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NR 283 Pathophysiology Test Question Bank
- Which of the following areas lacks blood vessels and nerves? a. Epidermis b. Dermis c. Subcutaneous tissue d. Fatty tissue ANS: A REF: 142
- What is a raised, thin-walled lesion containing clear fluid called? a. Papule b. Pustule c. Vesicle d. Macule ANS: C REF: 143
- Which of the following is a common effect of a type I hypersensitivity response to ingested substances? a. Contact dermatitis b. Urticaria c. Discoid lupus erythematosus d. Psoriasis ANS: B REF: 145
- What change occurs in the skin with psoriasis? a. Recurrent hypersensitivity reactions b. Autoimmune response c. Increased mitosis and shedding of epithelium
d. Basal cell degeneration ANS: C REF: 147
- Which of the following best describes the typical lesion of psoriasis? a. Purplish papules that can erode and become open ulcers b. Firm, raised pruritic nodules that can become cancerous c. Moist, red vesicles, which develop into bleeding ulcers d. Begins as a red papule and develops into silvery plaques ANS: D REF: 147
- Why do secondary infections frequently develop in pruritic lesions? a. Loss of protective sebum b. Entry of resident flora while scratching the lesion c. Blockage of sebaceous glands d. Increased sweat production ANS: B REF: 148
- Which disease is considered an autoimmune disorder? a. Pemphigus b. Erysipelas c. Contact dermatitis d. Scleroderma ANS: A REF: 147
- Which of the following skin lesions are usually caused by Staphylococcus aureus? a. Furuncles b. Verrucae c. Scabies d. Tinea
- Tinea capitis is an infection involving the: a. trunk. b. feet. c. scalp. d. nails. ANS: C REF: 150
- Plantar warts are caused by: a. the fungus aspergillus. b. a parasitic arthropod. c. human papillomavirus. d. the bacterium Streptococcus pyogenes. ANS: C REF: 150
- Which of the following statements regarding acute necrotizing fasciitis is TRUE? a. Infection is localized in a small area of the epidermis. b. It is usually caused by S. aureus. c. Spontaneous recovery usually occurs in 48 hours. d. Infection rapidly causes extensive tissue necrosis and toxic shock. ANS: D REF: 149
- Which type of microbe causes Tinea infections? a. Fungus b. Virus c. Gram-negative bacterium d. Mite ANS: A REF: 150
- What causes the pruritus associated with scabies?
a. An allergic reaction to the causative microbe due to endotoxins b. Mites burrowing into the epidermis and reaction to their feces c. Bleeding and injected toxin from bites of the larvae d. Neurotoxins secreted by mites on the skin surface ANS: B REF: 152-
- How can pediculosis be diagnosed? a. Pruritus in hairy areas of the body b. Loss of blood due to lice bites c. Finding lice in clothing d. The presence of nits at the base of hair shafts ANS: D REF: 153
- What is the major predisposing factor to squamous cell carcinoma? a. Viral infection b. Presence of nevi (moles) on the skin c. Exposure to ultraviolet light d. Frequent hypersensitivity reactions ANS: C REF: 154
- All of the following statements apply to malignant melanoma EXCEPT: a. The malignant cell is a melanocyte. b. They present as non-pruritic purplish macules. c. The neoplasm grows rapidly and metastasizes early. d. The lesion is usually dark or multicolored with an irregular border. ANS: B REF: 155
- Which of the following factors has contributed to the increased incidence of Kaposi’s sarcoma?
b. checking the frequency of the exacerbations. c. noting the location and size of the lesion. d. the type of pain associated with the lesion. ANS: C REF: 145
- The pathological change associated with scleroderma is: a. abnormal activation of T lymphocytes and an increase of cytokines. b . an autoimmune reaction damaging the epidermis. c. collagen deposits in the small blood vessels of the skin and sometimes the viscera. d . Type I hypersensitivity and increased serum IgE levels. ANS: C REF: 147
- Choose the best description of the typical lesion of impetigo. a. Large, red, painful nodule filled with purulent exudates b. Small vesicles that rupture to produce a crusty brown pruritic mass c. Red, swollen, painful areas often with projecting red streaks d. Firm, raised papules that may have a rough surface and may be painful ANS: B REF: 149
- Choose the correct match of the skin condition and its usual location. a. Scabies—fingers, wrists, waist b. Impetigo—legs, feet c. Pediculosis humanus corporis—scalp d. Seborrheic keratosis—feet, hands ANS: A REF: 153
- Leprosy (Hansen’s disease) is caused by:
a. a fungus. b. a bacterium. c. a virus. d. a helminth. ANS: B REF: 149
- One factor that is responsible for increasing the mortality rate among patients suffering with necrotizing fasciitis is: a. a delay in initial diagnosis. b. lack of proper antibiotics. c. the appearance of additional opportunistic infections. d. secondary fungal infections. ANS: A REF: 149
- Which of the following would result from a reduced number of erythrocytes in the blood? a. Increased hemoglobin in the blood b. Decreased hematocrit c. Increased risk of hemostasis d. Decreased osmotic pressure of the blood ANS: B REF: 185
- What term is used to describe a deficit of all types of blood cells? a. Leucopenia b. Neutropenia c. Pancytopenia d. Erythrocytosis ANS: C REF: 205
- Capillary walls consist of:
b. lower metabolic rate. c. loss of protein and electrolytes. d. smaller amount of recycled iron available. ANS: D REF: 193
- What is the cause of sickle cell anemia? a. A defective gene inherited from both parents b. A chronic bacterial infection c. Bone marrow depression d. An autoimmune reaction ANS: A REF: 198
- Which of the following best describes the characteristic erythrocyte associated with pernicious anemia? a. Hypochromic, microcytic b. Normochromic, normocytic c. Elongated, sickle-shaped d. Megaloblastic or macrocytic nucleated cells ANS: D REF: 201
- What causes numbness and tingling in the fingers of individuals with untreated pernicious anemia? a. Persistent hyperbilirubinemia b. Increasing acidosis affecting metabolism c. Vitamin B 12 deficit causing peripheral nerve demyelination d. Multiple small vascular occlusions affecting peripheral nerves ANS: C REF: 195
- Jaundice is one typical sign of:
a. sickle cell anemia. b. aplastic anemia. c. iron deficiency anemia. d. acute leukemia. ANS: A REF: 198
- What are the typical early general signs and symptoms of anemia? a. Chest pain, palpitations b. Jaundice, stomatitis c. Pallor, dyspnea, and fatigue d. Bradycardia, heat intolerance ANS: C REF: 193
- What is the cause of oral ulcerations and delayed healing occurring with any severe anemia? a. Lack of folic acid for DNA synthesis b. Frequent microinfarcts in the tissues c. Deficit of oxygen for epithelial cell mitosis and metabolism d. Elevated bilirubin levels in blood and body fluids ANS: C REF: 193
- Which of the following is present with pernicious anemia? a. Pancytopenia b. Hypochlorhydria c. Leukocytosis d. Multiple infarcts ANS: B REF: 195
- Why is pernicious anemia treated with injections of vitamin B 12? a. An immune reaction in the stomach would destroy the vitamin.
c. Painful sickling crises with multiple infarctions occur frequently. d. A child’s skeletal growth is delayed. ANS: B REF: 198
- What is the basic abnormality in thalassemia? a. Several amino acids in the globin chains have been replaced by substitute amino acids. b . More than four globin chains are found in the erythrocytes. c. The iron molecule is displaced in hemoglobin. d . There is failure to synthesize either the alpha or beta chains in the hemoglobin molecule. ANS: D REF: 200
- Which of the following can result from a malabsorption problem? a. Aplastic anemia b. Sickle cell anemia c. Thalassemia major d. Pernicious anemia ANS: D REF: 195
- In individuals with pernicious anemia, antibodies form to: a. vitamin B 12. b. intrinsic factor or parietal cells. c. mucus-producing glands. d. hydrochloric acid. ANS: B REF: 195
- In cases of polycythemia vera, blood pressure is elevated as a result of: a. increased blood volume.
b. frequent infarcts in the coronary circulation. c. congested spleen and bone marrow. d. increased renin and aldosterone secretions. ANS: A REF: 205
- Petechiae and purpura are common signs of: a. excessive hemolysis. b. leucopenia. c. increased bleeding. d. hemoglobin deficit. ANS: C REF: 201
- Which statement applies to the disorder hemophilia A? a. It is transmitted as an X-linked dominant trait. b. There is usually a total lack of factor VIII in the blood. c. Males and females can be carriers. d. Hematomas and hemarthroses are common. ANS: D REF: 203
- Which of the following occurs when disseminated intravascular coagulation develops? a. Increased thrombocytes and blood clotting b. Hemolysis with loss of blood cells c. Massive sepsis and hemorrhage d. Multiple thrombi and deficit of clotting factors ANS: D REF: 203-
- Which of the following substances acts as an anticoagulant? a. Prothrombin b. Heparin
ANS: C REF: 206-
- Predisposing factors to leukemia commonly include: a. exposure to radiation. b. certain fungal and protozoal infections. c. familial tendency. d. cigarette smoking. ANS: A REF: 207
- Von Willebrand disease is caused by: a. defective erythrocytes that become deformed in shape, causing occlusions. b. excessive lymphocytes that do not mature. c. absence of a clotting factor that helps platelets clump and stick. d. a lack of hemoglobin due to iron deficiency. ANS: C REF: 203
- Thrombophilia can result in conditions such as: a. severe chronic kidney disease. b. peripheral vascular disease. c. deficient calcium levels in the long bones. d. excessive bleeding of hematomas. ANS: B REF: 204
- Multiple myeloma is a malignant tumor involving: a. plasma cells. b. granulocytes. c. bone cells. d. lymph nodes. ANS: A REF: 209
- What is the primary treatment for the leukemias? a. Radiation b. Chemotherapy c. Surgery d. Immunotherapy ANS: B REF: 207
- Which of the following statements applies to hemochromatosis. It is: a. caused by excessive iron intake in the diet. b . results from excessive hemolysis of RBCs. c. a metabolic error that leads to excess amounts of hemosiderin, causing damage to organs. d . an inherited defect that results in abnormal hemoglobin. ANS: C REF: 188
- Thalassemia is caused by: a. a defect in one or more genes for hemoglobin. b. an abnormal form of heme. c. abnormal liver production of amino acids and iron. d. overproduction of hypochromic, microcytic RBCs. ANS: A REF: 200
- Secondary polycythemia may be associated with: a. frequent angina attacks. b. certain types of anemia. c. severe chronic bronchitis. d. renal disease.
d. Lymphoid tissue produces abnormal leukocytes. ANS: A REF: 207
- A high percentage of blast cells in the leukocyte population indicates a poor prognosis for an individual with: a. thalassemia. b. acute myelogenous leukemia (AML). c. myelodysplastic syndrome. d. multiple myeloma. ANS: B REF: 208
- Which of the following applies to erythropoietin? a. It is produced by the liver. b. It increases iron absorption for heme production. c. It stimulates production of red blood cells. d. Hypoxia stimulates the red bone marrow to produce erythropoietin. ANS: C REF: 187 | 192
- Which of the following diagnostic tests would be within the normal range for an individual with hemophilia A? a. Bleeding time b. Coagulation time c. PTT time d. Prothrombin time ANS: A REF: 192
- Which of the following applies to the condition disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)? a. It is usually a secondary complication. b. It is always initiated by excessive bleeding.
c. It results in an inability of platelets to adhere. d. It is not life threatening. ANS: A REF: 203-
- In which blood dyscrasia does pancytopenia develop? a. Pernicious anemia b. Aplastic anemia c. Iron deficiency anemia d. Sickle cell anemia ANS: B REF: 205
- Which of the following applies to the etiology of aplastic anemia? It is: a. idiopathic in many cases. b. a genetic disorder. c. predisposed by exposure to myelotoxins. d. Both A and C. ANS: D REF: 197
- Microcytic and hypochromic erythrocytes are commonly found as a result of: a. iron deficiency anemia. b. polycythemia. c. disseminated intravascular coagulation. d. hemophilia A. ANS: A REF: 201
- Which of the following actions causes the atrioventricular (AV) valves to close? a. Increased intraventricular pressure b. Depolarization at the AV node c. Ventricular relaxation and backflow of blood
