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NSG 5140 Midterm Exam Review Adv Pathophysiology South College NSG 5140 Advanced Pathophy, Exams of Nursing

South University - SavannahNursing

NSG 5140 Midterm Exam Review Adv Pathophysiology South College NSG 5140 Advanced Pathophysiology Exam Questions and Answers | 100% Pass Guaranteed | Graded A+ | 2025

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2024/2025

Available from 07/02/2025

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NSG 5140 Midterm Exam Review Adv Pathophysiology South
College NSG 5140 Advanced Pathophysiology Exam
Questions and Answers | 100% Pass Guaranteed | Graded A+ |
2025
1. What is the primary function of the sodium-potassium pump in cells?
Maintain resting membrane potential
The sodium-potassium pump moves 3 Na
⁺
ions out and 2 K
⁺
ions into the cell,
creating an electrochemical gradient essential for membrane potential.
2. Which cellular organelle is primarily responsible for ATP production?
Mitochondria
Mitochondria are known as the "powerhouse" of the cell due to their role in
oxidative phosphorylation and ATP generation.
3. A patient with metabolic acidosis would likely have which of the following
lab values?
Decreased HCO₃⁻ and decreased pH
In metabolic acidosis, there is a loss of bicarbonate or accumulation of acids,
lowering both bicarbonate and pH.
4. Which immune cell is primarily responsible for producing antibodies?
B lymphocytes
B cells differentiate into plasma cells which produce antibodies, central to humoral
immunity.
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Download NSG 5140 Midterm Exam Review Adv Pathophysiology South College NSG 5140 Advanced Pathophy and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!

NSG 5140 Midterm Exam Review Adv Pathophysiology South

College NSG 5140 Advanced Pathophysiology Exam

Questions and Answers | 100% Pass Guaranteed | Graded A+ |

  1. What is the primary function of the sodium-potassium pump in cells? Maintain resting membrane potential

The sodium-potassium pump moves 3 Na ⁺ ions out and 2 K ⁺ ions into the cell,

creating an electrochemical gradient essential for membrane potential.

  1. Which cellular organelle is primarily responsible for ATP production? Mitochondria Mitochondria are known as the "powerhouse" of the cell due to their role in oxidative phosphorylation and ATP generation.
  2. A patient with metabolic acidosis would likely have which of the following lab values? Decreased HCO₃⁻ and decreased pH In metabolic acidosis, there is a loss of bicarbonate or accumulation of acids, lowering both bicarbonate and pH.
  3. Which immune cell is primarily responsible for producing antibodies? B lymphocytes B cells differentiate into plasma cells which produce antibodies, central to humoral immunity.
  1. Which of the following is a hallmark of reversible cellular injury? Cellular swelling Reversible injury often involves failure of ion pumps leading to water influx and cell swelling.
  2. Which cytokine is primarily involved in the induction of fever? Interleukin- 1 (IL-1) IL-1 acts on the hypothalamus to raise the body temperature set point, causing fever.
  3. What is the main pathophysiological process in Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus? Autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells Type 1 DM is an autoimmune condition where T-cells destroy insulin-producing beta cells in the pancreas.
  4. Which of the following is a cardinal sign of acute inflammation? Redness Redness (rubor) results from vasodilation and increased blood flow to the inflamed area.
  5. Which genetic disorder is caused by a trisomy of chromosome 21? Down syndrome Trisomy 21 leads to Down syndrome, characterized by developmental delays and distinct facial features.
  6. What type of necrosis is most often seen in hypoxic injury in the brain? Liquefactive necrosis In the brain, ischemic injury leads to enzymatic digestion of dead cells resulting in liquefactive necrosis.

Shock results in inadequate delivery of oxygen and nutrients to tissues, causing cellular dysfunction.

  1. In asthma, airway obstruction is primarily due to: Bronchoconstriction and mucus production Asthma involves hyperresponsiveness, smooth muscle constriction, and increased mucus, narrowing the airway.
  2. Which of the following best describes apoptosis? Programmed cell death Apoptosis is an orderly process for removing damaged or unneeded cells without inflammation.
  3. What is the most common cause of myocardial infarction? Atherosclerotic plaque rupture Plaque rupture leads to thrombus formation, blocking coronary arteries and causing infarction.
  4. Which lab value indicates renal function? Serum creatinine Creatinine is a waste product filtered by the kidneys; elevated levels suggest impaired renal function.
  5. What is the primary effect of aldosterone? Sodium retention and potassium excretion

Aldosterone promotes Na ⁺ reabsorption and K ⁺ loss in the distal nephron to

increase blood volume.

  1. What is the primary mechanism of hypovolemic shock? Loss of circulating blood volume

Hypovolemic shock occurs when blood or fluid loss reduces preload and cardiac output.

  1. What best describes the Frank-Starling law of the heart? Increased preload leads to increased stroke volume Stretching of myocardial fibers improves contractile force, increasing output.
  2. Which of the following increases the risk of atherosclerosis? Elevated LDL cholesterol LDL contributes to plaque formation in arterial walls, promoting atherosclerosis.
  3. What is a common finding in left-sided heart failure? Pulmonary edema Left-sided failure backs up blood into the lungs, causing fluid accumulation and respiratory symptoms.
  4. Which hormone regulates calcium levels in the blood? Parathyroid hormone (PTH) PTH increases serum calcium by acting on bones, kidneys, and intestines.
  5. What is the pathophysiological hallmark of multiple sclerosis? Demyelination of CNS neurons MS involves immune-mediated destruction of myelin in the CNS, impairing nerve conduction.
  6. Which disorder is associated with dopamine deficiency in the basal ganglia? Parkinson’s disease Parkinson’s results from degeneration of dopaminergic neurons, affecting movement.
  7. What is the main cause of anemia in chronic kidney disease? Decreased erythropoietin production
  1. A patient with Grave’s disease will likely have which lab finding? Elevated T3/T4 and suppressed TSH Grave’s disease is an autoimmune hyperthyroidism; thyroid hormone is high, and feedback suppresses TSH.
  2. What electrolyte imbalance is commonly seen in Addison’s disease? Hyponatremia and hyperkalemia Low aldosterone in Addison’s leads to sodium loss and potassium retention.
  3. What is the hallmark of nephrotic syndrome? Massive proteinuria Nephrotic syndrome features increased glomerular permeability, leading to protein loss in urine.
  4. Which acid-base imbalance is caused by excessive vomiting? Metabolic alkalosis Loss of gastric acid from vomiting increases bicarbonate concentration.
  5. What is the most common type of renal stone? Calcium oxalate Calcium oxalate stones form due to high calcium and oxalate levels in the urine.
  6. Which finding is characteristic of glomerulonephritis? Hematuria Inflammation of glomeruli allows RBCs to leak into urine, causing visible or microscopic blood.
  7. What is a common cause of post-renal acute kidney injury? Urinary tract obstruction Obstruction (e.g., stone or tumor) increases pressure upstream, impairing kidney function.
  1. Which neurotransmitter is deficient in Alzheimer’s disease? Acetylcholine Loss of cholinergic neurons in Alzheimer’s impairs memory and cognitive function.
  2. What is the major complication of untreated hypertension? End-organ damage Prolonged high BP damages vessels and organs, including kidneys, eyes, heart, and brain.
  3. What is a common feature of benign tumors? Encapsulation and non-invasiveness Benign tumors grow slowly, are well-differentiated, and do not invade surrounding tissues.
  4. What is the primary characteristic of cancer cells? Uncontrolled proliferation Cancer cells bypass normal cell cycle controls and divide without regulation.
  5. What is the significance of tumor suppressor genes? They inhibit cell growth and division Loss or mutation of these genes (e.g., p53) removes growth regulation and can lead to cancer.
  6. Which type of edema is associated with low plasma protein levels? Oncotic (hypoalbuminemic) edema Reduced albumin decreases oncotic pressure, leading to fluid movement into interstitial spaces.
  7. What is the first step in hemostasis? Vasoconstriction
  1. In hyperparathyroidism, which lab abnormality is expected? Hypercalcemia Excess PTH increases calcium reabsorption from bone and kidneys, raising serum calcium.
  2. The most common cause of secondary hypertension is: Renal artery stenosis Reduced renal perfusion from artery narrowing stimulates RAAS, raising BP.
  3. What is the major mechanism of hypoxemia in pulmonary embolism? Ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) mismatch A PE blocks perfusion to ventilated alveoli, causing high V/Q and impaired gas exchange.
  4. What causes the wheezing sound in asthma? Airway narrowing due to bronchospasm Tightened airways from inflammation and muscle constriction create a whistling sound during breathing.
  5. What structural abnormality underlies emphysema? Destruction of alveolar walls Loss of alveolar septa reduces surface area for gas exchange and causes hyperinflation.
  6. What condition results from prolonged hypoxemia and leads to right-sided heart failure? Cor pulmonale Chronic lung disease causes pulmonary hypertension, straining the right heart.
  1. What lab finding is consistent with dehydration? Elevated hematocrit Plasma volume decreases, concentrating RBCs and raising hematocrit.
  2. Which lung volume increases in obstructive lung diseases? Residual volume Air trapping prevents full exhalation, increasing residual volume.
  3. What electrolyte imbalance is associated with Chvostek’s sign? Hypocalcemia Low calcium increases neuromuscular excitability, producing facial muscle twitching.
  4. Which organ is the primary regulator of blood pH via bicarbonate reabsorption? Kidneys The kidneys regulate pH by reabsorbing or excreting bicarbonate and hydrogen ions.
  5. Which clinical sign suggests left ventricular failure? Dyspnea on exertion Pulmonary congestion from left-sided failure impairs gas exchange during activity.
  6. What is a major complication of atrial fibrillation? Thromboembolism Irregular atrial activity promotes clot formation, increasing stroke risk.
  7. What disorder is characterized by autoimmune destruction of acetylcholine receptors? Myasthenia gravis Antibodies attack ACh receptors at neuromuscular junctions, causing weakness.
  1. What is the pathophysiological mechanism of GERD? Incompetent lower esophageal sphincter A weak LES allows acid to reflux into the esophagus, causing symptoms.
  2. What hormone is responsible for uterine contractions during labor? Oxytocin Oxytocin stimulates myometrial contractions and is used clinically to induce labor.
  3. What lab value is commonly elevated in pancreatitis? Serum lipase Lipase is more specific than amylase for pancreatic inflammation.
  4. Which type of anemia is caused by vitamin B12 deficiency? Megaloblastic anemia B12 deficiency leads to impaired DNA synthesis, causing large, immature RBCs.
  5. What clinical manifestation is common in anemia? Fatigue Reduced oxygen-carrying capacity results in decreased tissue oxygenation.
  6. Which cardiac enzyme is most specific for myocardial infarction? Troponin I Troponin rises within hours of MI and is highly specific for cardiac muscle damage.
  7. What ECG change is typical in hyperkalemia? Peaked T waves Elevated potassium alters repolarization, producing tall, peaked T waves.
  8. What is the primary function of the hypothalamus? Regulation of homeostasis The hypothalamus controls temperature, hunger, thirst, and endocrine signals.
  1. What is the primary neurotransmitter in the sympathetic nervous system? Norepinephrine Norepinephrine acts on adrenergic receptors during fight-or-flight responses.
  2. What condition involves the progressive loss of both upper and lower motor neurons? Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) ALS causes mixed motor deficits like weakness and fasciculations.
  3. What is the pathophysiology of cystic fibrosis? Defective chloride channel function CFTR gene mutations lead to thick secretions in lungs and GI tract.
  4. What electrolyte imbalance is commonly caused by diuretics? Hypokalemia Loop and thiazide diuretics increase urinary potassium loss.
  5. What does a high anion gap indicate? Accumulation of unmeasured acids High anion gap acidosis is due to lactic acid, ketoacids, or toxins.
  6. Which hormone increases blood glucose by promoting gluconeogenesis? Cortisol Cortisol helps the body respond to stress by raising blood sugar levels.
  7. What is a key feature of Guillain-Barré syndrome? Ascending muscle weakness GBS is a post-infectious demyelinating disorder of the peripheral nervous system.
  8. Which disorder is associated with autoantibodies against TSH receptors? Grave’s disease TSH receptor antibodies stimulate the thyroid, causing hyperthyroidism.
  1. What is the pathogenesis of Alzheimer’s disease? Amyloid plaque accumulation and neurofibrillary tangles These changes disrupt synapses and neuronal communication.
  2. What condition is characterized by excessive cortisol production? Cushing’s syndrome Cushing’s features include central obesity, hypertension, and hyperglycemia.
  3. Which disorder is an example of autosomal recessive inheritance? Cystic fibrosis Two copies of the mutated gene are required for disease expression.
  4. What triggers the release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH)? Increased plasma osmolality ADH promotes water retention to dilute plasma solutes.
  5. What type of hypersensitivity reaction involves T-cell activation? Type IV (delayed) hypersensitivity Examples include contact dermatitis and TB skin test.
  6. What is the result of prolonged exposure to cortisol? Immune suppression Cortisol inhibits inflammation and immune cell function.
  7. What is the primary mechanism of anemia in iron deficiency? Impaired hemoglobin synthesis Iron is necessary for hemoglobin; deficiency limits RBC production.
  8. Which hormone is responsible for sodium reabsorption in the nephron? Aldosterone Aldosterone increases sodium and water retention in the distal nephron.
  1. Which brain structure regulates vital functions like breathing and heart rate? Medulla oblongata The medulla houses centers for autonomic control of respiration and circulation.
  2. What is the earliest symptom of hypoxia? Restlessness Hypoxia first affects the brain, causing agitation and confusion.
  3. What is the hallmark of septic shock? Widespread vasodilation Bacterial toxins trigger systemic inflammatory responses and hypotension.
  4. What is a characteristic of ulcerative colitis? Continuous colonic mucosal inflammation UC affects the rectum and colon in a continuous pattern.
  5. What type of fracture is most common in osteoporosis? Vertebral compression fracture Bone loss weakens vertebrae, leading to collapse under weight.
  6. Which hormone stimulates breast milk production? Prolactin Prolactin promotes milk synthesis after delivery.
  7. What best describes the role of insulin? Facilitates glucose uptake into cells Insulin allows glucose to enter muscle and fat cells, reducing blood sugar.
  8. What is the function of natriuretic peptides? Promote sodium and water excretion Released from the heart to reduce blood volume and pressure.
  1. Which part of the nephron is responsible for majority of sodium reabsorption? Proximal convoluted tubule Around 65% of sodium is reabsorbed here.
  2. What finding is consistent with hypervolemia? Bounding pulses Increased intravascular volume leads to strong, forceful pulses.
  3. Which cells produce myelin in the central nervous system? Oligodendrocytes These glial cells wrap axons with myelin sheaths in the CNS.
  4. What is the main component of a thrombus in arterial circulation? Platelets Arterial clots are platelet-rich due to high shear forces.
  5. What structure in the kidney filters blood plasma? Glomerulus The glomerulus filters plasma through the basement membrane into Bowman’s capsule.
  6. What is the key clinical feature of meningitis? Nuchal rigidity Stiff neck results from meningeal inflammation and irritation.
  7. Which vitamin is essential for calcium absorption in the gut? Vitamin D Vitamin D promotes intestinal absorption of calcium and phosphate.
  1. What abnormal heart sound is associated with heart failure? S3 gallop An S3 occurs due to volume overload in a failing ventricle.
  2. What is a common complication of chronic uncontrolled hypertension? Left ventricular hypertrophy Increased afterload causes the left ventricle to work harder, leading to myocardial thickening.
  3. Which disorder is characterized by excessive secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH)? Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) SIADH results in water retention, dilutional hyponatremia, and low serum osmolality.
  4. Which brain lobe is primarily responsible for visual processing? Occipital lobe The occipital lobe contains the primary visual cortex.
  5. What condition is associated with elevated serum uric acid and joint inflammation? Gout Uric acid crystal deposition in joints causes intense inflammation and pain.
  6. What type of hypersensitivity reaction is a latex allergy? Type I hypersensitivity IgE-mediated reaction occurs rapidly upon re-exposure to the allergen.