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Chief Complaint Definition - Correct Answer-The reason why the patient came to see the physician. Chief Complaint Abbreviation - Correct Answer-CC History of Present Illness Abbreviation - Correct Answer-HPI History of Present Illness Definition - Correct Answer-This is an explanation of the CC to determine the onset of the illness; associated symptoms; what the patient has done to treat the condition, etc. Past, Family and Social History Abbreviation - Correct Answer-PFSH Past Medical History Definition - Correct Answer-Includes all health problems, major illnesses, surgeries the patient has had, current medications complete with reasons for taking them, and allergies. Family History Definition - Correct Answer-Summary of health problems of siblings, parents, and other blood relatives that could alert the physician to hereditary and/or familial disease. Social History Definition - Correct Answer-Includes marital status, occupation, educational attainment, hobbies, use of alcohol, tobacco, drugs, and lifestyles. Review of Systems Abbreviation - Correct Answer-ROS Review of Systems Definition - Correct Answer-This is an orderly and systematic check of each organ and system of the body by questions. Both positive and pertinent negative findings are documented. 3 Body Processes Necessary for life are: - Correct Answer-Body Temperature, Respiration, Heart Function 4 Vital Signs of Body Function are: - Correct Answer-Temperature, Pulse, Respiration, Blood Pressure
Define Body Temperature - Correct Answer-Is a balance between heart production and heart loss in conjunction with each other, maintained and regulated by the hypothalamus. Thermometers - Correct Answer-Are used to measure temperature using the Fahrenheit and Centigrade or Celsius scale. Temperature Sites - Correct Answer-Mouth, Rectum, Ear (Tympanic Membrane), and the axilla (underarm). Normal Temperature Range for Rectal - Correct Answer-98.6F to 100.6F 37.0C to 38.1C Normal Temperature Range for Oral - Correct Answer-97.6F to 99.6F 36.5C to 37.5C Normal Temperature Range for Axillary - Correct Answer-96.6F to 98.6F 35.9C to 37.0C Normal Temperature Range for Tympanic Membrane - Correct Answer-98.6 F 3 7 C Define Febrile - Correct Answer-Presence of Fever Define Afebrile - Correct Answer-Absence of Fever Define Fever - Correct Answer-Elevated body temperature beyond normal range. Intermittent Fever - Correct Answer-Fluctuating fever that returns to or below baseline then rises again. Remittent Fever - Correct Answer-Fluctuating fever that remains elevated; it does not return to baseline temperature. Continuous Fever - Correct Answer-A fever that remains constant above the baseline; it does not fluctuate. Oral Temperature - Correct Answer-Is the most common method of measurement. Oral Temperature is not taken from what patients: - Correct Answer--infants and children less than six years old
- patients who has had surgery or facial, neck, nose, or mouth injury
- those receiving oxygen
- those with nasogastric tubes
- patients with convulsive seizure
- hemiplegic patients
Taking an apical pulse is used for patients with: - Correct Answer-Irregular heart rate and for infants and small children. Respiratory Characteristics - Correct Answer-Rate, Rhythm, and Depth Respiratory Rate - Correct Answer-Is the number of respirations per minute. Normal Adult Range of Respiratory Rate - Correct Answer-12 to 20 per minute What counts as one respirations: - Correct Answer-One inspiration (inhale) and One Expiration (exhale). How is a Respiratory Rate calculated: - Correct Answer-Count respirations for 30 seconds then multiplied by two or count for a full minute. Define Apnea - Correct Answer-This is a temporary complete absence of breathing which may by result of a reduction in the stimuli to the respiratory centers of the brain. Define Tachypnea - Correct Answer-This is a respiration rate of greater than 40/min. It is transient in the newborn and maybe caused by the hysteria in the adult. Define Bradypnea - Correct Answer-Decrease in numbers of respirations. This occurs during sleep. It may also be due to certain diseases. Define Respiratory Rhythm - Correct Answer-Refers to the pattern of breathing. It can vary with age: infants have an irregular rhythm while adults have regular. Define Cheyne-Stokes - Correct Answer-This is a regular pattern of irregular breathing rate. Define Orthopnea - Correct Answer-This is difficulty or inability to breath unless in an upright position. Define Respiratory Depth - Correct Answer-Refers to the amount of air that is inspired and expired during each respiration. Define Hypoventilation - Correct Answer-State in which reduced amount of air enters the lungs resulting in decreased oxygen level and increased carbon dioxide level in blood. It can be due to breathing that is too shallow, or too slow, or to diminished lung function. Define Hyperpnea - Correct Answer-Abnormal increase in the depth and rate of breathing.
Define Hyperventilation - Correct Answer-State in which there is an increased amount of air entering the lungs. Define Blood Pressure - Correct Answer-This is the measurement of the amount of force exerted by the blood on the peripheral arterial walls and is expressed in millimeters (mm) of mercury (Hg). Blood Pressure Abbreviation - Correct Answer-BP BP consist of two components: - Correct Answer-The Highest (systole) and lowest (diastole) amount of pressure exerted during the cardiac cycle. Common errors in blood pressure measurements: - Correct Answer--Improper Cuff Size
- The arm is not at heart level
- Cuff is not completely deflated before use
- Deflation of the cuff is faster than 2-3mmHG per second
- The cuff is re-inflated during the procedure without allowing the arm to rest for 1- 2 minutes between reading
- Improper cuff placement
- Defective Equipment Define Anthropometric Measurements - Correct Answer-Refers to comparative measurements of the body. What age groups use Length, Height, Weight, Weight-for-Length, and Head Circumference - Anthropometric Measurements: - Correct Answer-Are used to assess growth and development in infants, children, and adolescents. What age groups use Height, Weight, Body Mass Index (BMI), waist-to-hip ratio, and % of body fat - Anthropometric Measurements: - Correct Answer-Are the measurements used for adults. The 4 principles of a physical examinations: - Correct Answer-Inspection, Palpation, Percussion, Auscultation Define Inspection - Correct Answer-Which provided an enormous amount of information. The observer uses observation to detect significant physical features or objective data. Inspection focuses on certain aspects of the patient: - Correct Answer-General Appearance, State of Nutrition, Body Habitus, Symmetry, Posture and Gait Define Palpation - Correct Answer-The examiner uses the sense of touch to determine the characteristics of an organ system.
supported by footboard. The table is positioned with the head 45 degrees lower than the body. This position is used primarily for surgical procedures of pelvis and abdomen. OSHA stands for - Correct Answer-Occupational Safety and Health Adminstration OSHA is - Correct Answer-Responsible for the identification of the various hazards present in the work place and for the creation of rules and regulations to minimize exposure to such hazards. Physical Hazards - Electrical Safety Regulations: - Correct Answer--Use only ground plugs that have been approved by Underwriters' Laboratory (UL)
- Never use extension cords
- Avoid electrical circuit overloading
- Inspect all cords and plugs periodically for damage
- Use a surge protector on all sensitive electronic devices
- Before servicing, UNPLUG the device from the electrical outlet
- Use signs and/or labels to indicate high voltage or electrical hazard Chemical Hazards - Chemical Safety Regulations - Correct Answer--If skin or eyes come in contact with any chemicals, immediately wash the area with water for at least 5 minutes
- Store flammable or volatile chemicals in a well-ventilated area
- After use, immediately recap all bottles containing toxic substances
- Label all chemicals with the required Material Safety Data Sheet (MDSD) Material Safety Data Sheet Abbreviation - Correct Answer-MDSD Patient's have the Right to: - Correct Answer--Information about pain and pain relied
- A caring staff who believes in your reports of pain
- A care staff with concern about your pain
- A quick response when you report your pain Patient's have the responsibility to: - Correct Answer--Ask for pain relief when you pain first starts
- Help those caring for you to asses you pain
- Tell those caring for you if your pain is not relieved
- Tell those caring for you about any worries that you have about taking pain medications
- Decide if you want your family and/or significant others to aid in your relief of pain Patient Representative - Correct Answer-Primary assignment is to assist you in exercising your rights as a patient. Good Samaritan Law - Correct Answer-This law deals with the rendering of first aid by health care professionals at the scene of an accident or sudden injury.
Needle Stick Prevention Act - Correct Answer-OSHA has put into force the Occupational Exposure to Bloodborne Pathogen (BBP) Standard when it was concluded that healthcare employees face a serious health risk as a results of occupational exposure to blood and other boy fluids and tissues.. Bloodborne Pathogen Abbreviation - Correct Answer-BBP Bloodborne Pathogen Standard - Correct Answer--Revision and updating of the exposure control plan
- Solicitation of employee input in selecting engineering and work practice controls
- Modification of definitions relating to engineering controls
- New record keeping requirements Sharps Injury Log must contain, at the minimum: - Correct Answer--The type and brand of device involved in the incident
- The department or work area where the exposure incident occurred
- An explanation of how the incident occured Define Tort - Correct Answer-Is a wrongful act that results in injury to one person by another. Define Battery - Correct Answer-The basis of tort in this case is the unprivileged touching of one person by another. When a procedure is to be performed on a patient, the patient must give consent in full knowledge of the procedure and the risk it entails (informed consent). Define Invasion of Privacy - Correct Answer-This is the release of medical records without the patient's knowledge and permission. Define Defamation of Character - Correct Answer-This consists of injury to another person's reputation, name, or character through spoken (slander) or written (libel) words. Define Negligence - Correct Answer-This is the failure to exercise the standard of care that a reasonable person would give under similar circumstances and someone suffers injury because of another's failure to live up to a required duty of care. The 4 Elements of Negligence: - Correct Answer--Duty: duty of care
- Derelict: breach of duty of care
- Direct cause: legally recognizable injury occurs as a result of the breach of duty of care
- Damage: wrongful activity must have caused the injury or harm that occurred Define Patient Confidentiality - Correct Answer-This is the key concept of HIPAA. All patients have a right to privacy and all information should remain privileged.
Define Urinary Leukocytes - Correct Answer-The presence of increased numbers of leukocytes or white blood cells in the urine is an indicator of bacteriuria or urinary tract infection (UTI). Abbreviation for Urinary Tract Infection - Correct Answer-UTI Granulocytic leukocytes release: - Correct Answer-Esterase when the cells lyse. Testing for leukocyte esterase by: - Correct Answer-The reagent strip method is used in tandem with the microscopic examination of urine sediment for the diagnosis of bacteriuria or UTI. A positive test by the reagent strip method is indicated by a: - Correct Answer-Purple Color A _____-______ _____-______ urine sample is usually required for any bacterial culture. - Correct Answer-clean catch mid stream Probably the most common specialized urine test is the _____ _____. - Correct Answer- Pregnancy Test Abbreviation for Human Chorionic Gonadotropin - Correct Answer-hCG Abbreviation for Uterine Chorionic Gonadotropin - Correct Answer-UCG Increased levels of hCG are a natural marker for _____. - Correct Answer-Pregnancy Define Hemoccult Fecal Occult Test - Correct Answer-Is used to detect hidden blood in stool specimens. The 1st and last portion of the stool after the bowel movement usually contain concentrations of the substances most often required for testing. In order to conduct this test, a Hemmocult developing solution is applied to a stool specimen. Any trace of blue that appears within the specimen is a sign of a positive result. Define Throat Culture - Correct Answer-Are used to detect a bacterial, fungal, or ciral infection in the throat. In order to conduct this test, the patient should be placed in a comfortable lying or sitting position. After the patient have been asked to open their mouth, the MA should depress the patient's tongue then vigorously swab the throat with a sterile swab. After the specimen is collected, it should correctly labeled with the patient's information. Define Sputum Specimen - Correct Answer-Is used to determine the presence of pathogens in a patient's respiratory passage. When obtaining the specimen the MA should instruct the patient to cough deeply, using the abdominal muscles as well as the accessory muscles to bring up secretions from the lungs as well as the upper airways. After the specimen is collected, it should correctly labeled with the patient's information.
Order of Draw for Capillary Specimens - Correct Answer-1. Lavender Tube
- Tubes with other additives
- Tubes without additives PKU - Correct Answer-This test is ordered for infants to detect phenylketonuria, a genetic disease that causes mental retardation and brain damage. Test is done on blood from newborn's heel or on urine. Order of Draw (BeCause Better Specimens Generate Perfect Goals) - Correct Answer-
- Blood Cultures
- Light Blue Top Tubes
- Serum or non-additive tube (Red or Red/Gray Top Tubes)
- Green Top Tubes
- Lavendar Top Tubes
- Gray Top Tubes Define Infection Control/Chain of Infection - Correct Answer-Based on the fact that the transmission of infectious disease will be prevented or stopped when any level in the chain is broken or interrupted. Define Agents - Correct Answer-Are infectious , microorganisms that can be classified into groups namely: viruses, bacteria, fungi, and parasites. Define Portal of Exit - Correct Answer-The method by which an infectious agent leaves it reservoir. Define Standard Precautions and Transmission-Based Precautions - Correct Answer- Are controlled measures aimed at preventing the spread of the disease as infectious agents exit the reservoir. Define Mode Transmission - Correct Answer-Specific ways in which microorganism travel from the reservoir to the susceptible host. 5 Main Types of Mode Transmission: - Correct Answer--Contact: direct and indirect
- Droplet
- Airborne
- Common Vehicle
- Vectorborne Define Portal Of Entry - Correct Answer-Allows the infectious agent access to the susceptible host. Common Entry Sites: - Correct Answer--Broken Skin
- Mucous Membranes
- Body systems exposed to the external environment such as the respiratory, gastrointestinal, and reproductive.
Define Hand Washing - Correct Answer-Is the most important means of preventing the spread of infections. A Routine Hand Washing Procedure: - Correct Answer-Uses plain soap to remove soil and transient bacteria. Hand Antisepsis requires: - Correct Answer-The use of antimicrobial soap to remove, kill or inhibit transient microorganisms. Define Barrier Protection - Correct Answer-Protective clothing provides a barrier against infection. Abbreviation for Personal Protective Equipment - Correct Answer-PPE PPE Includes: - Correct Answer--Mask
- Goggles
- Face Shields
- Respirator Define Chemical Examination of Urine - Correct Answer-This involves the chemical evaluation of the contents of the urine which can be qualitative or quantitative. Chemical Examination of Urine Involves: - Correct Answer--pH
- Glucose
- Ketone
- Protein
- Blood
- Bilirubin
- Urobilinogen
- Nitrite
- Leukocyte Esterase Define Microscopic Examination of the Urine - Correct Answer-Is done on urine sediment obtained by certrifugation of 10 to 15ml of urine. The identification and enumeration of the urinary sediment constituents require that only highly skilled and qualified individuals undertake the microscopic examination. Define Specific Gravity of Urine - Correct Answer-Is the ratio of the weight of given volume of urine to the weight of the same volume of distilled water at a constant temperature. This is the most convenient way of measuring the kidney's ability to concentrate and dilute. During a 24-hour period, normal adults with normal diets and normal fluid intake produce urine with a specific gravity of between _____ and _____. - Correct Answer- 1.015 and 1.
The normal range of urine specific gravity for a random collection is _____ to _____. - Correct Answer-1.002 to 1. Define Urinary pH - Correct Answer-Is the reflection of the acidity or alkaline of solution. Define pH - Correct Answer-The % of hydrogen ion concentration of a solution. A pH of _____ is considered to be neutral. - Correct Answer-7. A pH of _____ to _____ is considered to be acidic. - Correct Answer-0 to 7. A pH of _____ to _____ is considered to be alkaline or basic. - Correct Answer-7 to 14 Normal, freshly voided urine will usually have a pH of _____ to _____. - Correct Answer-4.5 to 8. Define Urinary Glucose - Correct Answer-Is the sugar typically found in urine. Define Glycosuria - Correct Answer-Is the presence of glucose in the urine. Define Clean-Catch Specimen - Correct Answer-Collecting this sample required special cleaning of the external genitalia. Define Urine Composition - Correct Answer-Urine formed by a healthy kidney is approximately 96% water and 4% dissolved substances consisting mainly of urea, sodium chloride, sulfates and phosphates. Define Urine Ouput - Correct Answer-Is dependent upon the body's state of hydration and normally averages 1200-1500ml every 24 hours. Define Oliguria - Correct Answer-Decreased urinary output. Define Polyuria - Correct Answer-Increased urinary output. Define Anuria - Correct Answer-Little to no urine output. Define Routine Urinalysis - Correct Answer-Examination of the urine is a diagnostic tool to detect or monitor certain conditions. 3 Parts of Examination of Urine - Correct Answer--Physical Examination
- Chemical Examination
- Microscopic Examination Physical Examination of Urine - Correct Answer--Assessing the volume of the urine specimen to determine if it is adequate for testing
Symptoms/Signs of Irritant Contact Dermatitis - Correct Answer-Scaling, drying, cracking of skin, Symptoms/Signs of Allergic Contact Dermatitis - Correct Answer-Blistering, itching, crusting (similar to poison ivy reaction). Symptoms/Signs of NRL Allergy IgE/histamine mediated - Correct Answer-Hives in area of contact with NRL. Cause of Irritant Contact Dermatitis - Correct Answer-Direct skin irritation by gloves, powder, soaps/detergents, incomplete hand drying. Cause of Allergic Contact Dermatitis - Correct Answer-Accelerators processing chemicals. Cause of NRL Allergy IgE/histamine mediated - Correct Answer-NRL proteins; direct contact with or breathing NRL proteins, including glove powder containing proteins, from powdered gloves or the environment. Prevention/Management for Irritant Contact Dermatitis - Correct Answer-Obtain medical diagnosis, avoid irritant product, consider use of cotton glove liners, consider alternative gloves/products. Prevention/Management for Allergic Contact Dermatitis - Correct Answer-Obtain medical diagnosis, identify chemical. Consider use of glove liners such as cotton. Use alternative glove material without chemical. Assure glove material is suitable for intended use (proper barrier). Prevention/Management for NRL Allergy IgE/histamine mediated - Correct Answer- Obtain medical diagnosis, allergy consultation, subsitute non-NRL, gloves for affected worker and other non-NRL products. Eliminate exposure to glove powder - use of reduce protein, powder free gloves for coworkers. Clean NRL-containing powder from environment. Consider NRL, safe enviroment. (Prescription) po - Correct Answer-From the Latin per os, or "by mouth" or "orally" (Prescription) pr - Correct Answer-From the Latin per rectum, or "by way of the rectum," by suppository (Prescription) sl - Correct Answer-sublingual (under the tongue) (Prescription) IV - Correct Answer-intravenous (Prescription) IM - Correct Answer-intramuscular (in the muscle) (Prescription) SQ - Correct Answer-short for subcutaneous (meaning under the skin)
(Prescription) qd - Correct Answer-Every Day, from the Latin quaque die (Prescription) bid - Correct Answer-Twice a Day, from the Latin his in die (Prescription) tid - Correct Answer-Three Times a Day, from the Latin ter in die (Prescription) qid - Correct Answer-Four Times a Day, from the Latin quater in die (Prescription) pc - Correct Answer-After meals or not on an empty stomach, from the Latin post cibum (Prescription) qhs - Correct Answer-Each night, from the Latin quaque hora somni, or "at bedtime" (Prescription) prn - Correct Answer-As needed, from the Latin pro re nata, "as circumstances may require" The hear is: - Correct Answer-A hollow muscular organ located in the thoracic cavity between the lungs in a space called Mediastenum. The heart _____ is located at the level of the 2nd intercostal. - Correct Answer-Base The tip of the heart (_____) is located at the level of 5th intercostal and mid-clavicular line on the left. - Correct Answer-Apex Define Endocardium - Correct Answer-The innermost layer of the heart. It is a thin layer of epithelium very similar to vessels' endothelium, which covers the inside part of the heart. It forms the lining and folds back onto itself to form the heart valves and also covers the papillary muscles that anchor chordae tendinae, strings of connective tissue that keep in place the AV valves. The function of the Endocardium is: - Correct Answer-To prevent blood cell destruction and clotting. The Endocardium is: - Correct Answer-Also the layer in which the heart's conduction system is embedded. Define Myocardium - Correct Answer-The middle and contractile layer of the heart. The Myocardium is made up of: - Correct Answer-Special striated muscle fibers with strong connection with each other (intercalated disks) and branches that ensure a unified and simultaneous contraction of all muscle fibers. There is a high concentration of calcium ions in the space between the muscle fibers (interstitial space), which influences the force of the muscle contraction.
Define the Left Atrium - Correct Answer-Receives oxygenated blood returning from the lungs via the right and left pulmonary veins. Define The Pulmonary Veins - Correct Answer-The only veins in the body that carry oxygenated blood (because they are going towards the heart). Define Left Ventricle - Correct Answer-Receives the oxygenated blood from the left atrium and pumps it to the body through the aorta, the largest artery of the body. The Heart Valves Purpose - Correct Answer-Is to prevent back flow of the blood thereby assuring uni-directional flow thru the heart. The Atrioventricular Valves (AV) are located: - Correct Answer-Between the atria and ventricles. AV Cusped Valves Characteristics are: - Correct Answer--They have tough fibrous rings.
- Long and strong leaflets (cuspids).
- They have accessory organs, such as papillary muscles and chordea tendinae. Define Tricuspid Valve - Correct Answer-Is located between the right atrium and the right ventricle. As the name connotes, it has three cusps (or leaflets). Define Bicuspid Mitral Valve - Correct Answer-Is located between the left atrium and the left ventricle. It has two cusps (or leaflets) and it also called the mitral valve. Define Semilunar Valves - Correct Answer-They have half-moon shaped leaflets. Semilunar Valves Characteristics - Correct Answer--Three Leaflets
- Shallow in depth
- They have no accessory organs Define Pulmonic Valve - Correct Answer-Located between the right ventricle and the pulmonary trunk. Define Aortic Valve - Correct Answer-Located between the left ventricle and aorta. Define Systole - Correct Answer-Is the period of contractions of both Arial and Ventricles. Define Diastole - Correct Answer-Is the period of relaxation and filling of all cardiac chambers. The right and left _____ _____ are the first branches coming out of Aorta and supply the heart with oxygenated blood. The blood runs through there arteries during diastole. Located on the epicardium. - Correct Answer-Coronary Arteries
The left coronary artery has two branches: - Correct Answer--Left Anterior Descending (LAD)
- Left Circumflex (LCX) There is only one main artery that supplies the right side of the heart: - Correct Answer- Right Coronary Artery (RCA) Define Heart Sounds - Correct Answer-Are caused by the closure of the heart valves. S1 First Heart Sound (Lubb) - Correct Answer-Occurs during ventricle contraction and the closure of AV valves. S2 Second Heart Sound (Dupp) - Correct Answer-Occurs during ventricular relaxation when SL valves (Pulmonary and Aortic valves) close. Define Murmurs - Correct Answer-Are caused by diseases of the valves or other structural abnormalities. Define Heart Rate - Correct Answer-Is the number of heart contractions per minute. The normal heart rate is _____ to _____ bpm. - Correct Answer-60 to 100 Abbreviation for Beats Per Minute - Correct Answer-bpm Abbreviation for Heart Rate - Correct Answer-HR Heart rate is controlled by _____ and _____ located in Aortic Arch and Carotid arteries.
- Correct Answer-Chemo-receptors (chemical sensors) and Baro-Receptors (pressure receptors) The heart is under the influence by the autonomic nervous system (ANS) which is subdivided into the _____ and _____ nervous systems. - Correct Answer-Sympathetic and Parasympathetic Parasympathetic (Vagus Nerve) - Correct Answer-Generally has an inhibitory effect via the neurotransmitter. Acetylcholine may cause what to happen: - Correct Answer--Slow SA pacemarker and HR
- Slow the conduction of electricity in AV node
- Decreased the strength of atrial and ventricular contraction Sympathetitc via the neurotransmitter Norepinehrine results: - Correct Answer-- Increases the HR
- Increases the force of contraction
