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T 14
NEET LIKE MOCK TEST
PART- I: PHYSICS
Section-A
- A rectangular coil of 100 turns and size 0 .1m × 0 .05m is placed perpendicular to a magnetic field of 0 .1T.
The induced e.m.f. when the field drops to 0 .05T in 0 .05s is [New NCERT/XII/158]
(1) 0 .5V (2) 1 .0V (3) 1 .5V (4) 2 .0V
- Select the wrong statement. EM waves [New NCERT/XII/206]
(1) are transverse in nature.
(2) travel in free space at a speed of light.
(3) are produced by accelerating charges.
(4) travel in all media with same speed.
- Two tuning forks 𝑃 and 𝑄 when set vibrating, give 4 beats per second. If a prong of the fork 𝑃 is filled, the
beats are reduced to 2 / 5 what is frequncy of P, if that of Q is 250Hz? [New NCERT/XI/294]
(1) 246Hz (2) 250Hz (3) 254Hz (4) 252Hz
- The ratio of intensities at two points 𝑃 and 𝑄 on a screen in young's double slit experiment when waves
from sources 𝑆
1
and 𝑆
2
have phase difference of
(a) 0
∘
and (b) 𝜋/ 2 respectively, is [New NCERT/XII/265]
- The dimensions of torque are [New NCERT/XI/156/Appendix]
(1) [MLT
− 2
]
[
ML
2
T
− 2
]
(3) [ML
2
T
− 1
]
[
M
2
L
2
T
− 2
]
- A projectile is projected with velocity of 25m/s at an angle 𝜃 with the horizontal. After 𝑡 seconds its
inclination with horizontal becomes zero. If 𝑅 represents horizontal range of the projectile, the value of 𝜃
will be : [use 𝑔 = 10m/s
2
] [New NCERT/XI/40]
1
2
sin
− 1
5 𝑡
2
4 𝑅
1
2
sin
− 1
4 𝑅
5 𝑡
2
(3) tan
− 1
4 𝑡
2
5 𝑅
(4) cot
− 1
𝑅
20 𝑡
2
- A 1kg block and a 0 .5kg block move together on a horizontal frictionless surface. Each block exerts a
force of 6N on the other. The block move with a uniform acceleration of [New NCERT/XI/65]
(1) 3 ms
− 2
(2) 6 ms
− 2
(3) 9 ms
− 2
(4) 12 ms
− 2
- Moment of inertia does not depend upon [New NCERT/XI/114]
(1) distribution of mass
(2) axis of rotation
(3) point of application of force
(4) None of these
- Four charges q 1
= 2 × 10
− 8
C, q
2
= − 2 × 10
− 8
C, q
3
= − 3 × 10
− 8
C, and q
4
= 6 × 10
− 8
C are placed at
four corners of a square of side √
2 m.
What is the potential at the centre of the square? [New NCERT/XII/52]
(1) 270V (2) 300V (3) Zero (4) 100V
- At what temperature will the resistance of a copper wire becomes three times its value at 0
∘
C?
(Temperature coefficient of resistance of copper is 4 × 10
− 3
∘
C ) [New NCERT/XII/90]
∘
C (2) 500
∘
C (3) 450
∘
C (4) 400
∘
C
- A proton and a deuterium nucleus having certain kinetic energies enter in a uniform magnetic field with
same component of velocity in the direction of magnetic field.
Which of the following is correct? [New NCERT/XII/112]
(1) Proton has greater pitch of helical motion.
(2) Deuterium nucleus has greater pitch of helical motion.
(3) Both particles have same pitch of helical motion.
(4) Which particle has greater pitch depends on the fact that which particle has greater component of
velocity perpendicular to magnetic field.
- When the temperature of a magnetic material decreases, the magnetization [New NCERT/XII/148]
(1) decreases in a diamagnetic material
(2) decreases in a paramagnetic material
(3) decreases in a ferromagnetic material
(4) remains the same in a diamagnetic material
- Which of the following graphs shows the correct variation of force when the distance 𝑟 between two
charges varies? [New NCERT/XII/7]
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
- A boat with base area 8 m
2
floating on the surface of a still river is intended to move with a constant
speed of 2m/s by the application of a horizontal force. If the river bed is 2m deep find the force needed,
(assuming a constant velocity gradient)
Coefficient of viscosity of water is 0. 90 × 10
− 2
poise. [New NCERT/XI/191]
(1) 720 dyne
(2) 620 dyne
(3) 520 dyne
(4) 360 dyne
- The root mean square velocity of hydrogen molecules at 300K is 1930metre/sec. Then the r.m.s velocity
of oxygen molecules at 1200K will be [New NCERT/XI/250]
(1) 482 .5metre/sec
(2) 965metre/sec
(3) 1930metr/sec
(4) 3860metre/sec
- A pendulum is executing simple harmonic motion and its maximum kinetic energy is 𝐾
1
. If the length of
the pendulum is doubled and it performs simple harmonic motion with the same amplitude as in the first
case, its maximum kinetic energy is K
2
. [New NCERT/XI/271]
- If 𝜇 s
k
and 𝜇
r
are coefficients of static friction,
kinetic friction and rolling friction, then [New NCERT/XI/60, 62]
s
k
f
k
r
s
r
k
s
r
k
s
- The ratio of the energies of the hydrogen atom in its first to second excited states is [New NCERT/XII/299]
- Match Column I with Column II [New NCERT/XII/309, 311, 315, 316]
Column I
(A) Hydrogen bomb
(B) Atom bomb
(C) Binding energy
(D) Radius of nucleus
Column II
(1) Fission
(2) Fusion
(3) R
0
A
1 / 3
(4) Mass defect
(1) (A) → (3); (B) → (2); (C) → (1); (D) → (4)
(2) (A) → (2); (B) → (1);(C) → (4); (D) → (3)
(3) (A) → (3); (B) → (1); (C) → (2); (D) → (4)
(4) (A) → (4); (B) → (2); (C) → (3); (D) → (1)
- The two ends of a metal rod are maintained at temperatures 100
∘
C and 110
∘
C. The rate of heat flow in
the rod is found to be 4 .0J/s. If the ends are maintained at temperatures 200
∘
C and 210
∘
C, the rate of
heat flow will be [New NCERT/XI/215]
(1) 16 .8J/s (2) 8 .0J/s (3) 4 .0J/s (4) 44 .0J/s
- One kg of a diatomic gas is at a pressure of 8 × 10
4
N/m
2
. The density of the gas is 4kg/m
3
. What is the
energy of the gas due to its thermal motion? [NewNCERT/XI/252]
(1) 5 × 10
4
J
(2) 6 × 10
4
J
(3) 7 × 10
4
J
(4) 3 × 10
4
J
- The diagram below shows the propagation of a wave. Which points are in same phase?
[New NCERT/XI/283]
(1) 𝐹 and 𝐺
(2) 𝐶 and 𝐸
(3) 𝐵 and 𝐺
(4) 𝐵 and 𝐹
- In a Wheatstone's bridge, three resistances 𝑃, 𝑄 and 𝑅 connected in the three arms and the fourth arm is
formed by two resistances 𝑆
1
and 𝑆
2
connected in parallel. The condition for the bridge to be balanced
will be [New NCERT/XII/101]
𝑃
𝑄
2 𝑅
𝑆 1
+𝑆 2
𝑃
𝑄
𝑅
( 𝑆 1
+𝑆 2
)
𝑆 1
𝑆 2
𝑃
𝑄
𝑅
( 𝑆 1
+𝑆 2
)
2 𝑆 1
𝑆 2
P
Q
R
S
1
+S
2
- A galvanometer of resistance, G is shunted by a resistance S ohm. To keep the main current in the circuit
unchanged, the resistance to be put in series with the galvanometer is [New NCERT/XII/131]
S
2
(S+G)
SG
(S+G)
G
2
(S+G)
𝐺
(𝑆+𝐺)
- Agenerator has an e.m.f. of 440 Volt and internal resistance of 4000hm. Its terminals are connected to a
load of 4000 ohm. The voltage across the load is [New NCERT/XII/171]
(1) 220 volt
(2) 440 volt
(3) 200 volt
(4) 400 volt
- Assertion : The change in kinetic energy of a particle is equal to the work done on it by the net force.
Reason : Change in kinetic energy of particle is equal to the work done only in case of a system of one
particle. [New NCERT/XI/73, 76]
In the light of the above statements-Assertion & Reason, choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below :
(1) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(4) If the Assertion is incorrect and Reason is correct.
- In an experiment when a PN junction diode is forward biased [XII/Practical Skills]
(1) only holes are attracted towards each other and move towards the depletion region
(2) electrons and holes move away from the junction depletion region
(3) width of the potential barrier decreases
(4) no change in the current takes place
Section- B
- If rain falls vertically with a velocity 𝑉
𝑟
and wind blows With a velocity v
w
from east to west, then a person
standing on the roadside should hold the umbrella in the direction [Old NCERT/XI/76]
(1) tan 𝜃 =
V
W
V r
(2) tan 𝜃 =
V r
V w
(3) tan 𝜃 =
V
rw
√ V
r
2
+V
w
2
(4) tan 𝜃 =
V
r
√Vr
2
+Vw
2
- A mass m moving horizontally (along the x-axis) with velocity 𝑣 collides and sticks to mass of 3m moving
vertically upward (along the 𝑦-axis) with velocity 2v.
The final velocity of the combination is [New NCERT/XI/85]
1
4
3
2
1
3
2
3
2
3
1
3
3
2
1
4
- A planet revolves about the sun in elliptical orbit. The areal velocity (
𝑑𝐴
𝑑𝑡
) of the planet is 4. 0 × 10
16
m
2
/s.
The least distance between planet and the sun is 2 × 10
12
m. Then the maximum speed of the planet in
km/s is [New NCERT/XI/129]
(1) A = 0 , B = 1 , C = 0
(2) A = 1 , B = 0 , C = 0
(3) A = 1 , B = 1 , C = 0
(4) A = 1 , B = 0 , C = 1
- We consider a thermodynamic system. If ΔU represents the increase in its internal energy and W the
work done by the system, which of the following statements is true? [New NCERT/XI/235]
(1) ΔU = −W in an adiabatic process
(2) Δ𝑈 = 𝑊 in an isothermal process
(3) ΔU = −W in an isothermal process
(4) ΔU = W in an adiabatic process
- Given below are two statements: In the light of the given statements, choose the correct answer from the
options given.
Statement I: In a purely inductive or capacitive circuit, the current is referred to as wattless current.
Statement II: No power is dissipated in a purely inductive or capacitive circuit even though a current is
flowing in the circuit. [New NCERT/XII/191]
(1) Both statement I and II are correct.
(2) Both statement I and II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement II is correct but statement I is incorrect.
- For a satellite moving in an orbit around the earth, the ratio of kinetic
energy to potential energy is [New NCERT/XI/138]
1
2
1
√ 2
- A ray of light is incident normally on one refracting surface of an equilateral prism. If the refractive index
of the material of the prism is 1.5 , then [New NCERT/XII/239]
(1) the emergent ray is deviated by 30
∘
(2) the emergent ray is deviated by 60
∘
(3) the emergent ray just graces the second reflecting surface
(4) the ray undergoes total internal reflection at second refracting surface
- If a soap bubble formed at the end of the tube is blown very slowly, then the graph between excess
pressure inside the bubble with time will be a [New NCERT/XI/196]
(1) straight line sloping up
(2) straight line sloping down
(3) parabolic curve sloping down
(4) parabolic curve sloping up
PART- II: CHEMISTRY
Section-A
- At 25
∘
C, the highest osmotic pressure is exhibited by 0.1 M solution of
(1) CaCl
2
(2) KCl (3) glucose (4) urea [New NCERT/XII/24]
- In O 2
−
, O
2
and O
2
2 −
molecular species, the total number of antibonding
electrons respectively are [New NCERT/XI/129-130]
- Which of the following has the maximum acidic strength? [New NCERT/XII/251]
(1) 𝑜-nitrobenzoic acid
(2) 𝑚-nitrobenzoic acid
(3) 𝑝-nitrobenzoic acid
(4) 𝑝-nitrophenol
- Given below are two statements: [New NCERT/XII/264]
Statements I : In Hoffmann degradation reaction, the migration of only an alkyl group takes place from
carbonyl carbon of the amide to the nitrogen atom.
Statement II : The group is migrated in Hoffmann degradation reaction to electron deficient atom.
In the light of the above statement, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
- How many moles of Al
2
(SO
4
3
would be in 50g of the substance? [New NCERT/XI/18]
(1) 0 .083mole
(2) 0 .952mole
(3) 0 .481mole
(4) 0 .140mole
- Full name of DDT is [New NCERT/XII/188]
(1) 1, 1, 1-trichloro-2, 2-bis(p-chlorophenyl) ethane
(2) 1,1-dichloro-2,2-diphenyl trimethylethane
(3) 1,1-dichloro-2, 2-diphenyl trichloroethane
(4) None of these
- Which of the following elements have half-filled f-orbitals in their ground state? [New NCERT/XII/110]
(Given : atomic number
Sm = 62 ; Eu = 63 ; Tb = 65 ; Gd = 64 , Pm = 61 )
A. Sm
B. Eu
C. Tb
D. Gd
E Pm
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) B and D only
(2) A and E only
(3) A and B only
(4) C and D only
- Least thermally stable is [Old NCERT/XI/324]
(1) CCl
4
(2) SiCl
4
(3) GeCl
4
(4) GeBr
4
- The strength of bonds formed by 𝑠 − 𝑠 and 𝑝 − 𝑝, 𝑠 − 𝑝 overlap in the order of [New NCERT/XI/120]
- Match Column-I with Column-II. [New NCERT/XII/121]
Column-I
(ligand)
Column-II
(Type of ligand)
(A) Triphenylphosphine (p) Unidentate
(B) BF
3
(q) Didentate
(C) Ethylenediamine (r) Not a ligand
(D) Ethylenediaminetetracetate ion (s) Hexadentate
(1) A − (p), B − (r), C − (s), D − (q)
(2) A − (p), B − (q), C − (r), D − (s)
(3) A − (p), B − (r), C − (q), D − (s)
(4) A − (p), B − (q), C − (s), D − (r)
- According to Bohr's theory the energy required for an electron in the Li
2 +
ion to be emitted from 𝑛 = 2
state is (given that the ground state ionization energy of hydrogen atom is 13 .6eV ) [New NCERT/XI/48]
- In Clemmensen reduction, carbonyl compounds is treated with [New NCERT/XII/238]
(1) zinc amalgam +HCl
(2) sodium amalgam +HCl
(3) zinc amalgan + nitric acid
(4) sodiumamalgam +HNO
3
- Which of the following compounds shows optical isomerism? [New NCERT/XII/126]
(1) [Co(CN)
6
]
3 −
[
Cr
C
2
O
4
3
]
3 −
(3) [ZnCl
4
]
2 −
[
Cu
NH
3
4
]
2 +
- A process has ΔH = 200Jmol
− 1
and ΔS = 40 JK
− 1
mol
− 1
. Out of the values given below, choose the
minimum temperature above which the process will be spontaneous: [New NCERT/XI/162]
(1) 20K (2) 12K (3) 5K (4) 4K
- Assertion : Vitamin D cannot be stored in our body NCERT/XII/296]
Reason : Vitamin D is fat soluble vitamin and can not be excreted from the body with urine. [New
(1) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(4) If the Assertion is incorrect and Reason is correct.
- Which of the following compounds is isomeric with 2,2 , 4, 4- tetramethylhexane? [New NCERT/XI/270]
(1) 3-ethyl - 2, 2-dimethylpentane
(2) 4-isopropylheptane
(3) 4-ethyl- 3 - methyl- 4 - n-propyloctane
(4) 4,4-diethyl- 3 - methylheptane
- Consider figure and mark the correct option. [New NCERT/XII/114]
(1) Activation energy of forward reaction is 𝐸
1
2
and product is less stable than reactant
(2) Activation energy of forward reaction is 𝐸
1
2
and product is more stable than reactant
(3) Activation energy of both forward and backward reaction is 𝐸
1
2
and reactant is more stable than
product
(4) Activation energy of backward reaction is 𝐸
1
and product is more stable than reactant
- The major organic product in the reaction, [New NCERT/XII/218]
CH
3
− O − CH
CH
3
2
(1) ICH
2
OCH(CH
3
2
(2) CH
3
OC
CH
3
2
(3) CH
3
I + (CH
3
2
CHOH
(4) CH
3
OH +
CH
3
2
CHI
- The five 𝑑-orbitals are designated as 𝑑
𝑥𝑦
𝑦𝑧
𝑥𝑧
𝑥
2
−𝑦
2 and 𝑑
𝑧
Choose the correct statement [New NCERT/XI/59]
(1) The shapes of the first three orbitals are similar but that of the fourth and fifth orbitals are different
(2) The shapes of all five 𝑑-orbitals are similar
(3) The shapes of the first four orbitals are similar but that of the fifth orbital is different
(4) The shapes of all five 𝑑-orbitals are different
- If 𝑁
𝑥
is the number of bonding orbitals of an atom and 𝑁
𝑦
is the number of antibonding orbitals, then the
molecule/ atom will be stable if [New NCERT/XI/129]
(1) N
x
> N
y
(2) N
x
= N
y
(3) N
x
< N
y
(4) N
x
≤ N
y
- Which of the following is paramagnetic? [New NCERT/XII/129]
[
Fe(CN)
6
]
4 −
(2) [Ni(CO)
4
]
[
Ni(CO)
4
]
2 +
(4) [CoF
6
]
3 −
- Among the following, identify the species with an atom in +6 oxidation state [New NCERT/XI/240]
(1) MnO
4
−
(2) Cr(CN)
6
3 −
(3) NiF
6
2 −
(4) CrO
2
Cl
2
- 200ml of water is added to 500ml of 0 .2M solution.
What is the molarity of this diluted solution? [New NCERT/XII/4]
(1) 0 .5010M
(2) 0 .2897M
(3) 0 .7093M
(4) 0 .1428M
- The value of electrode potential ( 10
− 4
M)H
|H
2
(1atm)|Pt at 298K would be [New NCERT/XII/38]
(1) − 0 .236V
(2) + 0 .404V
(3) + 0 .236V
(4) − 0 .476V
- The value of the ionic product of water [New NCERT/XI/193]
(1) depends on volume of water
(2) depends on temperature
(3) changes by adding acid or alkali
(4) always remains constant
- Consider the following bromides : [New NCERT/XII/174]
The correct order of S
N
1 reactivity is
(1) B > 𝐶 > 𝐴
(2) B > 𝐴 > 𝐶
(3) C > 𝐵 > 𝐴
(4) A > 𝐵 > 𝐶
Section-B
- Given below are two statements :- [New NCERT/XII/235]
Statement I : The boiling points of aldehydes and ketones are higher than hydrocarbons of comparable
molecular masses because of weak molecular association in aldehydes and ketones due to dipole - dipole
interactions. Statements II : The boiling points aldehydes and ketones are lower than the alcohols of
similar molecular masses due to the absence of H-bonding.
In the light of the statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Both statements I and statement II are incorrect.
(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.
(4) Both statement I and statement II are correct.
- Assertion : Many endothermic reactions that are not spontaneous at room temperature become
spontaneous at high temperature. [New NCERT/XI/158-159]
Reason : Entropy of the system increases with increase in temperature.
(3) Formation of anilinium ion
(4) −NO
2
substitution always takes place at metaposition
- According to collision theory, which of the following is NOT a true statement concerning a catalyst?
(1) A catalyst changes the temperature of reaction. [New NCERT/XII/117]
(2) The mechanism of a reaction will change when a catalyst is added.
(3) A catalyst provides a different activation energy for a reaction.
(4) A catalyst changes the speed of a reaction, but not the equilibrium constant.
- Compounds A and C in following reaction are [New NCERT/XII/200-201]
CH
3
CHO →
(i) CH 3
MgBr
(ii) H 2
O
(A) →
H
2
SO
4
,Δ
(B) →
Hydroboration oxidation
(C)
(1) identical
(2) positional isomers
(3) functional isomers
(4) optical isomers
- Match the columns-I with columns-II [New NCERT/XI/304]
Column-I
(A) CH
4
+ O
2
Cu/523K/100atm
(B) CH
4
+ O
2
Mo
2
O
3
Δ
(C) C
2
H
6
+ O
2
( CH
3
COO
)
2
Mn
Δ
(D)
CH
3
3
CH →
KMnO
4
oxidation
Column-II
(p) HCHO
(q)
CH
3
3
COH
(r) CH
3
OH
(s) CH
3
COOH
(1) A − (s), B − (p), C − (r), D − (s)
(2) A − (q), B − (p), C − (s), D − (r)
(3) A − (r), B − (p), C − (s), D − (q)
(4) A − (p), B − (q), C − (r), D − (s)
Electrolyte: KCl KNO
3
HCl NaOAc NaCl
∞
𝟐𝐦𝐨𝐥
− 1
)
Calculate Λ
HOAc
∞
using appropriate molar conductances of the electrolytes listed above at infinite dilution
in H
2
O at 25
∘
C [New NCERT/XII/49]
- Read the following statements and choose the correct option [New NCERT/XII/231]
(i) The carbonyl carbon atom is 𝑠𝑝
2
(ii) The carbonyl carbon is an electrophilic (Lewis acid) centre
(iii) The carbonyl oxygen is a nucleophilic (Lewis base) centre (iv) Carbonyl compounds are non- polar in
nature
(v) The carbonyl carbon atom forms three sigma (𝜎) bonds.
(1) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
(2) (i), (ii), (iii) and (v) are correct
(3) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(4) (ii) and (v) are correct
- The Lassaigne's extract is boiled with dil. HNO
3
before testing
for halogens because [Practical Chemistry]
(1) silver halides are soluble in HNO
3
(2) Na
2
S and NaCN are decomposed by HNO
3
(3) Ag
2
S is soluble in HNO
3
(4) AgCN is soluble in HNO
3
PART- III: BOTANY
Section-A
- Expressed Sequence Tags (ESTs) refers to: [New NCERT/XII/103]
(1) Genes expressed as RNA
(2) Polypeptide expression
(3) DNA polymorphism
(4) Novel DNA sequences
- Match the column I with column II & select correct option from the given codes.
Column I
A. Gregor J. Mendel
B. Sutton and Boveri
C. Henking
D. Morgan
Column II [New NCERT/XI/59,67,69]
(i) Chromosomal theory of inheritance
(ii) Laws of inheritance
(iii) Drosophila
(iv) Discovered X-body
(1) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(iii)
(2) A-(iv), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iii)
(3) A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iii)
(4) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(i)
- Assertion (A): DNA synthesis occurs in 𝐺
1
and 𝐺
2
periods of cell cycle.
Reason (R): During G
2
phase, the DNA content become double. [New NCERT/XI/121-122]
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is correct but Reason is not correct.
(3) Assertion is not correct but Reason is correct.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
- During photosynthesis when PGA is changed into phosphoglyceraldehyde, which of the following
reaction occur? New NCERT/XI/147]
(1) Oxidation
(2) Reduction
(3) Electrolysis
(4) Hydrolysis
- Pick the correct statement
(i) Cytokinin especially help in delaying senescence. New NCERT/XI/175-176]
(ii) Auxin are involved in regulating apical dominance.
(iii) Ethylene breaks seed dormancy.
(iv) Gibberellin are responsible for immature falling of leaves.
(v) Kinetin is a natural cytokinin.
(1) (i), (iii) and (v) only
(2) (i) and (iv) only
(3) (ii) and (iii) only
(4) (i), (ii) and (iii) only
- The chief water conducting elements of xylem in gymnosperms are: [Old NCERT/XI/87]
(1) vessels
(2) fibres
(3) transfusion tissue
(4) tracheids
- Statement-I: During the conversion of succinyl coA to succinic acid step, a molecule of ATP is
synthesised. Statement-II: In a coupled reaction ATP is converted to ADP with the simmultaneous
synthesis of GTP from GDP. [New NCERT/XI/159]
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(2) behavioural differences in their foraging activities.
(3) different kinds of insects they eat.
(4) all of the above
- In the given columns, column I contains the terms and column II contains its description. Select the
correct match from the option given below. [Old NCERT/XI/4]
Column-I
A. Growth
B. Reproduction
C. Metabolism
D. Cellular organization
Column-II
I. Production of offspring.
II. Composed of one or more cells.
III. Increase in mass and increase in number of individuals.
IV. Sum of all chemical reactions occurring in body.
(1) A-I; B - II; C-III; D - IV
(2) A-III; B - I; C-II; D - IV
(3) A − III; B - I; C - IV; D - II
(4) A-II; B - IV; C-III; D - I
- The transfer of energy from one trophic level to another is governed by the 2
nd
law of
thermodynamics. The average efficiency of energy transfer from herbivores to carnivores is
(1) 5% (2) 10% (3) 25% (4) 50% [New NCERT/XII/209]
- Assertion (A): Endosperm is a nutritive tissue which is triploid. Reason (R): Endosperm is formed by
fusion of secondary nucleus to second male gamete. It is used by developing embryo. [New NCERT/XII/18]
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
- Select the correct statement with respect to mitosis. [New NCERT/XI/122]
(1) Chromatids separate but remain in the centre of the cell in anaphase.
(2) Chromatids start moving towards opposite poles in telophase.
(3) Golgi complex and endoplasmic reticulum are still visible at the end of prophase.
(4) Chromosomes move to the spindle equator and get aligned along equatorial plate in metaphase.
- Plasticity in plant growth means that:
(1) plant roots are extensible [New NCERT/XI/173]
(2) plant development is dependent on the environment
(3) stems can extend
(4) None of the above
- Satellite DNA is important because it [New NCERT/XII/105]
(1) shows high degree of polymorphism in population and also the same degree of polymorphism in an
individual, which is heritable from parents to children.
(2) does not code for proteins and is same in all members of the population
(3) codes for enzymes needed for DNA replication
(4) codes for proteins needed in cell cycle.
- Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about S-phase (synthetic phase)?
(i) it occurs between G
1
and G
2
phase. [New NCERT/XI/121]
(ii) It marks the period during which DNA replicates.
(iii) At the end of this phase, DNA is doubled but the number of chromosomes remains unchanged.
(iv) As the DNA is doubled in this phase, number of chromosomes is also doubled.
(v) Amount of DNA changes from 2C to 4C.
(1) (i), (ii), (iv), (v)
(3) All of the above
(2) (i), (ii), (iii),(v)
(4) Only (iv)
- Occasionally, a single gene may express more than one effect.
The phenomenon is called [New NCERT/XI/69]
(1) multipleallelism
(2) mosaicism
(3) pleiotropy
(4) polygeny
- Statement I: The fibrous root system is better adapted than the tap root system for anchorage to the
soil.
Statement II: The primary root and its branches constitute tap root system. [New NCERT/XI/58]
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
- Citrate synthase, an enzyme of TCA cycle is located in: [New NCERT/XI/159]
(1) cytosol in prokaryotes.
(2) mitochondrial matrix in eukaryotes.
(3) both (1) and (2)
(4) none of the above
- Match the column-I with column-II and select the correct answer using
the codes given below. [New NCERT/XI/24, 30, 34]
Column-I Column-II
(Group of Plant Kindgdom) (Examples)
A. Algae I. Solanum tuberosum
B. Fungi II. Equisetum
C. Angiosperm III. Chlamydomonas
D. Pteridophyte IV. Rhizopus
(1) A-III; B-IV; C-II; D-I
(2) A-III; B-IV; C-I; D-II
(3) A-IV; B-I; C-III; D-II
(4) A-IV; B-I; C-II; D-III
- The main organelle involved in modification and routing of newly synthesized proteins to their
destinations is [New NCERT/XI/95]
(1) chloroplast
(2) mitochondria
(3) lysosome
(4) endoplasmic reticulum
- Which of the following does not lead to genetic variability?
(1) Random fertilization. [New NCERT/XI/128]
(2) Crossing over during meiosis.
(3) Division of chromosomes during anaphase of mitosis.
(4) Orientation of chromosomes during metaphase I of meiosis.
- The length of different internodes in a culm of sugarcane is variable because of [New NCERT/XI/77]
(1) size of leaf lamina at the node below each internode
(2) intercalary meristem
(3) shoot apical meristem
(4) position of axillary buds
- Experimental material used by Hershey and Chase for proving that DNA controls heredity was
(1) Diplococcus pneumoniae
(2) Salmonella typhimurium
2
phage [New NCERT/XII/85]
(4) TMV
- How many ATP molecules will be generated in a plant system during complete oxidation of 40
molecules of glucose? [New NCERT/XI/161]
- Statement I: Human Genome Project was completed in 2003.
Statement II: Human Genome Project was a mega project of 13 years. [New NCERT/XII/102]
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
- A cell division time is 1 minute. In 20 minutes, a culture tube (culture medium) is 1 / 8
th
filled with
cells. When the tube will be fully filled? [New NCERT/XI/14]
(1) 21 minutes
(2) 23 minutes
(3) 60 minutes
(4) 160 minutes
- Assertion (A): Some species of insects and frogs are cryptically-coloured to avoid being detect by the
predator. [New NCERT/XII/197]
Reason (R): Mimicry is a method to acquire body colour blending with the surroundings.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (𝐴)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
- Match the following stem modifications given in column I with their examples given in column II and
select the correct combination from the options given below. [New NCERT/XI/59] [Practical Skills]
Column-I
(Stem Modifications)
Column-II
(Found in)
A. Underground stem I. Opuntia
B. Stem tendril II. Potato
C. Stem thorns III. Citrus
D. Flattened stem IV. Cucumber
(1) A-I; B - II; C-III; D - IV
(2) A-II; B - III; C-IV; D - I
(3) A-III; B - IV; C-II; D - I
(4) A-II; B - IV; C-III; D - I
- While planning for an artificial hybridisation programme involving dioecious plants, which of the
following steps would not be relevant? [New NCERT/XII/17]
(1) Bagging of female flower
(2) Dusting of pollen on stigma
(3) Emasculation
(4) Collection of pollen
- Select the two correct statements out of the four ( i − iv)
given below about lac operon. [New NCERT/XII/100-101]
(i) Glucose or galactose may bind with the repressor and inactivate it.
(ii) In the absence of lactose, the repressor binds with the operator region.
(iii) The z-gene codes for permease.
(iv) This was elucidated by Francois Jacob and Jacque Monod.
(1) (ii) and (iii)
(2) (i) and (iii)
(3) (ii) and (iv)
(4) (i) and (ii)
145. Match the column-1 with column II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below.
Column-I Column-II New NCERT/XI/146]
A. Emerson effect I. C
4
cycle
B. Hill reaction II. Photolysis
C. Calvin cycle III. C
3
cycle
D. Hatch & Slack cycle IV. Photosystem I & II
(1) A - I; B - II; C - III; D - IV
(2) A- I; B - III; C - IV; D - II
(3) A − III; B − IV; C − I; D − II
(4) A- IV; B - II; C - III; D - I
- The process of mineralisation by microorganisms helps in the release of New NCERT/XII/208]
(1) inorganic nutrients from humus
(2) both organic and inorganic nutrients from detritus
(3) organic nutrients from humus
(4) inorganic nutrients from detritus and formation of humus.
- Read the following statements and choose correct ones. [New NCERT/XII/73-74]
(i) Myotonic dystrophy is an autosomal dominant trait.
(ii) Sickle cell anaemia is an autosomal recessive trait.
(iii) Polyploidy is often seen in plants.
(iv) Failure of segregation of alleles results in chromosomal gain.
(v) Cystic fibrosis is a Mendelian disorder.
Correct statements are:
(1) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(2) (i), (iii), (iv) and (v)
(3) (i), (ii), (iv) and (v)
(4) All of these
- Which of the following statement(s) about algae is/are correct? [New NCERT/XI/24]
(i) Algae are chlorophyll bearing simple, thalloid, heterotrophic and aquatic (both fresh water and marine)
organisms.
(ii) Algae reproduce by sexual means only.
(iii) Fusion of two gametes dissimilar in size is termed as isogamous.
(iv) A few of the massive forms of algae such as kelps, form massive plant bodies.
(v) Algae are not useful to man.
(1) Only(i)
(2) Both (i) and (v)
(3) Only (iv)
(4) All of these
- Match the items given in column-I with their role given in column-II and
choose the correct option. [New NCERT/XI/95]
Column-I
A. SER
B. Golgi apparatus
C. Cristae
D. Peroxisome
Column-II
I. Increase the surface area
II. Excretion
III. Photorespiration
IV. Synthesis of lipid
