Docsity
Docsity

Prepare for your exams
Prepare for your exams

Study with the several resources on Docsity


Earn points to download
Earn points to download

Earn points by helping other students or get them with a premium plan


Guidelines and tips
Guidelines and tips

NEW ATI PHARMACOLOGY PROCTERED EXAM 2025 GRADED A+, Exams of Pharmacology

NEW ATI PHARMACOLOGY PROCTERED EXAM 2025 NEW ATI PHARMACOLOGY PROCTERED EXAM 2025 NEW ATI PHARMACOLOGY PROCTERED EXAM 2025 NEW ATI PHARMACOLOGY PROCTERED EXAM 2025 NEW ATI PHARMACOLOGY PROCTERED EXAM 2025

Typology: Exams

2024/2025

Available from 06/24/2025

Biodexpert
Biodexpert 🇺🇸

4.1

(32)

1.4K documents

1 / 116

Toggle sidebar

This page cannot be seen from the preview

Don't miss anything!

bg1
1. A provider prescribes phenobarbital for a client who has a seizure disorder.
The medication has a long half-life of 4 days. How many times per day should
the nurse expect to administer this medication?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four - answers-A. One
(Medications with long half-lives remain at their therapeutic levels between
doses for long periods of time. The nurse should expect to administer this
medication once a day.)
2. A staff educator is reviewing medication dosages and factors that
influence medication metabolism with a group of nurses at an in-service
presentation. Which of the following factors should the educator include as a
reason to administer lower medication dosages? (Select all that apply.)
A. Increased renal secretion
B. Increased medication-metabolizing enzymes
C. Liver failure
D. Peripheral vascular disease
E. Concurrent use of medication the same pathway metabolizes - answers-C.
Liver failure
E. Concurrent use of medication the same pathway metabolizes
C. Liver failure decreases metabolism and thus increases the concentration of a
medication. This requires decreasing the dosage.
E. When the same pathway metabolizes two medications, they compete for
metabolism, thereby increasing the concentration of one or both medications.
This requires decreasing the dosage of one or both
3. A nurse is preparing to administer eye drops to a client. Which of the
following actions should the nurse take? (Select all that apply.)
A. Have the client lie on her side.
B. Ask the client to look up at the ceiling.
C. Tell the client to blink when the drops enter her eye.
D. Drop the medication into the center of the client's conjunctival sac.
E. Instruct the client to close her eye gently after instillation - answers-B.
Ask the client to look up at the ceiling.
D. Drop the medication into the center of the client's conjunctival sac.
E. Instruct the client to close her eye gently after instillation
pf3
pf4
pf5
pf8
pf9
pfa
pfd
pfe
pff
pf12
pf13
pf14
pf15
pf16
pf17
pf18
pf19
pf1a
pf1b
pf1c
pf1d
pf1e
pf1f
pf20
pf21
pf22
pf23
pf24
pf25
pf26
pf27
pf28
pf29
pf2a
pf2b
pf2c
pf2d
pf2e
pf2f
pf30
pf31
pf32
pf33
pf34
pf35
pf36
pf37
pf38
pf39
pf3a
pf3b
pf3c
pf3d
pf3e
pf3f
pf40
pf41
pf42
pf43
pf44
pf45
pf46
pf47
pf48
pf49
pf4a
pf4b
pf4c
pf4d
pf4e
pf4f
pf50
pf51
pf52
pf53
pf54
pf55
pf56
pf57
pf58
pf59
pf5a
pf5b
pf5c
pf5d
pf5e
pf5f
pf60
pf61
pf62
pf63
pf64

Partial preview of the text

Download NEW ATI PHARMACOLOGY PROCTERED EXAM 2025 GRADED A+ and more Exams Pharmacology in PDF only on Docsity!

  1. A provider prescribes phenobarbital for a client who has a seizure disorder. The medication has a long half-life of 4 days. How many times per day should the nurse expect to administer this medication? A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four - answers-A. One (Medications with long half-lives remain at their therapeutic levels between doses for long periods of time. The nurse should expect to administer this medication once a day.)
  2. A staff educator is reviewing medication dosages and factors that influence medication metabolism with a group of nurses at an in-service presentation. Which of the following factors should the educator include as a reason to administer lower medication dosages? (Select all that apply.) A. Increased renal secretion B. Increased medication-metabolizing enzymes C. Liver failure D. Peripheral vascular disease E. Concurrent use of medication the same pathway metabolizes - answers-C. Liver failure E. Concurrent use of medication the same pathway metabolizes C. Liver failure decreases metabolism and thus increases the concentration of a medication. This requires decreasing the dosage. E. When the same pathway metabolizes two medications, they compete for metabolism, thereby increasing the concentration of one or both medications. This requires decreasing the dosage of one or both
  3. A nurse is preparing to administer eye drops to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? (Select all that apply.) A. Have the client lie on her side. B. Ask the client to look up at the ceiling. C. Tell the client to blink when the drops enter her eye. D. Drop the medication into the center of the client's conjunctival sac. E. Instruct the client to close her eye gently after instillation - answers-B. Ask the client to look up at the ceiling. D. Drop the medication into the center of the client's conjunctival sac. E. Instruct the client to close her eye gently after instillation

(B. The client should look upward to keep the drops from falling onto her cornea. D. The nurse should drop the medication into the

C. A nurse is legally responsible for monitoring for side and adverse effects of medication D. Safeguarding of medications, such as controlled substances, is a legal responsibility of the nurse)

  1. A nurse reviewing a client's health record notes a new prescription for Lisinopril 10 mg PO once every day. The nurse should identify this as which of the following types of prescription? A. Single B. Stat C. Routine D. Standing - answers-C. Routine (A routine or standard prescription identifies medications to give on a regular schedule with or without a termination date or a specific number of doses. The nurse will administer this medication every day until the provider discontinues it.) A nurse is reviewing a new prescription for Ondansetron 4 mg PO PRN for nausea and vomiting for a client who has Hyperemesis Gravidarum. The nurse should clarify which of the following parts of the prescription with the provider? A. Name B. Dosage C. Route D. Frequency - answers-D. Frequency (This prescription does not include the time or frequency of medication administration. The nurse must clarify this with the prescribing provide) A nurse is admitting a client and completing a preassessment before administering medications. Which of the following data should the nurse include in the preassessment? (Select all that apply.) A. Use of herbal teas B. Daily fluid intake C. Current health status D. Previous surgical history E. Food allergies - answers-A. Use of herbal teas C. Current health status E. Food allergies (A. The nurse should inquire about the client's use of herbal products, which often contain caffeine, prior to medication administration because caffeine can affect medication biotransformation C. The nurse should review the client's current health status because new prescriptions can cause alterations in current health status E. The nurse should inquire about food allergies during the preassessment to identify any potential reactions or interactions) A nurse orienting a newly licensed nurse is reviewing the procedure for taking

B. "Another nurse should listen to the phone call." C. "The provider can clarify the prescription when he signs the health record." D. "I should omit the 'read back' if this is a one-time prescription - answers-B. "Another nurse should listen to the phone call." (A second nurse should listen to a telephone prescription to prevent errors in communication.) A nurse is preparing to administer vancomycin 1 g by intermittent IV bolus. Available is vancomycin 1 g in 100 mL of dextrose 5% in water (D5W) to infuse over 45 min. The drop factor of the manual IV tubing is 10 gtt/mL. The nurse should adjust the manual IV infusion to deliver how many gtt/min? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Do not use a trailing zero. - answers-22A nurse is preparing to administer clindamycin 200 mg by intermittent IV bolus. The amount available is clindamycin injection 200 mg in 100 mL 0.9% sodium chloride (0.9% NaCl) to infuse over 30 min. The nurse should set the IV pump to deliver how many mL/hr? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Do not use a trailing zero. - answers-200A nurse is preparing to administer furosemide 80 mg PO daily. The amount available is furosemide oral solution 10 mg/1 mL. how many mL should the nurse administer? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Do not use a trailing zero.) - answers-8A nurse is preparing to administer Haloperidol 2 mg PO every 12 hr. The amount available is haloperidol 1 mg/tablet. how many tablets should the nurse administer? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Do not use a trailing zero. - answers-2A nurse is preparing to administer Amoxicillin 20 mg/kg/day PO to divide equally every 12 hr to a preschooler who weighs 44 lb. The amount available is amoxicillin suspension 250 mg/5 mL. how many mL should the nurse administer per dose? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Do not use a trailing zero.) - answers-4A nurse is preparing to administer heparin 15,000 units subcutaneously every 12 hr. The amount available is heparin injection 20,000 units/mL. How many mL should the nurse administer per dose? (Round the answer to the nearest tenth. Do not use a trailing zero. - answers-0.8A nurse is preparing to administer acetaminophen 650 mg PO every 6 hr PRN for pain. The amount available is acetaminophen liquid 500 mg/5 mL. how many mL should the nurse administer per dose? (Round the answer to the nearest tenth. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero. - answers-6.5A nurse is preparing to administer dextrose 5% in water (D5W) 750 mL IV to infuse over 6 hr. The nurse should set the IV pump to deliver how many mL/hr? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Do not use a trailing zero. - answers-125A nurse is assessing a client's IV infusion site. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of phlebitis? (Select all that apply.)

A. Pallor B. Dampness C. Erythema D. Coolness E. Pain - answers-C. Erythema E. Pain

B. A client who takes Prednisone and has a possible Fungal infection C. A client who has chronic liver disease and is taking Hydrocodone D. A client who has Peptic Ulcer Disease, takes Sucralfate, and tells the nurse she has started taking OTC Aluminum Hydroxide

E. A client who has a prosthetic heart valve, takes Warfarin, and reports a suspected pregnancy - answers-B. A client who takes Prednisone and has a possible Fungal infection C. A client who has chronic liver disease and is taking Hydrocodone E. A client who has a prosthetic heart valve, takes Warfarin, and reports a suspected pregnancy (B. Glucocorticoids should not be taken by a client who has a possible systemic fungal infection. The nurse should recognize a contraindication and notify the provider. C. Acetaminophen is contraindicated due to toxicity for a client who has a liver disorder. The nurse should notify the provider, who can prescribe a medication that does not contain acetaminophen. E. Warfarin is a Pregnancy Category X medication, which can cause severe birth defects to the fetus. The nurse should notify the provider about the suspected pregnancy)A nurse is preparing to administer an IM dose of penicillin to a client who has a new prescription. The client states she took penicillin 3 years ago and developed a rash. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? A. Administer the prescribed dose. B. Withhold the medication. C. Ask the provider to change the prescription to an oral form. D.Administer an oral antihistamine at the same time - answers-B. Withhold the medication. (The nurse should withhold the medication and notify the provider of the client's previous reaction to penicillin so that an alternative antibiotic can be prescribed. Allergic reactions to penicillin can range from mild to severe anaphylaxis, and prior sensitization should be reported to the provider.)A nurse is providing discharge instructions for a client who has a new prescription for an antihypertensive medication. Which of the following statements should the nurse give? A. "Be sure to limit your potassium intake while taking the medication." B. "You should check your blood pressure every 8 hours while taking this medication." C. "Your medication dosage will be increased if you develop tachycardia." D. "Change positions slowly when you move from sitting to standing." - answers-D. "Change positions slowly when you move from sitting to standing." (Orthostatic hypotension is a common adverse effect of antihypertensive medications. The client should move slowly to a sitting or standing position and should be taught to sit or lie down if lightheadedness or dizziness occurs)A nurse is reviewing a client's health record and notes that the client experiences

C. Central nervous D. Gastrointestinal - answers-C. Central nervous (The nurse should realize that extrapyramidal effects are movement disorders that can be caused by a number of central nervous system medications, such as typical antipsychotic medications)A nurse is caring for a client who is taking oral Oxycodone The client states he is also taking Ibuprofen in three recommended doses daily. The nurse should identify that an interaction between these two medications will cause which of the following findings? A. A decrease in serum levels of ibuprofen, possibly leading to a need for increased doses of this medication B. A decrease in serum levels of oxycodone, possibly leading to a need for increased doses of this medication C. An increase in the expected therapeutic effect of both medications D. An increase in expected adverse effects for both medications - answers- C. An increase in the expected therapeutic effect of both medications (These medications work together to increase the pain-relieving effects of both medications. Oxycodone is a narcotic analgesic, and ibuprofen is an NSAID. They work by different mechanisms, but pain is better relieved when they are taken together)A nurse is preparing to administer medications to a 4-month-old infant. Which of the following pharmacokinetic principles should the nurse consider when administering medications to this client? (Select all that apply.) A. Infants have a more rapid gastric emptying time. B. Infants have immature liver function. C. Infants' blood-brain barrier is poorly developed. D. Infants have an increased ability to absorb topical medications. E. Infants have an increased number of protein-binding sites. - answers-B. Infants have immature liver function. C. Infants' blood-brain barrier is poorly developed. D. Infants have an increased ability to absorb topical medications. (B. Infants have immature liver function until 1 year of age. The nurse should administer medications the liver metabolizes in smaller dosages. C. Infants have a poorly developed blood-brain barrier, which places them at risk for adverse effects from medications that pass through the blood-brain barrier. The nurse should administer these medications in smaller dosages. D. Because infants have more blood flowing to the skin and their skin is thin, their medication absorption is increased, making them prone to toxicity from topical medications)A nurse in a provider's office is reviewing the medical record of a client who is pregnant and is at her first prenatal visit. Which of the

following immunizations may the nurse administer safely to this client? A. Varicella vaccine B. Rubella vaccine C. Inactivated influenza vaccine

C. "Take this medication when needed for anxiety" D. "This medication has a low risk for dependency." - answers-D. "This medication has a low risk for dependency."

(Buspirone has a low risk for physical or psychological dependence or tolerance.)A nurse is teaching a client who has OCD and has a new prescription for Paroxetine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include? A. "It can take several weeks before you feel like the medication is helping." B. "Take the medication just before bedtime to promote sleep." C. "You should take the medication when needed for obsessive urges." D. "Monitor for weight gain while taking this medication." - answers-A. "It can take several weeks before you feel like the medication is helping." (Paroxetine can take 1 to 4 weeks before the client reaches full therapeutic benefit.)A nurse is caring for a client who takes Paroxetine to treat PTSD and reports that he grinds his teeth during the night. The nurse should identify which of the following interventions to manage Bruxism? (Select all that apply.) A. Concurrent administration of buspirone B. Administration of a different SSRI C. Use of a mouth guard D. Changing to a different class of antidepressant medication E. Increasing the dose of paroxetine - answers-A. Concurrent administration of buspirone C. Use of a mouth guard D. Changing to a different class of antidepressant medication (A. Concurrent administration of a low dose of buspirone is an effective measure to manage the adverse effects of paroxetine C.Using a mouth guard during sleep can decrease the risk for oral damage resulting from bruxism. D. Changing to different class of antidepressant medication that does not have the adverse effect of bruxism is an effective measure)A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for Phenelzine for the treatment of depression. Which of the following indicates that the client has developed an adverse effect of this medication? A. Orthostatic hypotension B. Hearing loss C. Gastrointestinal bleeding D. Weight loss - answers-A. Orthostatic hypotension (Orthostatic hypotension is an adverse of effect of mAOIs, including phenelzine.)A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for Amitriptyline for treatment of depression. Which of the following should the nurse include in the teaching? (Select all that apply.)

E. Chew sugarless gum to prevent dry mouth - answers-C. Change positions slowly to minimize dizziness. E. Chew sugarless gum to prevent dry mouth (C. Changing positions slowly helps prevent orthostatic hypotension, which is an adverse effect of amitriptyline E. Chewing sugarless gum can minimize dry mouth, which is an adverse effect of amitriptyline)A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for Fluoxetine for PTSD. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching? A. "You may have a decreased desire for intimacy while taking this medication." B. "You should take this medication at bedtime to help promote sleep." C. "You will have fewer urinary adverse effects if you urinate just before taking this medication." D. "You'll need to wear sunglasses when outdoors due to the light sensitivity caused by this medication. - answers-A. "You may have a decreased desire for intimacy while taking this medication." (Decreased libido is a potential adverse effect of fluoxetine and other SSRIs)A nurse is caring for a client who has Depression and a new prescription for Venlafaxine. For which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor this client? (Select all that apply) A. Cough B. Dizziness C. Decreased libido D. Alopecia E. hypotension - answers-A. Cough B. Dizziness C. Decreased libido (A.Cough and dyspnea can indicate that the client has developed bronchitis, which is an adverse effect of venlafaxine. B.Dizziness is a common adverse effect of venlafaxine. C.Sexual dysfunction, such as decreased)A nurse is caring for a client who has been taking Sertraline for the past 2 days. Which of the following assessment findings should alert the nurse to the possibility that the client is developing Serotonin syndrome? A. Bruising B. Fever

C. Abdominal pain D. Rash - answers-B. Fever (Fever is a manifestation of serotonin syndrome,