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NR 602 Week 8 Final Exam / NR602 Week 8 Final
Exam(V2)( 7 0 Q & A)(NEWEST, 2020) : Chamberlain
College of Nursing (LATEST answers, Download to
score A)
NR 602 Week 8 Final Exam Practice:
Primary Care of the Childbearing and
Childrearing Family
Instructions
This practice exam consists of 70 multiple-choice questions designed to prepare you for the NR 602 Week 8 Final Exam at Chamberlain College of Nursing. The questions cover key topics in primary care for childbearing and childrearing families, including women’s health, pediatric care, STIs, contraception, and breast health. Each question includes four answer options, listed on separate lines, the correct answer, and a rationale explaining why the answer is correct. Use this to study and reinforce your understanding of the course material.
Question 1
What is the ASCCP recommended management for an ASCUS Pap result with a positive high- risk HPV 16 cotest in a 26-year-old woman without a history of abnormal Pap smears? a. Immediate hysterectomy b. Colposcopy c. Repeat Pap smear in 6 months d. No further action Correct Answer : b Rationale : According to ASCCP guidelines, an ASCUS (atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance) Pap result with a positive high-risk HPV 16 cotest in a 26-year-old requires colposcopy to evaluate for cervical abnormalities.
Question 2
A well-woman visit for an adolescent should include which of the following? a. Routine mammogram b. Discussion of sexual health and STI prevention c. Colonoscopy screening d. Bone density scan Correct Answer : b Rationale : A well-woman visit for an adolescent should include education on sexual health, STI prevention, and contraception, tailored to their developmental stage and needs.
Question 3
A Bethesda system Pap smear report that reads LSIL is most consistent with which classification? a. High-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion b. Low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion c. Atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance d. Cervical cancer Correct Answer : b Rationale : LSIL (low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion) indicates mild dysplasia, often associated with HPV infection, and is distinct from high-grade lesions or cancer.
Question 4
A single Pap smear reading of ASCUS in a patient negative for HPV infection should have what as follow-up? a. Immediate colposcopy b. Repeat Pap smear in 12 months c. Hysterectomy d. Cervical biopsy Correct Answer : b Rationale : For an ASCUS Pap result with negative HPV, ASCCP guidelines recommend repeating the Pap smear in 12 months, as the risk of significant pathology is low.
Question 5
A 35-year-old woman with no history of abnormal Pap smears has a normal Pap smear with HPV testing today. When should she have her next cervical cancer screening?
c. Condoms d. Intrauterine device Correct Answer : b Rationale : NuvaRing requires insertion into the vagina, which may be challenging for a woman with limited knowledge of reproductive anatomy and discomfort with vaginal insertion.
Question 9
Turner’s syndrome can be suspected when a patient has primary amenorrhea and: a. Short stature and webbed neck b. Tall stature and long limbs c. Obesity and hirsutism d. Normal height and irregular menses Correct Answer : a Rationale : Turner’s syndrome is characterized by primary amenorrhea, short stature, and webbed neck due to partial or complete X chromosome monosomy.
Question 10
Which contraceptive method is best for a woman with sickle cell anemia? a. Combination oral contraceptives b. Transdermal contraceptive patch c. Progestin-only contraceptives d. Female condom Correct Answer : c Rationale : Progestin-only contraceptives are preferred for women with sickle cell anemia, as combination hormonal contraceptives increase the risk of thromboembolism.
Question 11
A patient taking metronidazole and cimetidine concurrently is at risk for: a. Bothersome side effects from metronidazole b. Decreased effectiveness of cimetidine c. Renal impairment d. Severe disulfiram-type reaction
Correct Answer : a Rationale : Cimetidine can increase metronidazole levels, leading to increased risk of side effects such as nausea or metallic taste.
Question 12
A sexually active 18-year-old presents with postcoital spotting, dysuria, and a yellow discharge. The cervix is erythematous and bleeds with contact. The most likely diagnosis is: a. Cervical cancer b. Chlamydia c. Primary syphilis d. Tampon injury Correct Answer : b Rationale : Chlamydia often presents with postcoital spotting, dysuria, yellow discharge, and cervical friability in young, sexually active women.
Question 13
One of the leading causes of female infertility, Stein-Leventhal syndrome, is also known as: a. Pelvic inflammatory disease b. Polycystic ovary syndrome c. Multiple sex partners d. Ectopic pregnancy syndrome Correct Answer : b Rationale : Stein-Leventhal syndrome is another name for polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS), a common cause of infertility due to ovulatory dysfunction.
Question 14
An HIV test is indicated for a: a. 18-year-old female whose partner has a history of genital warts b. 24-year-old female with current genital warts as adjunct to Pap test c. 30-year-old female with no history of genital warts as adjunct to Pap test d. 67-year-old female with a new sex partner in the past year Correct Answer : d Rationale : HIV testing is recommended for individuals with new sexual partners, especially in higher-risk groups, such as a 67-year-old with a new partner.
Question 18
Which statement is accurate regarding the usefulness of mammograms in breast cancer screening? a. They are 100% accurate in detecting cancer b. They are effective in reducing mortality in women over 40 c. They are recommended annually for women under 30 d. They eliminate the need for clinical breast exams Correct Answer : b Rationale : Mammograms are effective in reducing breast cancer mortality in women over 40 but are not 100% accurate and do not replace clinical exams.
Question 19
A 45-year-old woman has an abnormal screening mammogram. The next step in management should be: a. Repeat mammogram in 6 months b. Diagnostic mammogram c. Immediate mastectomy d. No further action Correct Answer : b Rationale : An abnormal screening mammogram requires a diagnostic mammogram to further evaluate the findings.
Question 20
What recommendation should be made to a 70-year-old female regarding mammograms? a. Annual mammograms are mandatory b. Discontinue mammograms due to age c. Continue biennial mammograms based on health status d. Switch to monthly clinical breast exams Correct Answer : c Rationale : For women aged 70, mammogram screening should be individualized based on health status, often continuing biennially if life expectancy is sufficient.
Question 21
The most appropriate management for gonorrhea in a male patient includes: a. Ceftriaxone 500 mg intramuscular single dose b. Penicillin 500 mg orally c. Doxycycline 100 mg twice daily for 7 days d. Azithromycin 1 g orally Correct Answer : a Rationale : Ceftriaxone (500 mg IM for patients <150 kg) is the preferred treatment for gonorrhea due to its efficacy and resistance patterns.
Question 22
A patient with gonorrhea should be advised to notify sexual partners from the past: a. 30 days b. 60 days c. 90 days d. 6 months Correct Answer : b Rationale : Partners from the past 60 days should be notified for evaluation and treatment to prevent further transmission of gonorrhea.
Question 23
The most likely diagnosis for a male patient with urethritis and purulent discharge is: a. Herpes simplex virus b. Syphilis c. Gonorrhea d. Chlamydia Correct Answer : c Rationale : Gonorrhea commonly presents with urethritis and purulent discharge in males, with symptoms appearing 2–5 days after exposure.
Question 24
A 4-month-old boy is found to have an undescended testis during a physical exam. The next step is: a. Immediate surgical correction b. Ultrasound to locate the testis
Correct Answer : b Rationale : MRSA requires contact precautions to prevent transmission through direct contact or contaminated surfaces.
Question 28
Role-play with equipment during a physical exam is most beneficial for which group? a. Adolescents b. Toddlers c. Adults d. Elderly Correct Answer : b Rationale : Role-play with equipment helps reduce fear and engage toddlers during physical exams, making the process more cooperative.
Question 29
When performing a physical exam on a toddler, which body part should be examined last? a. Heart b. Lungs c. Ears d. Abdomen Correct Answer : c Rationale : Ears are examined last in toddlers, as otoscopy can be uncomfortable and may cause distress, affecting cooperation.
Question 30
An infant with a temperature of 102°F, refusal to breastfeed, and noisy breathing is likely diagnosed with: a. Otitis media b. RSV bronchiolitis c. Pneumonia d. Croup Correct Answer : b Rationale : RSV bronchiolitis presents with fever, respiratory distress, and refusal to feed in infants, often with noisy, labored breathing.
Question 31
When educating parents about febrile seizures, which is true? a. They indicate epilepsy b. Children may experience repeated seizures c. They require immediate hospitalization d. They cause permanent brain damage Correct Answer : b Rationale : Febrile seizures may recur in some children, but they are generally benign and do not indicate epilepsy or cause brain damage.
Question 32
A boy with a sudden painful limp and fever likely has: a. Septic arthritis b. Transient synovitis c. Osteomyelitis d. Slipped capital femoral epiphysis Correct Answer : b Rationale : Transient synovitis is a common cause of a painful limp in children, often associated with a recent viral infection and fever.
Question 33
Which antibiotic is not typically used to treat strep pharyngitis? a. Penicillin b. Amoxicillin c. Azithromycin d. Levofloxacin Correct Answer : d Rationale : Levofloxacin is not a first-line treatment for strep pharyngitis, unlike penicillin, amoxicillin, or azithromycin.
Question 34
Correct Answer : b Rationale : Breast lumps in a 42-year-old woman require a diagnostic mammogram to evaluate for potential malignancy.
Question 38
For a child with chronic constipation, expected physical exam findings include: a. Severe abdominal distension b. Generalized discomfort and mild abdominal pain c. High fever d. Bloody diarrhea Correct Answer : b Rationale : Chronic constipation in children typically presents with generalized discomfort and mild abdominal pain, not severe symptoms.
Question 39
Which resource is appropriate for a patient requesting complementary alternative medicine (CAM) for STI treatment? a. Antibiotic therapy b. Acupuncture for symptom relief c. Increased fluid intake d. Over-the-counter antivirals Correct Answer : b Rationale : Acupuncture may be suggested for symptom relief in CAM, but it should complement, not replace, standard STI treatment.
Question 40
The most likely diagnosis for a patient with unilateral bloody nipple discharge is: a. Fibrocystic breast changes b. Breast cancer c. Mastitis d. Benign fibroadenoma Correct Answer : b Rationale : Unilateral bloody nipple discharge is a red flag for breast cancer and requires further diagnostic evaluation.
Question 41
A sexually active client from a marginalized community is at higher risk for: a. Hypertension b. STIs c. Osteoporosis d. Diabetes Correct Answer : b Rationale : Marginalized communities, such as LGBTQ+ or low-income groups, face higher risks of STIs due to barriers in healthcare access.
Question 42
The gold standard diagnostic test for gonorrhea is: a. Blood culture b. Nucleic acid amplification test (NAAT) c. Urine dipstick d. Physical exam Correct Answer : b Rationale : NAAT is the gold standard for diagnosing gonorrhea due to its high sensitivity and specificity.
Question 43
A child with suspected dehydration has a capillary refill time of 3 seconds. This indicates: a. Normal hydration b. Mild dehydration c. Moderate dehydration d. Severe dehydration Correct Answer : c Rationale : A CRT of 3 seconds suggests moderate dehydration, as normal CRT is <2 seconds.
Question 44
c. 50 d. 60 Correct Answer : b Rationale : The American Cancer Society recommends annual mammograms starting at age 40 for women at average risk.
Question 48
A dancer requesting a renewal of her birth control pill prescription should be counseled on: a. Discontinuing contraception due to activity level b. Adherence and potential side effects c. Switching to a non-hormonal method d. No need for contraception Correct Answer : b Rationale : Counseling on adherence and side effects ensures safe and effective use of oral contraceptives.
Question 49
The most appropriate management for a child with impetigo is: a. Oral antibiotics b. Topical steroids c. Antiviral therapy d. Observation only Correct Answer : a Rationale : Impetigo is treated with oral or topical antibiotics, such as mupirocin or cephalexin, to eradicate bacterial infection.
Question 50
A 26-year-old woman with a positive high-risk HPV 16 test and normal Pap smear should have: a. Immediate hysterectomy b. Colposcopy c. Repeat testing in 12 months d. No further action
Correct Answer : b Rationale : A positive high-risk HPV 16 test, even with a normal Pap smear, warrants colposcopy to evaluate for cervical dysplasia.
Question 51
The most common symptom of gonorrhea in women is: a. Painful urination b. Vaginal discharge c. Fever d. Joint pain Correct Answer : b Rationale : Vaginal discharge is the most common symptom of gonorrhea in women, though many are asymptomatic.
Question 52
A 7-year-old with a fever and sore throat tests positive for group A Streptococcus. The treatment is: a. Azithromycin 500 mg daily for 5 days b. Amoxicillin 50 mg/kg/day for 10 days c. Ceftriaxone 500 mg IM d. No treatment needed Correct Answer : b Rationale : Amoxicillin is the first-line treatment for strep pharyngitis in children, dosed at 50 mg/kg/day for 10 days.
Question 53
A 6-month-old infant with dehydration shows: a. Normal CRT and moist mucous membranes b. Sunken eyes and prolonged CRT c. Increased urine output d. Normal skin turgor Correct Answer : b Rationale : Dehydration in infants presents with sunken eyes, prolonged CRT, and other signs like decreased urine output.
The recommended follow-up for a patient treated for gonorrhea is: a. 1 week b. 1 month c. 3 months d. 6 months Correct Answer : c Rationale : Follow-up at 3 months is recommended to evaluate treatment response, reinfection, and test for other STIs.
Question 58
A 40-year-old woman with a family history of breast cancer should: a. Begin mammograms at age 35 b. Avoid mammograms due to risk c. Begin mammograms at age 50 d. Rely on clinical breast exams only Correct Answer : a Rationale : Women with a family history of breast cancer should begin mammogram screening at age 35, earlier than the general population.
Question 59
The most appropriate management for a child with transient synovitis is: a. Surgical intervention b. NSAIDs and rest c. Antibiotics d. Physical therapy Correct Answer : b Rationale : Transient synovitis is managed with NSAIDs and rest, as it is a self-limiting condition often following a viral infection.
Question 60
A 16-year-old female requests STI screening. The nurse practitioner should: a. Screen for chlamydia and gonorrhea annually b. Screen only if symptomatic
c. Screen every 5 years d. Avoid screening due to age Correct Answer : a Rationale : Sexually active adolescents should be screened annually for chlamydia and gonorrhea due to high risk.
Question 61
A 5-year-old with impetigo should avoid: a. School until lesions are healed b. All physical activity c. Contact with family members d. Handwashing Correct Answer : a Rationale : Children with impetigo should avoid school until lesions are healed or treatment has been ongoing for 24 hours to prevent spread.
Question 62
A 28-year-old woman with a normal Pap smear and positive HPV test should have: a. Immediate hysterectomy b. Colposcopy c. Repeat testing in 6 months d. No further action Correct Answer : b Rationale : A positive HPV test with a normal Pap smear requires colposcopy to evaluate for cervical abnormalities.
Question 63
The most common presenting symptom of chlamydia in women is: a. Asymptomatic b. Severe pelvic pain c. Heavy menstrual bleeding d. Fever
