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2025 Version
What nerve(s) need to be blocked in order to dehorn cattle? - ✔✔Cornual What nerve(s) need to be blocked in order to dehorn goats? - ✔✔cornual nerve and infratrochlear nerve Several rabbits in a commercial meat operation have developed genital scabs, perineal ulcerations a crusty exudate around the nose and eyes. Microhemaglutination tests are positive for treponematosis. Which one of the following steps is most effective to treat this problem? A - Amprolium-medicated feed for whole herd, 2 weeks; Increase ventilation B - Clindamycin PO for exposed rabbits, 8 days; Cull affected animals C - Amipcillin PO for affected rabbits, 10 - 14 days D - Isolate affected animals, Lincomycin in water 2 - 3 weeks E - Penicillin IM for all rabbits, 5 - 7 days - ✔✔Penicillin IM for all rabbits, 5 - 7 days Two bucket-fed veal calves are depressed and stunted and have sticky feces coating their hindquarters. Fluid-splashing sounds are audible during auscultation over the left flank when a calf is drinking. Passage of a stomach tube obtains a rancid-smelling liquid with a pH of 5.2 [N=5.9-6.2] Which one of the following choices is the most appropriate treatment? A - Cull affected calves B - Remove fermented rumen contents, flush with saline C - Wean affected calves; Shift to bottle-feeding for well calves D - Vitamin E/Selenium injections, plus dietary supplements
E - Inoculate rumen fluid from a healthy cow into calf by stomach tube - ✔✔B - Remove fermented rumen contents, flush with saline This is the clinical picture of a ruminal drinker calf with chronic indigestion from milk deposited directly into the rumen. Treat by removing the fermented material and flushing the rumen with saline. Attempt to induce gastric/reticular groove closure during feeding by inducing vigorous sucking activity with a finger before feeding milk. If calves relapse, consider weaning. The problem occurs due to failure of the gastric groove reflex, which normally shunts milk directly into the abomasum, (bypassing the rumen). Most often seen in bucket fed calves who gulp their milk. Abortions due to brucellosis tend to occur at what stage of pregnancy? - ✔✔D - Last half of pregnancy Typically, Brucellosis causes abortion in the LAST HALF of pregnancy, for the 5th month onwards. Last trimester is also a good answer, though not entirely correct. You might remember "Bruce is always late". Expect STILLBORN calves. Cows only abort ONCE. Brucellosis is REPORTABLE. The vaccines used are the Brucella abortus strain 19 vaccine or the RB51 vaccine, given to heifer calves 4 - 12 months old, along with a USDA tattoo in the right ear. Remember: "The right ear is the RIGHT EAR". BVD and Trichomoniasis (occasionally) can cause early abortion in cows, but MOST things cause abortion late, like 3rd trimester. Listeriosis and Arcanobacterium pyogenes can cause abortion at any time during pregnancy. A cow is presented on emergency with urea/non-protein nitrogen toxicity.
Sudden death may resemble enterotoxemia, should see acute bloody diarrhea, convulsions, opisthotonos in first days of life with enterotoxemia. Which pair of neonatal calf diarrheas both have public health/zoonotic significance? A - Colibacillosis, Ostertagiasis B - Colibacillosis, Rotavirus C - Cryptosporidiosis, Salmonella D - Salmonella, Coccidiosis E - Clostridium perfringens, Coronavirus - ✔✔C - Cryptosporidiosis, Salmonella Cryptosporidiosis is caused by a protozoa implicated in drinking water-associated outbreaks of diarrhea in humans; Salmonellae can infect humans from a number of different sources (turtles, chickens, eggs) E. Coli can cause human disease, but Ostertagia and bovine rotavirus do not. (There IS a human version of rotavirus, however) C. perfringens can be found in soil and in the normal gut flora and is not contagious. Swainsonine is a toxic compound present in which one of the following plants? A - Persea americana (Avocado) B - Pteridium aquilinum (Bracken fern) C - Astragalus flavus (Milk vetch) D - Prunus virginiana (Chokecherry) E - Nerium oleander (Oleander) - ✔✔C - Astragalus flavus (Milk vetch) Swainsonine is found in many species of Astragalus and Oxytropis, called locoweeds, vetches, or milk vetches.
Ingestion of swainsonine causes neurologic signs of cerebral disease, called "locoism" in livestock. Behavior changes, aggression, ataxia, depression, circling, and vision loss are some of the clinical signs seen. Recovery is possible with removal of the source, but since locoweed is palatable, animals may eat it again even when other forage is available. Cattle consuming locoweed at high altitudes can develop congestive heart failure, called "High mountain disease". Pulmonary hypertension causes excessive strain on the heart muscle. Nerium oleander (Oleander) contains cardiac gylcosides. Pteridium aquilinum (Bracken fern) contains glycosides and thiaminase. Persea americana (Avocado) contains persin. Prunus virginiana (Chokecherry) contains cyanide. An 8 - year old Quarterhorse brood mare presents with an acute onset of colic. On presentation she has a heart rate of 58, respiratory rate of 28, and is seen rolling on the ground. CRT is approximately 3. seconds and mucous membranes are slightly red. She has rectal temperature is 101.6F. Gastrointestinal sounds are completely absent and gastric reflux yielded 15L of brown- to yellow- colored fluid. Peritoneal fluid analysis yielded a cloudy yellow fluid with a protein of 2.8 gm/dl and white blood cell count of 11,354/ul. Which of the following is not a likely diagnosis? Epiploic foramen entrapment Mesenteric rent Small intestinal volvulus Strangulating lipoma - ✔✔Strangulating lipoma Explanation - The correct answer is strangulating lipoma. The clinical signs are consistent with any of the answer choices. However, a strangulating lipoma is least likely to be the case since this horse is still relatively young. Strangulating lipomas are commonly seen in older horses. What is the main lesion associated with polioencephalomalacia in cattle?
A 13 - year old male castrated domestic long hair presents for polyphagia, weight loss, and vomiting. The owner notes that the cat appears restless, more active, and more aggressive than before. Which test would diagnose the most likely cause for these signs? Liver panel Gastroduodenoscopy and biopsy Abdominal ultrasound Renal panel and urinalysis Serum T4 - ✔✔Serum T Explanation - The correct answer is serum T4. This cat is most likely hyperthyroid. Polyphagia, weight loss, and hyperactivity are classical clinical signs in a cat with hyperthyroidism. Other signs might include a dull haircoat, PU/PD, vomiting, diarrhea, and aggression. Lethargy, anorexia, and weakness are uncommon but can occur in a condition apathetic hypothyroidism. Which of the following is not a clinical sign you would see in a dog with chocolate toxicosis? Cardiac tachyarrhythmias Seizures Coagulopathy Diarrhea Hyperactivity - ✔✔Coagulopathy Explanation - The correct answer is coagulopathy. The toxic principle of chocolate is methylxanthines (specifically theobromine and caffeine). Methylxanthines can cause CNS excitation tachycardia, and vasoconstriction. Signs include vomiting, diarrhea, hyperactivity, polyuria, polydipsia, lethargy, tachycardia, cardiac arrhythmias, seizures, and death. An 8 - year old cat presents with a several month history of poor appetite and intermittent vomiting and diarrhea. A CBC shows a hematocrit of 33%, WBC count of 12,000/uL, and platelet count of 365,000/uL. Chemistry shows Na-148 mEq/L, K-4.2 mEq/L, BUN-22 mg/dL, creatinine- 1.3 mg/dL, ALT-37 IU/L, cholesterol-180 mg/dL, GGT- 1.0 IU/L, albumin- 3.2 g/dl, globulin 4.6 g/dl.
An abdominal ultrasound shows mild-to-moderate multifocal-to-diffuse thickening of the muscularis layer of the small bowel. Biopsies from a gastroduodenoscopy show moderate lymphocytic-plasmacytic infiltration and enteritis. Which of the following medications could be used to control the disease in this feline patient? Sulfadimethoxine Azathioprine Potassium Bromide (KBr) Budesonide - ✔✔Budesonide Explanation - Corticosteroids such as prednisolone and budesonide are the most common medications used for controlling inflammatory bowel disease in cats. Budesonide concentrates its effects in the gastrointestinal tract, thus has fewer systemic side effects as compared to prednisolone. Sulfasalazine and metronidazole can be used to help the condition by treating secondary bacterial overgrowth. Other treatments include an easily digestible diet and one with a novel protein source, pro- motility agents or anti-nausea agents such as metoclopramide when needed, and vitamins such as cyanocobalamin (vitamin B-12) or omega- 3 fatty acids may also be of benefit in some cases. Sulfadimethoxine is an anti-parasitic agent used in treating the coccidia parasites. Azathioprine is an immunosuppressive agent that can be used to treat unresponsive IBD in dogs only. Potassium bromide is an anti-epileptic medication. A 43 kg male castrated Rottweiler presents to your practice for surgery to repair a ruptured cranial cruciate ligament. Preoperative bloodwork and thoracic radiographs are within normal limits. What is an appropriate fluid rate of LRS to maintain this dog at while under anesthesia for the 2 hour procedure? - ✔✔ 360 ml/hr Explanation - Animals under anesthesia for surgery need 5 - 10 ml/kg/hr of an isotonic crystalloid for "maintenance". In this case, a 43 kg dog needs between 215 - 430 ml/hr to be in this range. Therefore 360 is the best answer as it corresponds to about 8.4 ml/kg per hour. You will not be allowed to use a calculator at your exam, and you should be able to evaluate these numbers without one. The easiest way to do this is to say that 10 ml/kg per hour would per 430 ml/hr for this dog and therefore, half of that (215 ml/hr) would be the lower end of this range.
Left atrial enlargement on an ECG is known as P mitrale. In this case, an increase in duration of the P wave is seen. Usually they will last at least 0.05 seconds. The reason you see these electrical changes is because of the resulting vectors that are produced by having a certain portion of the heart enlarged. What is the daily normal water consumption rate for an average 450 kg horse? - ✔✔Explanation - The correct answer is 30 liters of water. Horses consume about 50-70 ml water/kg/day, this will vary somewhat based on temperature, diet, and other factors. However, of these choices, 30 liters is the best choice. Normal urine production in the horse is about 15-30 ml/kg/day. You examine a valuable beef bull which has been in a remote pasture unobserved for several months. The owner has noted that he has a swollen lower jaw. You note the hard, relatively non-painful swelling shown in the photo and diagnose. Osteosarcoma Tooth root abscess Actinomycosis Lymphoma Actinobacillosis - ✔✔Explanation - Also known as lumpy jaw, this condition results from the entry of the normal rumen inhabitant Actinomyces bovis into the bony mandible (usual site) or maxilla through a break in the mucous membranes or teeth. It may be arrested with therapy using sodium iodide, antimicrobials or even isoniazid off-label, but the bony swelling seldom changes much, even if arrested. Which of these signs is unlikely to be seen in a cat with glaucoma? Strabismus Buphthalmos Fundic changes (hyperreflectivity, vascular attenuation) Mydriasis - ✔✔The answer is strabismus. Cats rarely show acute changes with glaucoma like dogs, so they often present with signs of chronic glaucoma which are buphthalmos, corneal fibrosis, lens luxations, mydriasis, tapetal hyperreflectivity and retinal vascular attenuation, and pale optic discs. Strabismus is not a component of glaucoma. A Columbian red boa presents to your clinic with a complaint of dull mentation, paralysis and an unusual twisted body position. Which of the following provides the best diagnosis?
Star gazing, caused by any disease or injury that damages the central nervous system Coccidiodomycosis, especially in the northwest region of the US Mouse Hepatitis Virus (MHV), common in boas which are fed infected mice and rats Ear mites carrying Salmonella spp - ✔✔Star gazing, caused by any disease or injury that damages the central nervous system Star gazing syndrome is most commonly seen in snakes and is any condition which causes a bizarre twist of the head and neck with an upward look toward the sky. In boas and pythons, an immediate concern would be the viral infection, Inclusion Body Disease, presumed to be caused by a retrovirus. A turtle presents with a history of lethargy, anorexia, and swelling of the ears. What is the treatment of choice? Corticosteroids No treatment, the condition is self-limiting Lance tympanic membranes to drain material and begin supplementation of vitamin A Euthanasia - ✔✔Lance tympanic membranes to drain material and begin supplementation of vitamin A The correct answer is to lance the tympanic membranes and begin supplementing with vitamin A. Accumulations in the ear due to squamous metaplasia and secondary infection can result from vitamin A deficiency. The best thing to do is start systemic antibiotics, drain the ears, and provide appropriate nutrition. A 6 - month old Labrador Retriever presents for failure to thrive and stranguria. Abdominal ultrasound shows a small liver and stones in the urinary bladder. Abdominal radiographs show no visible stones. How can this be explained? The dog has urate stones in its bladder.
What profile would you expect in a dog with hypervitaminosis D? Low Ca, High P Low Ca, Low P High Ca, High P High Ca, Low P - ✔✔High Ca, High P The correct answer is high Ca, high P. Vitamin D causes resorption of bone leading to increased Ca and P levels. It also increases absorption of Ca and P from the GI tract. A common source of confusion is that this is in contrast to PTH which causes high Ca but generally causes unchanged or normal phosphorus because it also enhances renal phosphorus excretion. A lethargic cat arrives with bradycardia. You decide to perform an ECG and see a lack of a P waves and a widened QRS complex. What do you suspect? Hyperkalemia Hypercalcemia Wenckebach Warfarin toxicity Mobitz Type- 1 Block - ✔✔Hyperkalemia Explanation - The correct answer is hyperkalemia. This sounds like hyperkalemia. You rock if you got it! ECG findings associated with hyperkalemia include an increased P-R interval, widened QRS complexes, lack of P waves, and tall tented T waves. A purebred Holstein breeder wishes to rid his dairy herd of Leptospira interrogans serovar Hardjo (type Hardjo-Bovis), which has been causing reproductive problems in his herd. Which steps are most likely to accomplish this goal? Treat all animals with tetracycline to eliminate carriers and regularly vaccinate all cattle against this serovar Regularly vaccinate all cattle and eliminate all dogs from the farm Regularly vaccinate all cattle and eradicate rodents, as they are the maintenance hosts of this serovar Treat all animals with dihydrostreptomycin
Vaccinate all animals in the herd regularly - ✔✔Treat all animals with tetracycline to eliminate carriers and regularly vaccinate all cattle against this serovar Explanation - Since Hardjo-Bovis is carried by cattle, he needs to both treat and vaccinate. Vaccination can prevent new carriers, but will not eliminate existing carriers. To be cost effective, he may need to mass treat dry cows and young stock using long acting tetracycline. Swine (and opossums, skunks and raccoons) are carriers of Pomona, dogs of Canicola, rats of Icterohemorrhagiae, swine, mice and horses of Bratislava, and raccoons, muskrats and squirrels of Grippotyphosa. You are examining a 3 year old Thoroughbred gelding that just completed a race and notice discharge from the nostrils (see image). What would be an appropriate treatment for this horse prior to the next race? (the discharge looks bloody) Vitamin K Whole blood transfusion Furosemide Vasopressin Plasma transfusion to replace clotting factors - ✔✔Furosemide Explanation - In this instance, the discharge is blood, with the most likely diagnosis being exercise- induced pulmonary hemorrhage (EIPH). One of the most commonly administered medications for EIPH is furosemide, which seems to decrease the incidence or lessen the severity of bleeding. The exact mechanism by which this occurs is not completely known but may be associated with reduced pulmonary capillary pressure. A 4 - year old FS indoor/outdoor cat presents for two seizure episodes over the last few days. Physical exam reveals aqueous flare in both eyes and a temperature of 103.5F. There are no other cats in the household, and the owner is feeding a raw meat diet. A comprehensive blood panel is submitted and results are as follows: FeLV/FIV/FCV negative, Heartworm antibody negative, Toxoplasma IgM 1:1024, IgG 1:512, Cryptococcus negative, neutrophils 28,000/uL, chemistries all WNL. The cat is current on vaccinations including Rabies. Which of the following medications is indicated?
The dog was probably given tetracycline antibiotics as a puppy, which causes a permanent brown discoloration of teeth. The excessive chewing has worn away the enamel of the teeth. The underlying dentin is naturally brown. Excessive chewing has predisposed the teeth to infection. The brown coloration is a sign of bacterial infection. - ✔✔The teeth are brown due to the formation of tertiary dentin, which stains easily. Explanation - The correct answer is the teeth are brown due to the formation of tertiary dentin, which stains easily. Aggressive chewing of things like rocks, tennis balls, cage bars, etc. causes abrasion of dentin. Tertiary dentin, which is produced as a response to the wearing of the teeth, stains easily. Tertiary dentin will usually prevent the exposure of the pulp cavity unless its production cannot keep up with its rapid wear. Which is not a common treatment option for dogs with hyperadrenocorticism? Pituitary surgery Ketoconazole Adrenalectomy o,p'-DDD (Lysodren or Mitotane) - ✔✔Explanation - The correct answer is pituitary surgery. Pituitary surgery is the most common mode of treatment in humans with hyperadrenocorticism, but it is rarely performed in dogs. Adrenalectomy is a dangerous surgery, but it is often performed with adrenal tumors causing adrenal dependent hyperadrenocorticism. Lysodren is essentially the insecticide DDT. It is commonly used to treat PDH and causes selective necrosis of the zona fasciculata and zona reticularis. Ketoconazole inhibits production of all steroids and is used as a medical treatment option for functional adrenal tumors. Charlie, a 4 - year old female spayed Labrador has a history of getting into the garbage. She presented with a 3 - day history of anorexia, vomiting, and lethargy. You perform radiographs and appreciate an empty stomach, significantly distended loops of bowel in the mid to cranial abdomen, and a radiopaque region consistent with a foreign body. The patient is taken to surgery and these are your findings (see below). Clearly this patient will need an intestinal resection and anastomosis. When will you be able to tell Charlie's owners that you feel confident the resection/anastomosis procedure was successful? As long as there were no complications and you are confident of your repair you can tell them immediately
After Charlie is eating and defecating At Charlie's suture removal in 10 - 14 days 5 days after surgery 7 days after Charlie's surgery - ✔✔Explanation - The correct answer is 5 days after surgery. If you remember the principles of healing, 3 - 5 days corresponds to the end of the lag phase of intestinal healing. After that point, there is typically enough collagen that has been incorporated into the healing intestine such that dehiscence will not occur. The mortality rate for patients that have intestinal dehiscence is 73 - 80%. Risk factors that have been associated with an increased chance of dehiscence include traumatic intestinal injuries, intestinal foreign bodies, peritonitis at the time of surgery, and serum albumin less than 2.5 g/dl. A 9 year old male Labrador Retriever presents for acute onset of circling to the right, head tilt to the right, nystagmus to the left, and vomiting. The rest of the physical exam is unremarkable. CBC, chemistry panel, urinalysis, and otic exam were unremarkable. After 14 days of supportive care, the dog has completely recovered on its own. What is the most likely disease this dog had? Inflamed polyp in the middle ear Bacterial meningitis Canine idiopathic vestibular disease (Old dog vestibular disease) Otitis interna - ✔✔Explanation - The correct answer is canine idiopathic vestibular disease (Old dog vestibular disease). This disease is usually diagnosed after all other vestibular causes have been ruled out. Otitis interna would be ruled out with an otic exam, CBC, and lack of pain and fever. Bacterial meningitis could be ruled out by a CBC and lack of pain and fever. Polyps in the ear rarely occur in dogs; most aural polyps occur in cats. In addition, an otic exam would rule this out anyway. Which value is not usually increased in canine hyperadrenocorticism? Serum cholesterol SAP (serum alkaline phosphatase) Blood urea nitrogen ALT (alanine amino transferase) - ✔✔Explanation - The correct answer is blood urea nitrogen (BUN). BUN is usually low in patients with hyperadrenocorticism secondary to the increased diuresis that occurs with elevated cortisol levels. ALT increases due to swelling and death of some hepatocytes. SAP increases due to a steroid induced isoenzyme of SAP from the liver. Mild cholestasis due to swelling of hepatocytes also
A 7-year old, male, castrated shepherd mix presents for polyuria and polydipsia. The physical exam reveals a body condition score of 4/9 and 5% dehydration. The urine specific gravity is 1.006. The urinalysis, chemistry panel, and CBC are otherwise unremarkable. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? Diabetes mellitus Chronic renal failure Central diabetes insipidus Fanconi syndrome - ✔✔Explanation - The correct answer is central diabetes insipidus. Diabetes mellitus is ruled out with a normal blood glucose on the chemistry panel and lack of glucose in the urine on the urinalysis. Chronic renal failure is ruled out because there is no azotemia on the chemistry panel. Fanconi syndrome usually occurs in Basenjis and is ruled out because there is no glucose in the urine. A 7-year old, male, castrated shepherd mix presents for polyuria and polydipsia. The physical exam reveals a body condition score of 4/9 and 5% dehydration. The urine specific gravity is 1.006. The urinalysis, chemistry panel, and CBC are otherwise unremarkable. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? Diabetes mellitus Chronic renal failure Central diabetes insipidus Fanconi syndrome - ✔✔Explanation - The correct answer is central diabetes insipidus. Diabetes mellitus is ruled out with a normal blood glucose on the chemistry panel and lack of glucose in the urine on the urinalysis. Chronic renal failure is ruled out because there is no azotemia on the chemistry panel. Fanconi syndrome usually occurs in Basenjis and is ruled out because there is no glucose in the urine. A 7-year old male intact Chesapeake Bay Retriever presents to your clinic with the presenting complaint of an intermittent cough. On exam, the dog is bright and alert with a temperature of 100.5F, heart rate of 110 beats per minute and respiratory rate of 30 breaths per minute. You perform chest radiographs which are shown below. A CBC shows a hematocrit of 39%, neutrophil count of 8,659/ul, monocyte count of 984/ul and eosinophil count of 1,980/ul. What is the treatment of choice for the most likely diagnosis?
Furosemide Terbutaline Immiticide Enrofloxacin Pericardiocentesis - ✔✔Explanation - The correct answer is Immiticide (melarsomine). The dog in this radiograph has the classic findings for heartworm disease, including right sided ventricular enlargement with very prominent pulmonary arteries. Heartworm in the dog is caused by Dirofilaria immitis. The treatment of choice for heartworm is Immiticide which is given by intramuscular injection. Furosemide is a treatment for congestive heart failure, which this dog shows no evidence of. Terbutaline is a bronchodilator, which would be of little use in this case. Broad-spectrum antibiotics are useful for the treatment of pneumonia and other infections but are not effective against heartworm. Pericardiocentesis is obviously the treatment for pericardial effusion, but this dog's radiographs do not show the classic globoid heart you might see with pericardial effusion. Adulticidal treatments for heartworm are melarsomine and thiacetarsamide. Which of these viruses are normally found in the upper respiratory tract of the horse? Equine viral arteritis virus Equine herpesvirus Equine influenza Equine adenovirus - ✔✔Explanation - The correct answer is equine adenovirus. Adenovirus is normal in the upper respiratory tract but can cause a lower respiratory tract infection in immunocompromised individuals, particularly foals with failure of passive transfer or combined immunodeficiency. In fact, adenovirus is the most common cause of death in foals with those two conditions, leading to an often fatal pneumonia. Which of the following is required for chinchilla health? Dust baths Vitamin C
