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NEW ATI PHARMACOLOGY PROCTERED EXAM 2025 NEW ATI PHARMACOLOGY PROCTERED EXAM 2025 NEW ATI PHARMACOLOGY PROCTERED EXAM 2025 NEW ATI PHARMACOLOGY PROCTERED EXAM 2025 NEW ATI PHARMACOLOGY PROCTERED EXAM 2025
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A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four - answers-A. One
(Medications with long half-lives remain at their therapeutic levels between doses for long periods of time. The nurse should expect to administer this medication once a day.)
A. Increased renal secretion B. Increased medication-metabolizing enzymes C. Liver failure D. Peripheral vascular disease E. Concurrent use of medication the same pathway metabolizes - answers-C. Liver failure E. Concurrent use of medication the same pathway metabolizes
C. Liver failure decreases metabolism and thus increases the concentration of a medication. This requires decreasing the dosage.
E. When the same pathway metabolizes two medications, they compete for metabolism, thereby increasing the concentration of one or both medications. This requires decreasing the dosage of one or both
A. Have the client lie on her side. B. Ask the client to look up at the ceiling. C. Tell the client to blink when the drops enter her eye. D. Drop the medication into the center of the client's conjunctival sac. E. Instruct the client to close her eye gently after instillation - answers-B. Ask the client to look up at the ceiling. D. Drop the medication into the center of the client's conjunctival sac. E. Instruct the client to close her eye gently after instillation
(B. The client should look upward to keep the drops from falling onto her cornea. D. The nurse should drop the medication into the
center of the conjunctival sac to promote distribution. E. The client should close her eye gently to promote distribution of the medication)
A. "I will clean the site with an alcohol swab before I apply the patch." B. "I will rotate the application sites weekly." C. "I will apply the patch to an area of skin with no hair." D. "I will place the new patch on the site of the old patch. - answers-C. "I will apply the patch to an area of skin with no hair."
(The client should apply the patch to a hairless area of skin to promote absorption of the medication.)
A. Obtain a blood specimen immediately prior to administering the next dose of medication. B. Verify that the client has been taking the medication for 24 hr before obtaining a blood specimen. C. Ask the client to provide a urine specimen after the next dose of medication. D. Administer the medication,and obtain a blood specimen 30 min late - answers-A. Obtain a blood specimen immediately prior to administering the next dose of medication.
(To verify trough levels of a medication, the nurse should obtain a blood specimen immediately before administering the next dose of medication.)
A. Maintain skill competency. B. Determine the dosage. C. Monitor for adverse effects. D. Safeguard medications. E. Identify the client's diagnosis - answers-A. Maintain skill competency. C. Monitor for adverse effects. D. Safeguard medications.
(A.maintaining skill competency and using appropriate administration techniques are legal responsibilities of the nurse
C. A nurse is legally responsible for monitoring for side and adverse effects of medication
D. Safeguarding of medications, such as controlled substances, is a legal responsibility of the nurse)
B. "Another nurse should listen to the phone call." C. "The provider can clarify the prescription when he signs the health record." D. "I should omit the 'read back' if this is a one-time prescription - answers-B. "Another nurse should listen to the phone call."
(A second nurse should listen to a telephone prescription to prevent errors in communication.) A nurse is preparing to administer vancomycin 1 g by intermittent IV bolus. Available is vancomycin 1 g in 100 mL of dextrose 5% in water (D5W) to infuse over 45 min. The drop factor of the manual IV tubing is 10 gtt/mL. The nurse should adjust the manual IV infusion to deliver how many gtt/min? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Do not use a trailing zero. - answers-22A nurse is preparing to administer clindamycin 200 mg by intermittent IV bolus. The amount available is clindamycin injection 200 mg in 100 mL 0.9% sodium chloride (0.9% NaCl) to infuse over 30 min. The nurse should set the IV pump to deliver how many mL/hr? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Do not use a trailing zero. - answers-200A nurse is preparing to administer furosemide 80 mg PO daily. The amount available is furosemide oral solution 10 mg/1 mL. how many mL should the nurse administer? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Do not use a trailing zero.) - answers-8A nurse is preparing to administer Haloperidol 2 mg PO every 12 hr. The amount available is haloperidol 1 mg/tablet. how many tablets should the nurse administer? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Do not use a trailing zero. - answers-2A nurse is preparing to administer Amoxicillin 20 mg/kg/day PO to divide equally every 12 hr to a preschooler who weighs 44 lb. The amount available is amoxicillin suspension 250 mg/5 mL. how many mL should the nurse administer per dose? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Do not use a trailing zero.) - answers-4A nurse is preparing to administer heparin 15,000 units subcutaneously every 12 hr. The amount available is heparin injection 20,000 units/mL. How many mL should the nurse administer per dose? (Round the answer to the nearest tenth. Do not use a trailing zero. - answers-0.8A nurse is preparing to administer acetaminophen 650 mg PO every 6 hr PRN for pain. The amount available is acetaminophen liquid 500 mg/ mL. how many mL should the nurse administer per dose? (Round the answer to the nearest tenth. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero. - answers-6.5A nurse is preparing to administer dextrose 5% in water (D5W) 750 mL IV to infuse over 6 hr. The nurse should set the IV pump to deliver how many mL/hr? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Do not use a trailing zero. - answers-125A nurse is assessing a client's IV infusion site. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of phlebitis? (Select all that apply.)
A. Pallor B. Dampness C. Erythema D. Coolness E. Pain - answers-C. Erythema E. Pain
(C. Erythema at the insertion site is a manifestation of phlebitis. E.Pain at the insertion site is a manifestation of phlebitis.)A nurse manager is reviewing the facility's policies for IV therapy with the members of his team. The nurse manager should remind the team that which of the following techniques helps minimize the risk of catheter embolism?
A. Performing hand hygiene before and after IV insertion B. Rotating IV sites at least every 72 hr C. Minimizing tourniquet time D. Avoiding reinserting the needle into an IV catheter - answers-D. Avoiding reinserting the needle into an IV catheter
(The nurse manager should remind the members of the team to avoid reinserting the stylet needle into an IV catheter. This action can result in severing the end of the catheter and consequently cause a catheter embolism)A nurse is preparing to initiate IV therapy for an older adult client. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?
A. Use a disposable razor to remove excess hair on the extremity. B. Select the back of the client's hand to insert the IV catheter. C. Distend the veins by using a blood pressure cuff. D. Direct the client to raise his arm above his heart - answers-C. Distend the veins by using a blood pressure cuff.
(The nurse should distend the veins using a blood pressure cuff to reduce overfilling of the vein,which can result in a hematoma)A nurse assessing a client's IV catheter insertion site notes a hematoma. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? (Select all that apply.)
A. Stop the infusion. B. Apply alcohol to the insertion site. C. Apply warm compresses to the insertion site D. Elevate the client's arm. E. Obtain a specimen for culture at the insertion site - answers-C. Apply warm compresses to the insertion site D. Elevate the client's arm.
(C. Warm compresses can help promote healing of a hematoma.
D. Elevation of the arm helps reduce edema, which can cause pressure and pain and additional bleeding in the area of the hematoma.)A nurse in a clinic is caring for a group of clients. The nurse should contact the provider about a potential contraindication to a medication for which of the following clients? (Select all that apply.)
A. A client at 8 weeks of gestation who asks for an Influenza immunization B. A client who takes Prednisone and has a possible Fungal infection C. A client who has chronic liver disease and is taking Hydrocodone D. A client who has Peptic Ulcer Disease, takes Sucralfate, and tells the nurse she has started taking OTC Aluminum Hydroxide
C. Central nervous D. Gastrointestinal - answers-C. Central nervous
(The nurse should realize that extrapyramidal effects are movement disorders that can be caused by a number of central nervous system medications, such as typical antipsychotic medications)A nurse is caring for a client who is taking oral Oxycodone The client states he is also taking Ibuprofen in three recommended doses daily. The nurse should identify that an interaction between these two medications will cause which of the following findings?
A. A decrease in serum levels of ibuprofen, possibly leading to a need for increased doses of this medication B. A decrease in serum levels of oxycodone, possibly leading to a need for increased doses of this medication C. An increase in the expected therapeutic effect of both medications D. An increase in expected adverse effects for both medications - answers-C. An increase in the expected therapeutic effect of both medications
(These medications work together to increase the pain-relieving effects of both medications. Oxycodone is a narcotic analgesic, and ibuprofen is an NSAID. They work by different mechanisms, but pain is better relieved when they are taken together)A nurse is preparing to administer medications to a 4-month-old infant. Which of the following pharmacokinetic principles should the nurse consider when administering medications to this client? (Select all that apply.)
A. Infants have a more rapid gastric emptying time. B. Infants have immature liver function. C. Infants' blood-brain barrier is poorly developed. D. Infants have an increased ability to absorb topical medications. E. Infants have an increased number of protein-binding sites. - answers-B. Infants have immature liver function. C. Infants' blood-brain barrier is poorly developed. D. Infants have an increased ability to absorb topical medications.
(B. Infants have immature liver function until 1 year of age. The nurse should administer medications the liver metabolizes in smaller dosages.
C. Infants have a poorly developed blood-brain barrier, which places them at risk for adverse effects from medications that pass through the blood-brain barrier. The nurse should administer these medications in smaller dosages.
D. Because infants have more blood flowing to the skin and their skin is thin, their medication absorption is increased, making them prone to toxicity from topical medications)A nurse in a provider's office is reviewing the medical record of a client who is pregnant and is at her first prenatal visit. Which of the following immunizations may the nurse administer safely to this client?
A. Varicella vaccine B. Rubella vaccine C. Inactivated influenza vaccine
D. Measles vaccine - answers-C. Inactivated influenza vaccine
(During influenza season, providers recommend the inactivated influenza vaccine for women who are pregnant)A nurse on a medical-surgical unit administers a hypnotic medication to an older adult client at 2100. The next morning, the client is drowsy and wants to sleep instead of eating breakfast. Which of the following factors should the nurse identify as a possible reason for the client's drowsiness?
A. Reduced cardiac function B. First-pass effect C. Reduced hepatic function D. Increased gastric motility - answers-C. Reduced hepatic function
(Older adults have reduced hepatic function, which can prolong the effects of medications the liver metabolizes. The client probably needs a lower dosage of the hypnotic medication)A nurse working in an emergency department is caring for a client who has Benzodiazepine toxicity due to an overdose. Which of the following actions is the nurse's priority?
A. Administer flumazenil. B. Identify the client's level of orientation. C. Infuse IV fluids. D. Prepare the client for gastric lavage - answers-B. Identify the client's level of orientation.
(The first action the nurse should take when using the nursing process is to assess the client. Identifying the client's level of orientation is the priority action.)A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for Escitalopram for treatment of generalized Anxiety disorder. Which of the following statements by the client indicates understanding of the teaching?
A. "I should take the medication on an empty stomach." B. "I will follow a low-sodium diet while taking this medication." C. "I need to discontinue this medication slowly." D. "I should not crush this medication before swallowing." - answers-C. "I need to discontinue this medication slowly."
(When discontinuing escitalopram, the client should taper the medication slowly according to a prescribed tapered dosing schedule to reduce the risk of withdrawal syndrome.)A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for Buspirone to treat Anxiety. Which of the following information should the nurse include?
A. "Take this medication on an empty stomach" B. "Expect optimal therapeutic effects within 24 hr." C. "Take this medication when needed for anxiety" D. "This medication has a low risk for dependency." - answers-D. "This medication has a low risk for dependency."
E. Chew sugarless gum to prevent dry mouth - answers-C. Change positions slowly to minimize dizziness. E. Chew sugarless gum to prevent dry mouth
(C. Changing positions slowly helps prevent orthostatic hypotension, which is an adverse effect of amitriptyline
E. Chewing sugarless gum can minimize dry mouth, which is an adverse effect of amitriptyline)A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for Fluoxetine for PTSD. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
A. "You may have a decreased desire for intimacy while taking this medication." B. "You should take this medication at bedtime to help promote sleep." C. "You will have fewer urinary adverse effects if you urinate just before taking this medication." D. "You'll need to wear sunglasses when outdoors due to the light sensitivity caused by this medication. - answers-A. "You may have a decreased desire for intimacy while taking this medication."
(Decreased libido is a potential adverse effect of fluoxetine and other SSRIs)A nurse is caring for a client who has Depression and a new prescription for Venlafaxine. For which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor this client? (Select all that apply)
A. Cough B. Dizziness C. Decreased libido D. Alopecia E. hypotension - answers-A. Cough B. Dizziness C. Decreased libido
(A.Cough and dyspnea can indicate that the client has developed bronchitis, which is an adverse effect of venlafaxine.
B.Dizziness is a common adverse effect of venlafaxine.
C.Sexual dysfunction, such as decreased)A nurse is caring for a client who has been taking Sertraline for the past 2 days. Which of the following assessment findings should alert the nurse to the possibility that the client is developing Serotonin syndrome?
A. Bruising B. Fever C. Abdominal pain D. Rash - answers-B. Fever
(Fever is a manifestation of serotonin syndrome,
which can result from taking an SSRI such as sertraline)A nurse is reviewing laboratory findings and notes that a client's plasma Lithium level is 2.1 mEq/L. Which of the following is an appropriate action by the nurse?
A. Perform immediate gastric lavage. B. Prepare the client for hemodialysis. C. Administer an additional oral dose of lithium. D. Request a stat repeat of the laboratory test - answers-A. Perform immediate gastric lavage.
(Gastric lavage is appropriate for a client who has severe toxicity, as evidenced by a plasma lithium level of 2.1 mEq/L. This action will lower the client's lithium level.)A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for Lithium Carbonate. When teaching the client about ways to prevent Lithium toxicity, the nurse should advise the client to do which of the following?
A. Avoid the use of acetaminophen for headaches. B. Restrict intake of foods rich in sodium. C. Decrease fluid intake to less than 1,500 mL daily D. Limit aerobic activity in hot weather - answers-D. Limit aerobic activity in hot weather
(The client should avoid activities that have the potential to cause sodium/water depletion, which can increase the risk for toxicity)A nurse is assessing a client who takes Lithium Carbonate for the treatment of Bipolar disorder. The nurse should recognize which of the following findings as a possible indication of toxicity to this medication?
A. Severe hypertension B. Coarse tremors C. Constipation D. Muscle spasm - answers-B. Coarse tremors
(Coarse tremors are an indication of toxicity)A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for Valproic Acid. The nurse should instruct the client that while taking this medication he will need to have which of the following laboratory tests completed periodically? (Select all that apply.)
A. Thrombocyte count B. Hematocrit C. Amylase D. Liver function tests E. Potassium - answers-A. Thrombocyte count C. Amylase D. Liver function tests
(A.Treatment with valproic acid can result in thrombocytopenia. The client's thrombocyte count should be monitored periodically.
began taking Haloperidol. Which of the following findings is the highest priority to report to the provider?
A. Shuffling gait B. Neck spasms C. Drowsiness D. Impotence - answers-B. Neck spasms
(Neck spasms are an indication of acute dystonia which is a crisis situation requiring rapid treatment. This is the greatest risk to the client and is therefore the priority finding.)A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for Clozapine. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
A. "You should have a high-carbohydrate snack between meals and at bedtime." B. "You are likely to develop hand tremors if you take this medication for a long period of time." C. "You may experience temporary numbness of your mouth after each dose." D."You should have your white blood cell count monitored every week. - answers- D."You should have your white blood cell count monitored every week.
(Due to the risk for fatal agranulocytosis weekly monitoring of the client's WBC count is recommended while taking clozapine)A nurse is providing teaching for a male client who has Schizophrenia and is taking Risperidone. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
A. "Add extra snacks to your diet to prevent weight loss." B. "Notify the provider if you develop breast enlargement." C. "You may begin to have mild seizures while taking this medication." D. " This medication is likely to increase your libido." - answers-B. "Notify the provider if you develop breast enlargement."
(Gynecomastia (breast enlargement) and galactorrhea can occur due to an increase in prolactin levels while taking risperidone. The client should inform the provider if these manifestations occur.)A nurse is preparing to perform a follow-up assessment on a client who takes Chlorpromazine for the treatment of Schizophrenia. The nurse should expect to find the greatest improvement in which of the following manifestations? (Select all that apply.)
A. Disorganized speech B. Bizarre behavior C. Impaired social interactions D. Hallucinations E. Decreased motivation - answers-A. Disorganized speech B. Bizarre behavior D. Hallucinations
(A. A client who takes a conventional antipsychotic medication, such as chlorpromazine, should have the greatest improvement in positive symptoms such as disorganized speech.
B. A client who takes a conventional antipsychotic medication, such as chlorpromazine, should have the greatest improvement in positive symptoms such as bizarre behavior
D. A client who takes a conventional antipsychotic medication, such as chlorpromazine, should have the greatest improvement in positive symptoms such as hallucinations.)A nurse is teaching the parents of a child who has a new prescription for Desipramine. The nurse should instruct the parents that which of the following adverse effects is the priority to report to the provider?
A. Constipation B. Suicidal thoughts C. Photophobia D. Dry mouth - answers-B. Suicidal thoughts
(The greatest risk to this client is injury from a suicide attempt; therefore, this is the priority. Desipramine can cause suicidal thoughts and behaviors which puts the client at risk. The parents should monitor and report any indication of increased depression or thoughts of suicidal behavior.)A nurse is teaching an adolescent client who has a new prescription for Clomipramine for OCD. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include to minimize an adverse effect of his medication?
A. Wear sunglasses when outdoors. B. Check your temperature daily. C. Take this medication in the morning. D. Add extra calories to your die - answers-A. Wear sunglasses when outdoors.
(Wearing sunglasses when outdoors will decrease photophobia, an anticholinergic effect associated with TCA use)A nurse is caring for a school-age child who has a new prescription for Atomoxetine. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?
A. Kidney toxicity B. Liver damage C. Seizure activity D. Adrenal insufficiency - answers-B. Liver damage
(Liver damage is an adverse effect of atomoxetine. The nurse should monitor for manifestations such as jaundice, upper abdominal tenderness, darkening of urine, and elevated liver enzymes)A nurse is teaching the parents of a school-age child about transdermal Methylphenidate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
A. Apply one patch twice per day. B. Leave the patch on for 9 hr. C. Apply the patch to the child's waist. D. Use opened tray within 6 months. - answers-B. Leave the patch on for 9 hr.
maintenance of abstinence from opioids. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for which of the following adverse effects?
A. Diarrhea B. Dry mouth C. Insomnia D. Hypertension - answers-B. Dry mouth
(Dry mouth is a common adverse effect associated with clonidine use)A nurse is teaching a female client who has tobacco use disorder about Nicotine replacement therapy. Which of the following statements by the client indicates understanding of the teaching?
A. "I should avoid eating right before I chew a piece of nicotine gum." B. "I will need to stop using the nicotine gum after 1 year." C. "I know that nicotine gum is a safe alternative to smoking if I become pregnant." D. "I must chew the nicotine gum quickly for about 15 minutes. - answers-A (The client should avoid eating or drinking 15 min prior to and while chewing the nicotine gum)A nurse in an acute mental health facility is caring for a client who is experiencing withdrawal from Opioid use and has a new prescription for Clonidine. Which of the following actions should the nurse identify as the priority?
A. Administer the clonidine on the prescribed schedule. B. Provide ice chips at the client's bedside. C. Educate the client on the effects of clonidine. D. Obtain baseline vital signs - answers-D (Assessment is the initial step of the nursing process. Obtaining the client's baseline vital signs is the priority nursing action)A nurse in the post-anesthesia recovery unit is caring for a client who received a nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent and has muscle weakness. The nurse should anticipate a prescription for which of the following medications?
A. Neostigmine B. Naloxone C. Dantrolene D. Vecuronium - answers-A (Neostigmine is a cholinesterase inhibitor used to reverse the effects of nondepolarizing neuromuscular blockers)A nurse is providing information to a client who has early Parkinson's disease and a new prescription for pramipexole. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?
A. Hallucinations B. Increased salivation C. Diarrhea D. Discoloration of urine - answers-A (Pramipexole can cause hallucinations within 9 months of the initial dose and might require discontinuation.)A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for Levodopa/Carbidopa for Parkinson's disease. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
A.Increase intake of protein-rich foods. B.Expect muscle twitching to occur.
C.Take this medication with food. D.Anticipate relief of manifestations in 24 h - answers-C (The client should take this medication with food to reduce GI effects.)A nurse is preparing to administer a medication to a client who has absence seizures. The nurse should anticipate administering which of the following medications to the client? (Select all that apply.)
A. Phenytoin B. Ethosuximide C. Gabapentin D. Carbamazepine E. Valproic acid F. Lamotrigine - answers-b, e, f (B. Ethosuximide's only mechanism of action is to treat a client who has absence seizures
E. Valproic acid has a therapeutic effect when treating a client who has absence seizures and all other forms of seizures.
F. Lamotrigine has a therapeutic effect when treating a client who has absence seizures and all other forms of seizure)A nurse is reviewing a new prescription for oxcarbazepine with a female client who has partial seizures. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include? (Select all that apply.)
A."Use caution if given a prescription for a diuretic medication." B."Consider using an alternate form of contraception if you are using oral contraceptives." C."Chew gum to increase saliva production." D."Avoid driving until you see how the medication affects you." E."Notify your provider if you develop a skin rash - answers-a, b, d, e (A. Diuretic medications are administered with caution because of the high risk for hyponatremia when taking oxcarbazepine.
B. An alternate form of contraception is recommended for clients taking oral contraceptives because oxcarbazepine decreases oral contraceptive levels
D. The client should avoid driving if CNS effects of dizziness, drowsiness, and double vision develop.
E. The client should notify the provider if a skin rash occurs because life-threatening skin disorders can develop.)A nurse is instructing a client who has a new prescription for Timolol how to insert eye drops. The nurse should instruct the client to press on which of the following areas to prevent systemic absorption of the medication?
A. Bony orbit B. Nasolacrimal duct C. Conjunctival sac D. Outer canthus - answers-B (Pressing on the nasolacrimal duct blocks the lacrimal punctum and prevents systemic absorption of the medication)A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for Brimonidine ophthalmic drops and wears soft
promote drainage of the medication by gravity into the ear)A nurse in the operating room is caring for a client who received a dose of Succinylcholine. During the operation, the client suddenly develops rigidity, and his body temperature begins to rise. The nurse should anticipate a prescription for which of the following medications?
A. Neostigmine B. Naloxone C. Dantrolene D. Vecuronium - answers-C (muscle rigidity and a sudden rise in temperature is a manifestation of malignant hyperthermia. Dantrolene acts on skeletal muscles to reduce metabolic activity and treat malignant hyperthermia.)A nurse in the post-anesthesia care unit is caring for a client who is experiencing malignant hyperthermia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? (Select all that apply.)
A. Place a cooling blanket on the client. B. Administer oxygen at 100%. C. Administer iced 0.9% sodium chloride. D. Administer potassium chloride IV. E. Monitor core body temperature - answers-a, b, c, e (A. The nurse should apply a cooling blanket and apply ice to the axilla and groin.
B. The nurse should administer oxygen at 100% to treat decreased oxygen saturation.
C. The nurse should take action to decrease the client's body temperature by administering iced IV fluids.
E. The nurse should monitor core body temperature to prevent hypothermia and to determine progress with treatment measures)A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for Baclofen to treat muscle spasms. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching? (Select all that apply.)
A. "I will stop taking this medication right away if I develop dizziness." B. "I know the doctor will gradually increase my dose of this medication for a while." C. "I should increase fiber to prevent constipation from this medication." D. "I won't be able to drink alcohol while I'm taking this medication." E. "I should take this medication on an empty stomach each morning." - answers-b, c, d (B. The provider starts the client on a low dose, and the dose is increased gradually to prevent CNS depression.
C. The client should increase fluids and fiber to reduce the risk for constipation.
D. The intake of alcohol and other CNS depressants can exacerbate the CNS depressant effects of baclofen. Therefore, the client is instructed to avoid CNS depressants while taking baclofen)A nurse is reviewing the health care record of a client who reports urinary incontinence and
asks about a prescription for Oxybutynin. The nurse should recognize that Oxybutynin is contraindicated in the presence of which of the following conditions?
A. Bursitis B. Sinusitis C. Depression D. Glaucoma - answers-D (Oxybutynin is an anticholinergic and can increase intraocular pressure. It is contraindicated for clients who have glaucoma)A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for Bethanechol to treat urinary retention. The nurse should recognize that which of the following findings is a manifestation of muscarinic stimulation?
A. Dry mouth B. Hypertension C. Excessive perspiration D. Fecal impaction - answers-C (Bethanechol is a muscarinic agonist. muscarinic stimulation can result in sweating)A nurse is providing instructions to a client who has been experiencing Insomnia and has a new prescription for Temazepam. The nurse should inform the client that which of the following manifestations are adverse effects of temazepam? (Select all that apply.)
A. Incoordination B. Hypertension C. Pruritus D. Sleep driving E. Amnesia - answers-a, d, e (A. Due to CNS depression, incoordination is an adverse effect of temazepam
D. Sleep driving (driving after taking the medication without memory of doing so) is an adverse effect of temazepam.
E. Retrograde amnesia, the inability to remember the events that occurred after taking the medication, can occur as an adverse effect of temazepam)A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving moderate sedation with Diazepam IV. The client is oversedated. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate administering to this client?
A. Ketamine B. Naltrexone C. Flumazenil D. Fluvoxamine - answers-C (Flumazenil is a competitive benzodiazepine antagonist used to reverse the sedation and other effects of benzodiazepines)A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for Ramelteon. The nurse should instruct the client to avoid which of the following foods while taking this medication?
A. Baked potato B. Fried chicken C. Whole-grain bread D. Citrus fruits - answers-B (high-fat foods, such as fried chicken prolong