vessels.
- ✔✔EMI / 1 Sonar cable shall not be payed out in ___ ___ once the dome submerged advisory is displayed, aircraft drift may develop and damage may occur to the cable insulating jacket. - ✔✔HVR Mode Unfolding array disables ___ ___ ___. - ✔✔Bottom proximity detector During VERTREP, the ICS call for "jettison immediately". Load endangering safety of flight is _____ - ✔✔Pickle pickle pickle Define: SWEEP for conducting overland operations - ✔✔Size slope suitability Surface Winds Elevation Escape (Egress) Power ____ ____ ____ is the maximum lateral angle of slope that can be negotiated in a takeoff or landing. - ✔✔Critical rollover angle
When powering up the mission display and flight displays in temperatures of 0 degrees C or colder, the displays will illuminate within ___ SEC but up to ____ minutes may be required for full performance. - ✔✔15 seconds / 15 minutes For in-air temperatures above 5 degrees C the normal charging times required before unfolding the array or transmitting active is approximately ___ minutes after STR power-on. An in-air temperature of 5 degrees and below, up to ___ minutes may be required for successful array unfolding or active transmissions. - ✔✔10 / 45 Mode ___ is non-secure method used by ships to track aircraft and other ships (32 code combinations for APX-118; 4096 code combinations are available for the APX-123, military only) - ✔✔ 1 Mode ___ is used by aircraft to make carrier controlled approaches to ships during inclement weather. - ✔✔ 2 Mode ___ is the standard system also used by commercial aircraft to relay their position to ground controllers through the world for ATC (4096 code combinations) - ✔✔ 3 Mode ___ is secure encrypted IFF (military only) - ✔✔ 4 The ___ transponder supports Modes 1, 2, 3A/C, 4, S, 5 - ✔✔APX 123 What are the X channels used for in TACAN? - ✔✔FAA Mode ___ is a performance security upgrade to existing IFF systems (military only) - ✔✔ 5 What are the Y channels used for in TACAN? - ✔✔Tactical use Failure to secure ___ ___ ___ before disconnecting sonar TA from sonar cable may result in personnel injury or death. - ✔✔Dipping sonar power The goal of ___ ___ ___ (___) is to improve mission effectiveness, minimize crew-preventable errors, maximize crew coordination, and optimize risk management. - ✔✔Crew resource management (CRM)
The maximum time limit for the closed book examination shall not exceed ___ hours. - ✔✔Three To obtain a grade of QUALIFIED on Open Book, an evaluee must obtain a minimum score of ___ - ✔✔3. To obtain a grade of qualified on Oral, an evaluee must obtain a minimum score of ___. - ✔✔3. T/F: to obtain a grade of QUALIFIED on a closed book, an evacuee must obtain a minimum score of 3.3. On retake examinations an evaluee must obtain a minimum score of 3.5 to obtain a grade of QUALIFIED.
- ✔✔True To obtain a grade of ___ in each subarea on a NATOPS flight, an evaluee must demonstrate that standard procedures were executed in accordance with provisions of this manual and its subsets (i.e. checklists) - ✔✔Qualified Up to ___ Hellfire (AGM-114) missiles can be carried on SUW mission profiles. - ✔✔ 8 The ASE system consists of what 3 systems? - ✔✔ALQ-144C, AAR-47B(V), ALE- 47 Pop-up opens the SIM mode control menu - ✔✔Display area 1A Display Area 2: For altitudes above ___ ft. AGL, radar altitude value will be replaced with red Xs - ✔✔ 5000 The ___ ____ function allows the crew to display mission and flight data on a map view for post-mission analysts and report generation. - ✔✔Post-mission analysis The aircraft may be flown in a "___" mode without the PC Cards installed. While mission computer and radar remain available to the crew in this mode, the following are unavailable: ISAR mode of radar, ESM, dipping sonar, acoustic processing, ASE system, missile and torpedo employment. - ✔✔Utility The following specific conditions must be satisfied before entering Sim mode:
- ____
- Formatted PCMCIA cards are installed
- All stores are verified (green text) on ORD CTRL
- No torpedos are loaded
- No hellfire missiles are loaded (live or training)
- No sonobuoys in launcher or in sonobuoy inventory table
- No OTHER or UNKNOWN stores indicated - ✔✔All PIU's are functional T/F: The LRD and LTM are Class 3, non-eyesafe, non-visible lasers. - ✔✔False, class 4 To ensure the IR scene is adequately recreated, variations in the response of each pixel must be accounted for. Even when all pixels receive identical inputs, manufacturing variations may cause each pixel to have a different output. Performing a ___ can accommodate for this variability. - ✔✔Non- uniformity correction (NUC) The ELRF is a class ___, eyesafe laser. - ✔✔ 1 On the aircraft, the user can request an AMP optimized pattern and allow AMP to run for minimum time, ___ minutes, or ___ minutes to compute the pattern. - ✔✔5 / 15 If the ___ or the ASW search area is changed while AMP is computing a pattern, AMP discontinued the pattern processing and waits for a new pattern request. - ✔✔TOI ___ feet above water, the RMIU commands the ST/R into ESD protect mode. - ✔✔ 20 BOTTOM caution light will activate when the TA is within ___ feet of the bottom. - ✔✔ 50 The ___ controls the reeling machine functions, regulates smooth transitions of transducer dipping activities, and performs the reeling machine BIT. - ✔✔RMIU
