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NREMT AIRWAY PRACTICE QUESTIONS
What differences in a child's airway might make airway management more difficult than in an adult? A. smaller jaw, smaller teeth B. longer airway and small tongue C. a smaller jaw and a proportionally larger tongue D. There are no anatomic differences that affect airway management in children versus adults. - Correct answer C. Smaller Jaw and proportionally larger tongue A normal respiratory rate for an adult is ____ while a normal respiratory rate for a newborn is ____. A. 8 to16 and 20 to 40 B. 22 to 30 and 50 C. 12 to 20 and 30 to 60 D. 12 to 20 and 16 to 24 - Correct answer C. 12 to 20 and 30 to 60 What is the first thing you should do before inserting a nasopharyngeal airway? A. Make sure the patient does not have a gag reflex. B. Look up the nose to make sure the nostrils are large enough for a nasopharyngeal airway. C. Select the correct size. D. Tilt the head back, lube the airway, and insert it into the nostril. - Correct answer C. Select the correct size. Emergency care for patients who are not breathing adequately but have a pulse includes all of the following except ____. A. CPR B. supplemental oxygen C. airway management D. ventilatory support - Correct answer A. CPR
You arrive on scene to find a young woman who is having trouble talking. She has hives and is starting to gasp for air. Her friend says she was just stung by a bee. Your immediate actions should include all of the following except ____. A. assess the bee sting for signs of an infection B. administer epinephrine (If your state and local EMS protocols allow) C. provide airway support D. administer supplemental oxygen - Correct answer A. assess the bee sting for signs of an infection You're called to a home and find an unresponsive male. Family members said he "passed out." You assess the scene to be safe. The next thing you should do is: A. Get a blood pressure to determine if it's too low and may have caused him to pass out. B. Get a temperature to determine if he has heat stroke. C. Check the patient's blood sugar; he might be a diabetic. D. Simultaneously check for a pulse and breathing. - Correct answer D. Simultaneously check for a pulse and breathing. Wheezing can be described as ____. A. wet, crackling sound B. a high-pitched whistling sound C. loud snoring sound D. tiny popping sound - Correct answer B. a high-pitched whistling sound Wheezing is produced by narrowing or obstruction of the lower airways, which often causes a high-pitched, whistling sound as the air travels through the narrowed space. You're responding to a call for a 44 year-old woman who is complaining of feeling anxious and states, "I can't breathe." You should do the following: A. Assess her respiratory rate and rhythm, check her oxygen saturation and listen to her lungs.
To maintain adequate perfusion, manual ventilation should be performed at a rate of 1 breath every 5 to 6 seconds in an adult, for a total of 10 to 12 breaths a minute. In a child, manual ventilation should be performed at a rate of 1 breath every 3 to 5 seconds, for a total of 12 to 20 breaths per minute. A nasal cannula can be run at how many LPM? A. 1 to 6 LPM B. 5 to 10 LPM C. 1 to 15 LPM D. 1 to 8 LPM - Correct answer A. 1 to 6 LPM You are manually ventilating a patient using a bag valve mask (BVM). The patient is connected to a pulse oximetry and the oxygen saturation reading is 80. You do not see the chest rise. What steps can you take? A. Do a finger sweep of the mouth to make sure it's clear. B. Put down the ambu bag and start mouth to mouth resuscitation using a barrier device. C. Reposition the head and make sure you have a tight seal with the mask. D. Squeeze the bag much faster. - Correct answer C. Reposition the head and make sure you have a tight seal with the mask. To ensure ventilations are effective, make sure the airway is open by repositioning the head. It's also essential to have a tight seal between the patient's face and the mask or air will escape and not be delivered to the patient's lungs. You're on scene at a high school football game. A football player collapsed to the ground. He has a pulse, a respiratory rate of 4 breaths per minute, breaths are very shallow and he is grunting slightly. Airway management should include ____. A. administering supplemental oxygen with a nasal cannula at 2 LPM B. performing manual ventilation with supplemental oxygen
C. placing a nasal airway and a non-rebreather with an oxygen flow of 10 LPM D. doing a head tilt-chin lift maneuver, placing an oral airway and transporting - Correct answer B. performing manual ventilation with supplemental oxygen *The patient is not ventilating adequately. A RR of 4 is too low and he needs ventilatory support. Placing a non-rebreather or nasal cannula will not be sufficient since he has a poor spontaneous respiratory effort. While the "grunting may be an indicator of an obstruction, it would not be a reason to withhold manual ventilation. The lungs are made up of how many lobes? A. 5 B. 2 C. 4 D. 6 - Correct answer A. 5 ** There are three lobes on the right lung including the upper, middle and lower. The left lung has two lobes including the upper and lower. The left lung only has two lobes because of the room needed for the heart, which is on the left side. You arrive on scene to a car accident and are treating a 35 year-old patient. He is unresponsive and not breathing. You should open his airway by ____. A. doing the jaw thrust maneuver B. placing a cervical collar and then doing a head tilt-chin lift C. doing the head tilt-chin lift D. opening his mouth wide, while slightly hyperextending his neck - Correct answer A. doing the jaw thrust maneuver ** The patient was in a car accident and injuries are not entirely known. The jaw thrust technique should be used to open the airway if a cervical injury is suspected.
A. Switch to a nasal cannula. B. Make sure the bag is connected to an O2 source and the flow is at least 10 LPM. C. Tell the patient to take deeper breaths and blow out harder. D. Tell the patient to relax and breathe slower. - Correct answer B. Make sure the bag is connected to an O2 source and the flow is at least 10 LPM. ** A non-rebreather should be used with an oxygen flow rate high enough to inflate the reservoir bag, which is a minimum of 10 LPM. Switching to a nasal cannula will not deliver the same FIO2. The rate or depth a person inhales does not cause the reservoir bag to collapse. Symptoms of asthma most often include ____. A. fever and runny nose B. wheezing, shortness of breath, and coughing C. headache D. vomiting and confusion - Correct answer B. wheezing, shortness of breath, and coughing **Asthma causes a constriction of the airways and increased mucus production, which often causes shortness of breath, wheezing breath sounds, and a cough. Fever, vomiting, confusion and a runny nose are not typical. What is the time frame in which cardiogenic shock can occur after an acute myocardial infarction (AMI)? A. between 24 hours and 48 hours after the onset of AMI B. immediately and up to 48 hours after the onset of AMI C. immediately and up to a week after the onset of AMI D. immediately and up to 24 hours after onset of AMI - Correct answer D. immediately and up to 24 hours after onset of AMI
** Cardiogenic shock is a condition in which the heart suddenly cannot pump enough blood to meet the demands of the body. It typically occurs within 24 hours of an AMI. It is important to know the signs and symptoms of cardiogenic shock, as without prompt treatment it often proves fatal. ____ is when the heart muscles are not strong enough to accomplish the job of pumping blood throughout the body. A. transient ischemic attack (TIA) B. acute myocardial infarction (AMI) C. pulmonary edema D. Congestive Heart Failure (CHF) - Correct answer D. Congestive Heart Failure (CHF) ** When the ventricular heart muscle lacks the ability to pump blood adequately and do the job of moving blood through from the atria, it is referred to as congestive heart failure (CHF). This lack of pumping action creates fluid stasis to the pulmonary veins and excess fluid volumes that interfere with proper heart function. Compare acute myocardial infarction and dissecting aortic aneurysm pain. A. Acute myocardial infarction pain feels like tightness/pressure, while dissecting aortic aneurysm pain is a ripping/tearing sensation. B. Dissecting aortic aneurysm pain often follows other symptoms, like sweating and nausea, while acute myocardial infarction pain usually does not. C. Pain from a dissecting aortic aneurysm and acute myocardial infarction both "come and go" and both are usually described as "stabbing," rather than "pressure." D. Acute myocardial infarction pain is a sharp, tearing sensation, while dissecting aortic aneurysm pain feels like tightness/pressure. - Correct answer A. Acute myocardial infarction pain feels like tightness/pressure, while dissecting aortic aneurysm pain is a ripping/tearing sensation.
Which could be a reason that acetylsalicylic acid (ASA) was not administered to a patient in a cardiovascular emergency? A. stomach ulcer B. all of these C. Documented Allergy D. bleeding condition - Correct answer C. Documented Allergy ** ASA is a key and best practice preventative measure for cardiac emergencies. While stomach ulcers and bleeding conditions might be a contraindication for therapeutic ASA use, neither would preclude its use in a cardiac emergency because keeping the patient alive would override most possible side effects. If there is a documented (proven, not just stated by the patient or a bystander) allergy to ASA, consult a medical professional, if time permits. Select the best answer regarding the precautions that are necessary for the administration of nitroglycerin tabs. A. Wear gloves; check expiration and medication prescription ownership to current patient. B. Check expiration and medication prescription ownership to current patient. C. Wear gloves and mask, check expiration, and make sure the medicine is prescribed to the patient. D. Check expiration and wear gloves. - Correct answer A. Wear gloves; check expiration and medication prescription ownership to current patient. ** Nitroglycerin is absorbed through the skin and the administrator should wears gloves to prevent contact. A mask is not necessary. Checking expiration and correct ownership ensures both potency of medication and correct patient for medication.
The administration of nitroglycerin by an EMT requires direction from medical control or a standing order, but which of these should you immediately note as a contraindication for the administration of this drug? A. patient diagnosed with angina B. patient taking medication for erectile dysfunction C. patient with systolic blood pressure over 100 D. patient reports burning sensation under the tongue with previous administrations - Correct answer B. patient taking medication for erectile dysfunction ** Medications for erectile dysfunction and nitroglycerin can interact with fatal results. On the other hand, nitroglycerin is often prescribed to reduce the pain of angina attacks and the patient's systolic blood pressure should be over 100 for administration. Also, it is common for there to be a slight burning sensation under the tongue when nitroglycerin is administered. Select the most accurate list of precautions/contraindications for use with nitroglycerin? A. use of lasix, systolic blood pressure under 100mm/Hg, and erectile dysfunction drugs B. use of erectile dysfunction drugs, head injury, and systolic blood pressure under 100mm/Hg C. use of ASA and digoxin D. systolic blood pressure under 120 mm/Hg use of erectile dysfunction drugs - Correct answer B. use of erectile dysfunction drugs, head injury, and systolic blood pressure under 100mm/Hg
** All patients, regardless of heart history, will receive the same assessment and treatment related to cardiac emergencies.There are no special indications for a patient with history of cardiac devices or surgery. You come on the scene of a 2-year-old patient with her grandparents.The child has no pulse, is unresponsive, and does not have a history of heart problems. No CPR has been initiated. Select the best option for the next steps. A. Shake and shout. B. Attach AED and begin CPR process. C. Attach AED and use chest thrust in case of aspiration. D. Attach AED and perform four back slaps. - Correct answer B. Attach AED and begin CPR process. ** Cardiac arrest is uncommon in children with no history. If there are no pulses, respiratory incident is most likely the cause. AED will help guide cardiac concerns and starting CPR for a child will initiate assessment of airway obstruction. Identify the sequential links of the chain of survival for cardiac emergencies. A. Identify early warning signs and activate EMS, CPR, AED use, basic and advanced EMS, ALS post care. B. Activate EMS and identify early warning signs, AED use, basic and advanced EMS, ALS post care. C. Identify early warning signs and activate EMS, CPR, basic and advanced EMS, ALS post care.
D. Activate EMS and basic and advanced EMS, identify early warning signs, CPR, and AED use - Correct answer A. Identify early warning signs and activate EMS, CPR, AED use, basic and advanced EMS, ALS post care. ** There are five vital steps in this chain of care. The key to success is the sequential administration of the links, in order, without missing a link. Missing one link decreases the chance of survival. Note that CPR should be immediately resumed after the first AED shock. Also, the AED will analyze the patient's heart function and prompt the user concerning shocks and use of continued CPR. If your AED says, "no shock advised" because patient rhythm is asystole, what is your immediate next step? A. Begin CPR, starting with compressions. B. Begin CPR, starting with heart auscultation. C. Begin CPR, starting with two quick breaths. D. No intervention is needed. - Correct answer A. Begin CPR, starting with compressions. ** To provide immediate support, manual CPR should be started, even if the patient is asystole and the AED says not to shock. You encounter a 4-month-old baby in cardiac arrest of unknown cause. What type of defibrillator is recommended and ideal to use? A. AED with pediatric dose attenuator B. manual defibrillator C. any AED
The pulse of the unconscious patient should be checked during transport every ____ seconds. A. 15 B. 30 C. 10 D. 60 - Correct answer B. 30 ** The status of a revived or stable patient can change during transport, as complications from unknown or unforeseen etiology can change rapidly. Close observation allows the care provider to notice even subtle changes in status and make interventions as appropriate. Note that a pulse may be checked for 10 seconds and multiplied by 6. What is the best description of the National Incident Management System (NIMS)? A. NIMS provides guidelines and common terms to allow multiple agencies to work together. B. NIMS is used to prevent incidents from occurring. C. NIMS is the command structure to dictate an emergency response. D. NIMS provides a framework for the federal government to take responsibility for an incident. - Correct answer A. NIMS provides guidelines and common terms to allow multiple agencies to work together. ** NIMS provides a framework to enable federal, state, and local governments, as well as private sector and nongovernmental organizations, to work together effectively. It does not dictate responsibility, nor does it aid in prevention. Remember, you are looking for the best description, here. What is the advantage of using the Incident Command System (ICS)?
A. The ICS provides common guidelines for responding to an incident. B. The ICS is a rigid structure to establish command over an incident. C. The ICS provides a framework to enable federal, state, and local governments, as well as private sector and nongovernmental organizations, to work together effectively. D. The ICS gives you a modular organizational structure that can be applied to incidents of all sizes. - Correct answer D. The ICS gives you a modular organizational structure that can be applied to incidents of all sizes. ** The ICS provides for a communication structure to help responders from multiple agencies work together and avoid duplication of effort and "freelancing." What is the name of the reference used to determine the initial response to a Hazardous Materials (HazMat) incident? A. the Material Safety Data Sheet B. the Shipping Paper C. the DOT Emergency Response Guide D. CHEMTREC - Correct answer C. the DOT Emergency Response Guide **While all these documents do provide information about emergency response, the Emergency Response Guide provides immediate information and could be the only accessible document on scene. It should be in all emergency vehicles and is available online. Upon arrival on a scene, your first responsibility is to ____.
A. the same B. It depends on the weight of the baby. C. slower D. faster - Correct answer D. faster ** A normal heart rate for a newborn is 90 to 180. By the time a baby reaches one year, the heart rate is normally 80 to 130. The female reproductive system includes all of the following except: A. fallopian tubes B. ovaries C. vagina D. ureter - Correct answer D. ureter ** The ureter is part of the urinary system. The ovaries, fallopian tubes, and vagina are all considered part of the female reproductive system. In school-age children between 6 and 12, the leading cause of death is ____. A. unintentional injuries B. cancer C. child abuse D. choking - Correct answer A. unintentional injuries **Injuries sustained from accidents are reported by the CDC to be the number one cause of death in children in this age group.
When dealing with a medical call, your primary assessment should focus on ____. A. complete medical history B. the nature of the illness, chief complaint, and symptoms C. a thorough head to toe exam D. patient's mechanism of injury - Correct answer B. the nature of the illness, chief complaint, and symptoms ** Focusing on the symptoms and nature of the illness will allow you to make a quick assessment and determine the most appropriate course of action. The mechanism of injury is a greater focus on a trauma call. The most important aspect of a scene size-up is ____. A. determining if the scene is safe B. deciding whether it is a medical or trauma call C. figuring out if you or your partner will take the lead, based on the type of illness or injuries D. counting the number of patients - Correct answer A. determining if the scene is safe ** It's essential to make sure the scene is safe before you attempt to care for the patient. Failing to do so can result in injury to you or your partner, which only creates more patients that need to be treated. Determining if you need additional help and how many patients you have should also be noted, but safety comes first. You're called to the home of a 65-year-old man. When you arrive, your primary survey should include a rapid assessment to determine if the patient's condition is life-threatening. You should look for visual clues, including ____.
