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NSG 5140 Midterm and Final Exam Review Adv Pathophysiology South College NSG 5140 Advance, Exams of Nursing

NSG 5140 Midterm and Final Exam Review Adv Pathophysiology South College NSG 5140 Advanced Pathophysiology Exam Questions and Answers | 100% Pass Guaranteed | Graded A+ | This content is designed to reflect graduate-level material and exam standards

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2024/2025

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NSG 5140 Midterm and Final Exam Review Adv
Pathophysiology South College NSG 5140 Advanced
Pathophysiology Exam Questions and Answers | 100% Pass
Guaranteed | Graded A+ |
This content is designed to reflect graduate-level material and exam standards.
1. What is the primary mechanism of cellular injury in hypoxia?
Oxidative stress
ATP depletion
DNA fragmentation
Inflammatory cytokine release
ATP depletion impairs the sodium-potassium pump, leading to cellular
swelling and dysfunction.
2. Which organ is most susceptible to ischemia?
Liver
Brain
Skin
Pancreas
The brain has a high metabolic demand and limited capacity for anaerobic
metabolism.
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Download NSG 5140 Midterm and Final Exam Review Adv Pathophysiology South College NSG 5140 Advance and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!

NSG 5140 Midterm and Final Exam Review Adv

Pathophysiology South College NSG 5140 Advanced

Pathophysiology Exam Questions and Answers | 100% Pass

Guaranteed | Graded A+ |

This content is designed to reflect graduate-level material and exam standards.

  1. What is the primary mechanism of cellular injury in hypoxia?
  • Oxidative stress
  • ATP depletion
  • DNA fragmentation
  • Inflammatory cytokine release ATP depletion impairs the sodium-potassium pump, leading to cellular swelling and dysfunction.
  1. Which organ is most susceptible to ischemia?
  • Liver
  • Brain
  • Skin
  • Pancreas The brain has a high metabolic demand and limited capacity for anaerobic metabolism.
  1. A patient with chronic hypertension experiences left ventricular hypertrophy. This is an example of:
  • Hyperplasia
  • Hypertrophy
  • Metaplasia
  • Atrophy Hypertrophy refers to an increase in cell size due to increased workload, commonly seen in cardiac muscle.
  1. Which of the following best describes apoptosis?
  • Programmed cell death
  • Accidental necrosis
  • Chronic inflammation
  • Cell lysis due to trauma Apoptosis is an organized, energy-dependent process of cellular self- destruction.
  1. What is the primary role of cytokines in inflammation?
  • Kill bacteria
  • Promote fibrosis
  • Regulate immune response
  • Activate platelets Cytokines coordinate the inflammatory response by modulating the activity of immune cells.
  • Persistent infection
  • Allergic reactions
  • Acute inflammation
  • Viral replication Granulomas form when the immune system attempts to wall off substances it cannot eliminate. 10.Which virus is oncogenic and linked to cervical cancer?
  • Hepatitis C
  • Epstein-Barr virus
  • Influenza
  • Human papillomavirus (HPV) High-risk HPV strains produce proteins that disrupt tumor suppressor genes like p53. 11.What process leads to oncogene activation?
  • Loss of DNA repair enzymes
  • Gain-of-function mutations
  • Decreased cell signaling
  • Apoptosis Oncogenes result from mutations that enhance normal proto-oncogene activity. 12.Which electrolyte imbalance is most concerning in renal failure?
  • Hyperkalemia
  • Hypocalcemia
  • Hyponatremia
  • Hypomagnesemia Hyperkalemia can lead to fatal cardiac arrhythmias in renal failure. 13.What hormone is deficient in diabetes insipidus?
  • Insulin
  • Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
  • Aldosterone
  • Cortisol ADH deficiency causes the kidneys to fail to concentrate urine, leading to polyuria. 14.What is the pathophysiology of Graves' disease?
  • Autoantibodies stimulate TSH receptors
  • Thyroid gland is destroyed by T cells
  • Lack of iodine intake
  • Pituitary tumor secretes TSH In Graves' disease, stimulating autoantibodies mimic TSH and cause hyperthyroidism. 15.What is the primary cause of ketoacidosis in type 1 diabetes?
  • Hyperglycemia
  • Lack of insulin
  • Promote diuresis Aldosterone promotes sodium reabsorption and potassium excretion in the kidneys. 19.Which finding is characteristic of chronic bronchitis?
  • Decreased mucus production
  • Productive cough for 3+ months
  • Sudden onset dyspnea
  • Hemoptysis Chronic bronchitis is defined by prolonged cough with sputum production due to airway inflammation. 20.Emphysema is associated with:
  • Destruction of alveolar walls
  • Bronchial hyperreactivity
  • Fibrosis of the lungs
  • Mucus plugging Emphysema leads to loss of surface area for gas exchange due to alveolar wall damage. 21.Which of the following is a sign of left-sided heart failure?
  • Peripheral edema
  • Pulmonary congestion
  • Jugular venous distension
  • Hepatomegaly Left-sided failure leads to pulmonary backup and fluid in the lungs. 22.What is the most common cause of myocardial infarction?
  • Vasospasm
  • Embolism
  • Atherosclerotic plaque rupture
  • Hypotension Plaque rupture leads to thrombosis and blockage of coronary arteries. 23.What does elevated troponin indicate?
  • Myocardial injury
  • Liver damage
  • Renal failure
  • Stroke Troponin is a cardiac enzyme released after myocardial cell death. 24.The Frank-Starling law describes:
  • AV node conduction speed
  • SA node automaticity
  • Stretch and contraction relationship
  • Blood pressure regulation The law explains how increased preload enhances myocardial contraction. 25.What is a classic sign of peripheral arterial disease?
  • Airway hyperresponsiveness and inflammation
  • Pulmonary hypertension Asthma involves bronchial inflammation, mucus secretion, and bronchoconstriction. 29.What does the "shift to the left" indicate in a CBC?
  • Viral infection
  • Increased immature neutrophils
  • Anemia
  • Platelet disorder A left shift shows elevated bands, indicating acute bacterial infection. 30.What condition involves demyelination of CNS neurons?
  • Multiple sclerosis
  • Guillain-Barré syndrome
  • Parkinson’s disease
  • ALS MS is an autoimmune condition targeting CNS myelin. 31.Which neurotransmitter is deficient in Parkinson’s disease?
  • GABA
  • Acetylcholine
  • Dopamine
  • Glutamate Dopamine deficiency in the basal ganglia causes motor symptoms of Parkinson’s. 32.What type of stroke is caused by a ruptured blood vessel?
  • Ischemic
  • Hemorrhagic
  • Lacunar
  • Embolic Hemorrhagic strokes result from blood vessel rupture, often from hypertension. 33.Which lab is most indicative of liver damage?
  • BUN
  • ALT
  • Amylase
  • CRP ALT is a liver-specific enzyme elevated in hepatocellular injury. 34.What is a hallmark of cirrhosis?
  • Hepatitis A
  • Jaundice
  • Fibrosis and regenerative nodules

38.Which hormone opposes insulin?

  • TSH
  • Glucagon
  • ADH
  • Cortisol Glucagon increases blood glucose levels by promoting glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis. 39.What is a major risk factor for gastric cancer?
  • Smoking
  • GERD
  • Chronic H. pylori infection
  • High-fat diet Chronic H. pylori infection leads to gastric atrophy and metaplasia. 40.What is a typical feature of nephritic syndrome?
  • Massive proteinuria
  • Hyperlipidemia
  • Hematuria
  • Edema only Nephritic syndrome involves glomerular inflammation, leading to RBC leakage into urine. 41.Which vitamin deficiency causes megaloblastic anemia?
  • Vitamin B
  • Vitamin A
  • Vitamin D
  • Vitamin C B12 deficiency impairs DNA synthesis in red blood cells. 42.What is the pathophysiology of osteoarthritis?
  • Autoimmune joint destruction
  • Cartilage degeneration and bone remodeling
  • Synovial membrane inflammation
  • Crystal deposition Osteoarthritis involves wear and tear of joint cartilage with osteophyte formation. 43.What condition features a "butterfly rash" on the face?
  • Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
  • Psoriasis
  • Rheumatoid arthritis
  • Scleroderma SLE is an autoimmune disease that affects multiple systems, including skin. 44.Which marker is used to monitor prostate cancer?
  • CEA
  • Productive cough
  • Pleural effusion ARDS involves fluid-filled alveoli that impair oxygenation even with supplemental oxygen. 48.What is the most common cause of iron deficiency anemia?
  • Chronic blood loss
  • Hemolysis
  • Malabsorption
  • B12 deficiency Chronic blood loss from GI or menstrual sources depletes iron stores. 49.What cardiac arrhythmia is associated with a high risk of stroke?
  • Ventricular fibrillation
  • Atrial fibrillation
  • Sinus bradycardia
  • AV block AF causes blood stasis in atria, increasing clot formation risk. 50.What is the typical compensation for metabolic acidosis?
  • Increased respiratory rate
  • Decreased respiratory rate
  • Increased renal H+ reabsorption
  • Decreased HCO₃ production The lungs compensate by blowing off CO₂, reducing acidity. 51.What is the main pathophysiological feature of anemia?
  • Increased hemoglobin
  • Decreased oxygen-carrying capacity
  • Increased RBC destruction
  • Hypercoagulability Anemia results in reduced oxygen delivery to tissues due to low hemoglobin or RBC count. 52.Which condition is characterized by pancytopenia?
  • Iron deficiency anemia
  • Hemolytic anemia
  • Aplastic anemia
  • Sickle cell anemia Aplastic anemia involves bone marrow failure, leading to decreased production of all blood cell types. 53.What is the cause of sickle cell crisis?
  • Iron overload
  • Dehydration and hypoxia
  • Infection with EBV

57.Which lab finding is most indicative of renal function?

  • ALT
  • Amylase
  • Serum creatinine
  • Platelet count Serum creatinine reflects glomerular filtration rate and kidney function. 58.What is a potential complication of nephrotic syndrome?
  • Hypercoagulability
  • Hematuria
  • Hyperkalemia
  • Hypernatremia Loss of antithrombin III in urine increases clotting risk. 59.Which condition features low serum albumin and massive proteinuria?
  • Nephritic syndrome
  • Nephrotic syndrome
  • Acute tubular necrosis
  • UTI Nephrotic syndrome is defined by proteinuria >3.5 g/day and hypoalbuminemia. 60.What is the most common cause of acute tubular necrosis?
  • UTI
  • Ischemia and nephrotoxins
  • Glomerulonephritis
  • Bladder obstruction ATN results from renal ischemia or toxins damaging tubular cells. 61.Which acid-base disorder is caused by prolonged vomiting?
  • Metabolic alkalosis
  • Metabolic acidosis
  • Respiratory alkalosis
  • Respiratory acidosis Vomiting leads to loss of hydrochloric acid, increasing blood pH. 62.A patient with Kussmaul respirations likely has:
  • Metabolic acidosis
  • Respiratory alkalosis
  • Respiratory acidosis
  • Metabolic alkalosis Kussmaul breathing is a compensatory response to metabolic acidosis. 63.What electrolyte imbalance causes Chvostek's and Trousseau's signs?
  • Hyperkalemia
  • Hypocalcemia
  • Hyponatremia