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NSG 1700 PATHOPHYSIOLOGY MIDTERM
EXAM 2 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) PLUS
RATIONALES 2025 GALEN COLLEGE OF
NURSING
1. What is the primary function of the sodium-potassium pump in cellular physiology? A. Promote passive transport B. Maintain cellular electrochemical gradient C. Produce ATP D. Synthesize proteins The sodium-potassium pump actively moves sodium out and potassium into the cell to maintain membrane potential, which is critical for nerve impulse transmission and muscle contraction. 2. Which condition results from a deficiency in antidiuretic hormone (ADH)?
A. Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) B. Hypothyroidism C. Diabetes insipidus D. Addison’s disease Diabetes insipidus is characterized by a deficiency of ADH, leading to excessive water loss and dilute urine.
3. What is the hallmark of acute inflammation? A. Cyanosis B. Jaundice C. Redness and swelling D. Atrophy Acute inflammation causes vasodilation and increased capillary permeability, resulting in redness and swelling. 4. Which organ is primarily responsible for filtering blood and removing waste in the body? A. Liver B. Kidneys C. Pancreas D. Lungs The kidneys filter the blood, removing waste products and excess substances via urine. 5. Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly associated with kidney failure?
8. In a myocardial infarction, what causes cellular death? A. Infection B. Ischemia due to blocked coronary artery C. Arrhythmia D. Valve prolapse A blocked coronary artery prevents oxygenated blood from reaching the myocardium, causing cell death. 9. What is a primary function of the lymphatic system? A. Transport oxygen B. Drain excess interstitial fluid C. Generate insulin D. Produce red blood cells The lymphatic system removes excess fluid from tissues and plays a role in immune defense. 10. Which hormone increases blood glucose levels? A. Glucagon B. Insulin C. Aldosterone D. Cortisol Glucagon raises blood glucose by promoting glycogen breakdown in the liver.
11. What lab value is most indicative of chronic kidney disease? A. Elevated AST B. Decreased WBC C. Elevated serum creatinine D. High HDL Serum creatinine increases when kidneys are unable to effectively filter waste products. 12. Which compensatory mechanism is triggered in metabolic acidosis? A. Renal retention of hydrogen ions B. Hyperventilation to blow off CO₂ C. Hypoventilation D. Increased insulin secretion The lungs compensate for metabolic acidosis by increasing respiratory rate to remove CO₂, a source of acid. 13. What is a common cause of peptic ulcer disease? A. Excessive alcohol B. Helicobacter pylori infection C. Hyperthyroidism D. Stress H. pylori damages the gastric mucosa, making it more susceptible to acid and pepsin. 14. Which of the following is an example of innate immunity? A. Skin barrier
C. Hyperkalemia D. Hyponatremia These neuromuscular signs indicate low calcium levels affecting muscle excitability.
18. A client with COPD retains CO₂. What acid-base imbalance is expected? A. Metabolic acidosis B. Respiratory acidosis C. Metabolic alkalosis D. Respiratory alkalosis CO₂ retention due to impaired ventilation causes respiratory acidosis. 19. Which heart condition is caused by uncoordinated electrical activity in the atria? A. Ventricular tachycardia B. Sinus bradycardia C. Atrial fibrillation D. Heart block Atrial fibrillation is an irregular rhythm due to chaotic electrical impulses in the atria. 20. What is a common sign of left-sided heart failure? A. Pulmonary congestion B. Peripheral edema C. Jugular vein distension D. Hepatomegaly
Left-sided failure leads to blood backing up into the lungs, causing pulmonary symptoms.
21. What process allows cancer cells to spread to distant organs? A. Mitosis B. Apoptosis C. Metastasis D. Differentiation Metastasis refers to the spread of cancer cells through the blood or lymph to other parts of the body. 22. Which enzyme is responsible for clot formation? A. Fibrinogen B. Prothrombin C. Thrombin D. Heparin Thrombin converts fibrinogen to fibrin, forming a stable clot. 23. Which neurotransmitter is deficient in Parkinson’s disease? A. Serotonin B. Dopamine C. GABA D. Norepinephrine Dopamine deficiency in the basal ganglia causes motor symptoms in Parkinson’s disease.
A. ADH
B. Calcitonin C. Erythropoietin D. Cortisol Erythropoietin stimulates red blood cell production when oxygen levels are low.
28. Which condition results from a deficiency of insulin and excessive breakdown of fats? A. Hyperosmolar syndrome B. Diabetic ketoacidosis C. SIADH D. Hyperparathyroidism In diabetic ketoacidosis, the lack of insulin leads to fat metabolism and ketone production. 29. What is the main site of nutrient absorption in the gastrointestinal tract? A. Stomach B. Small intestine C. Large intestine D. Esophagus The small intestine has villi that absorb most nutrients, especially in the jejunum.
30. What is the main cause of hepatic encephalopathy? A. Infection B. Ammonia buildup due to liver dysfunction C. Hypoglycemia D. Stroke In liver failure, ammonia accumulates because the liver cannot detoxify it, leading to CNS effects. 31. Which disorder is characterized by demyelination of neurons in the central nervous system? A. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis B. Guillain-Barré syndrome C. Multiple sclerosis D. Myasthenia gravis Multiple sclerosis is an autoimmune condition that destroys the myelin sheath in the CNS, disrupting nerve conduction. 32. Which laboratory result would you expect in a patient with dehydration? A. Elevated hematocrit B. Low sodium C. Decreased osmolality D. Low BUN
Anaphylactic shock occurs due to massive histamine release, causing vasodilation and decreased perfusion.
36. Which condition involves the buildup of uric acid in joints? A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Gout C. Osteoarthritis D. Lupus Gout is caused by hyperuricemia, leading to urate crystal deposition in joints. 37. What is the most common cause of ischemic stroke? A. Hemorrhage B. Brain tumor C. Thrombus or embolus blocking cerebral blood flow D. Trauma Most ischemic strokes result from a clot blocking a cerebral artery, reducing oxygen to the brain. 38. A patient with a spinal cord injury at T6 or above is at risk for which complication? A. Autonomic dysreflexia B. Seizures C. Neurogenic shock D. CVA
Autonomic dysreflexia is a potentially life-threatening condition triggered by a noxious stimulus below the injury site.
39. What electrolyte abnormality is associated with prolonged QT interval? A. Hypocalcemia B. Hyperkalemia C. Hypernatremia D. Hyperchloremia Hypocalcemia prolongs the repolarization phase of the cardiac cycle, leading to a prolonged QT interval. 40. What is a hallmark symptom of right-sided heart failure? A. Dyspnea B. Pulmonary edema C. Peripheral edema D. Crackles Right-sided heart failure leads to systemic venous congestion, causing peripheral edema. 41. Which virus is known to be oncogenic and linked to cervical cancer? A. Epstein-Barr virus B. Human papillomavirus (HPV) C. Hepatitis A D. Influenza
45. In DKA, why does the body produce ketones? A. Excess protein metabolism B. Liver failure C. Fat breakdown due to lack of insulin D. Excess insulin levels In DKA, insulin deficiency leads to fat metabolism for energy, producing acidic ketones. 46. What is the most common cause of acute pancreatitis? A. Viral infection B. Gallstones and alcohol use C. Hypercalcemia D. Smoking Gallstones and chronic alcohol use are the two leading causes of acute pancreatitis. 47. A patient with SIADH is at risk for which electrolyte disturbance? A. Hyperkalemia B. Hyponatremia C. Hypernatremia D. Hypocalcemia SIADH causes water retention, diluting serum sodium and resulting in hyponatremia.
48. Which type of immunity is acquired through vaccination? A. Natural passive B. Artificial active C. Natural active D. Artificial passive Vaccination introduces antigens that stimulate the immune system to produce antibodies—artificial active immunity. 49. What is the primary concern with a pulmonary embolism? A. Liver damage B. Impaired gas exchange and hypoxia C. Abdominal pain D. Bradycardia A pulmonary embolism blocks blood flow to lung tissue, preventing proper oxygen exchange. 50. Which hormone increases in response to low serum calcium levels? A. Calcitonin B. Parathyroid hormone (PTH) C. Insulin D. Aldosterone PTH is released when calcium is low, stimulating bone resorption and kidney reabsorption of calcium. 51. Which of the following is an early sign of hypoxia? A. Cyanosis
C. Respiratory alkalosis D. Respiratory acidosis Vomiting leads to the loss of hydrochloric acid, resulting in metabolic alkalosis.
55. What is the underlying cause of pernicious anemia? A. Iron deficiency B. Folate deficiency C. Vitamin B12 deficiency due to lack of intrinsic factor D. Bone marrow failure Pernicious anemia occurs when intrinsic factor is lacking, preventing B absorption. 56. Which condition leads to decreased dopamine levels in the brain? A. Parkinson’s disease B. Alzheimer’s disease C. Huntington’s disease D. ALS Parkinson’s is caused by progressive dopamine depletion in the substantia nigra. 57. What is the result of nephrotic syndrome on lab values? A. Increased WBCs B. Proteinuria and hypoalbuminemia C. Hypernatremia
D. Increased hemoglobin Nephrotic syndrome causes significant protein loss in urine and low serum albumin.
58. Which type of fracture is most common in osteoporosis? A. Clavicle B. Femoral shaft C. Vertebral compression D. Skull Osteoporosis weakens vertebral bones, leading to compression fractures. 59. Which of the following is a modifiable risk factor for atherosclerosis? A. Age B. Smoking C. Family history D. Gender Smoking contributes to endothelial damage and plaque formation, and it is modifiable. 60. What is the main pathophysiological feature of ARDS (acute respiratory distress syndrome)? A. Increased capillary permeability causing alveolar fluid accumulation B. Asthmatic inflammation C. Bronchospasm D. Pulmonary embolism
