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NSG 6440 NSG6440 Predictor Test Latest Questions and Answers All Are Correct 2025 Update, Exams of Nursing

NSG 6440 NSG6440 Predictor Test Latest Questions and Answers All Are Correct 2025 Updated Study Solutions

Typology: Exams

2024/2025

Available from 07/02/2025

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NSG 6440 NSG6440 Predictor Test Latest
Questions and Answers All Are Correct 2025
Updated Study Solutions
1. A patient with asthma is prescribed albuterol. What is the primary purpose
of this medication?
A. To reduce inflammation
B. To relieve bronchospasm
C. To prevent respiratory infections
D. To thin secretions
Albuterol is a short-acting beta-agonist (SABA) used to provide quick
relief from acute bronchospasm by relaxing airway smooth muscles.
2. A 65-year-old male presents with BPH. Which medication is most
appropriate for initial treatment?
A. Tadalafil
B. Tamsulosin
C. Finasteride
D. Dutasteride
Tamsulosin is an alpha-1 adrenergic blocker that relaxes bladder neck
muscles, making it easier to urinate and is first-line for symptom relief.
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Download NSG 6440 NSG6440 Predictor Test Latest Questions and Answers All Are Correct 2025 Update and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!

NSG 6440 NSG 6440 Predictor Test Latest

Questions and Answers All Are Correct 20 25

Updated Study Solutions

  1. A patient with asthma is prescribed albuterol. What is the primary purpose of this medication? A. To reduce inflammation B. To relieve bronchospasm C. To prevent respiratory infections D. To thin secretions

Albuterol is a short-acting beta-agonist (SABA) used to provide quick

relief from acute bronchospasm by relaxing airway smooth muscles.

  1. A 65-year-old male presents with BPH. Which medication is most appropriate for initial treatment? A. Tadalafil B. Tamsulosin C. Finasteride D. Dutasteride

Tamsulosin is an alpha-1 adrenergic blocker that relaxes bladder neck

muscles, making it easier to urinate and is first-line for symptom relief.

  1. A 25-year-old female is diagnosed with a UTI. Which antibiotic is most appropriate for uncomplicated cases? A. Amoxicillin B. Nitrofurantoin C. Ciprofloxacin D. Doxycycline

Nitrofurantoin is preferred for uncomplicated lower urinary tract

infections due to minimal resistance and effectiveness against E. coli.

  1. A patient taking warfarin has an INR of 5.5 with no signs of bleeding. What is the best management? A. Increase the dose B. Continue current dose C. Hold dose and monitor INR D. Give vitamin K IM

Holding the dose temporarily and monitoring INR is appropriate for

asymptomatic elevation; no need for vitamin K unless bleeding is

present.

  1. A 4-year-old has a barking cough and inspiratory stridor. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Asthma B. Epiglottitis C. Croup D. Bronchiolitis

C. Bradycardia D. Weight gain

ACE inhibitors commonly cause a persistent dry cough due to increased

bradykinin levels.

  1. Which of the following vaccines is contraindicated in pregnancy? A. Tdap B. MMR C. Influenza (inactivated) D. Hepatitis B

MMR is a live vaccine and is contraindicated during pregnancy due to

the potential risk to the fetus.

10.What is the first-line treatment for otitis media in a child? A. Azithromycin B. Ciprofloxacin C. Amoxicillin D. Clindamycin

Amoxicillin is the first-line antibiotic for acute otitis media due to its

effectiveness against common pathogens.

11.Which of the following is the most appropriate initial diagnostic test for suspected deep vein thrombosis (DVT)? A. CT angiogram

B. Duplex ultrasonography C. D-dimer D. Venogram

Duplex ultrasound is the first-line, non-invasive imaging modality used

to detect DVT in the extremities.

12.A patient on levothyroxine therapy for hypothyroidism presents with weight loss, palpitations, and insomnia. What is the most likely cause? A. Inadequate dose B. Poor adherence C. Excessive dose D. Drug interaction

Symptoms indicate hyperthyroidism likely caused by an excessive dose

of levothyroxine.

13.What is the most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia in adults? A. Haemophilus influenzae B. Streptococcus pneumoniae C. Mycoplasma pneumoniae D. Legionella pneumophila

Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most frequent bacterial pathogen in

community-acquired pneumonia.

14.Which of the following medications is used as first-line therapy for generalized anxiety disorder?

A. Magnesium level B. Digoxin level C. Sodium level D. Liver enzymes

Signs of digoxin toxicity warrant checking serum digoxin levels

immediately.

18.Which of the following is the best non-pharmacologic intervention for mild to moderate depression? A. Yoga B. Cognitive behavioral therapy C. Massage therapy D. Herbal supplements

CBT has strong evidence supporting its effectiveness in treating mild to

moderate depression.

19.A patient has been taking prednisone long-term. Which condition is he most at risk for? A. Osteoporosis B. Hypoglycemia C. Hyperkalemia D. Increased muscle mass

Chronic corticosteroid use decreases bone mineral density, increasing

the risk for osteoporosis.

20.What is the best test to confirm a diagnosis of diabetes mellitus? A. Random glucose B. Hemoglobin A1C C. C-peptide D. Urine glucose

An A1C ≥6.5% confirms diabetes and reflects average glucose levels

over the past 3 months.

21.Which finding on an EKG suggests hyperkalemia? A. U waves B. Peaked T waves C. Prolonged QT interval D. ST elevation

Tall, peaked T waves are a hallmark EKG change associated with

hyperkalemia.

22.A patient with suspected appendicitis should first receive which diagnostic test? A. MRI B. Abdominal CT scan C. Barium enema D. Upper endoscopy

CT scan is the most sensitive and specific test for diagnosing

appendicitis in adults.

26.What physical exam finding is associated with pericarditis? A. S3 gallop B. Pericardial friction rub C. Rales D. Hepatomegaly

A pericardial friction rub is a classic finding in patients with pericarditis.

27.Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for acute gout? A. Indomethacin B. Allopurinol C. Probenecid D. Methotrexate

NSAIDs like indomethacin are first-line for acute gout attacks.

28.Which vaccine is recommended annually for all patients over 6 months of age? A. Tetanus B. Influenza C. Hepatitis B D. Varicella

Annual influenza vaccination is recommended for everyone aged 6

months and older.

29.A woman with abnormal uterine bleeding and anemia should first undergo: A. Hysterectomy B. Endometrial biopsy

C. Pap smear D. Pelvic ultrasound

Endometrial biopsy is essential to rule out malignancy in women with

abnormal uterine bleeding.

30.What test confirms a diagnosis of mononucleosis? A. Monospot test B. CBC C. Rapid strep D. ESR

The Monospot test detects heterophile antibodies and is used to

diagnose infectious mononucleosis.

31.Which medication is contraindicated in pregnancy due to teratogenicity? A. Methyldopa B. Isotretinoin C. Labetalol D. Acetaminophen

Isotretinoin is highly teratogenic and absolutely contraindicated in

pregnancy.

32.Which of the following is most indicative of bacterial vaginosis? A. Cottage cheese discharge B. Positive whiff test C. Strawberry cervix D. Thick, green discharge

Avoiding contact sports is critical due to the risk of splenic rupture.

36.Which medication is preferred for treatment-resistant depression? A. Bupropion B. Diazepam C. Hydroxyzine D. Haloperidol

Bupropion is often used as an add-on or alternative treatment in

resistant depression cases.

37.What symptom is most commonly associated with Meniere's disease? A. Vertigo B. Tinnitus only C. Ear pain D. Otitis media

Meniere’s disease causes episodes of vertigo, tinnitus, hearing loss, and

ear fullness.

38.What lab abnormality is associated with chronic alcohol use? A. Elevated BUN B. Elevated GGT C. Low potassium D. High LDL

GGT is often elevated in chronic alcohol use and is a sensitive marker of

liver dysfunction.

39.Which sign suggests meningeal irritation? A. Murphy’s sign B. Tinel’s sign C. Kernig’s sign D. McBurney’s sign

Kernig’s sign indicates meningeal irritation; it is positive when leg

extension causes pain.

40.What class of drugs is first-line for heart failure with reduced ejection fraction? A. Beta-2 agonists B. CCBs C. ACE inhibitors D. Digoxin

ACE inhibitors improve survival and reduce afterload in patients with

systolic heart failure.

41.What is a common side effect of statins? A. Constipation B. Muscle pain C. Rash D. Dizziness

Myalgia is a common side effect that may indicate rhabdomyolysis in

rare cases.

45.Which of the following is a symptom of hyperthyroidism? A. Weight gain B. Heat intolerance C. Bradycardia D. Depression

Hyperthyroidism typically causes heat intolerance, weight loss, and

tachycardia.

46.What condition presents with LLQ pain, fever, and leukocytosis in older adults? A. Appendicitis B. Diverticulitis C. Pancreatitis D. Cholecystitis

Diverticulitis commonly presents with LLQ pain, fever, and elevated

WBCs.

47.Which medication is most effective in smoking cessation therapy? A. Varenicline B. Diazepam C. Clonidine D. Naltrexone

Varenicline (Chantix) has the highest efficacy for smoking cessation.

48.What is the diagnostic test of choice for carpal tunnel syndrome? A. Nerve conduction study

B. Wrist x-ray C. MRI D. Doppler

Nerve conduction studies confirm the diagnosis and severity of carpal

tunnel syndrome.

49.What is the most likely cause of secondary hypertension? A. Essential hypertension B. Renal artery stenosis C. Obesity D. High salt intake

Renal artery stenosis is a common and treatable cause of secondary

hypertension.

50.What is a common adverse effect of long-term PPI use? A. Constipation B. Hyperkalemia C. Vitamin B12 deficiency D. Weight gain

Chronic PPI use can impair absorption of B12, leading to deficiency.

51.Which heart sound is associated with heart failure? A. S B. S

C. Biopsy D. MRI

Simple cysts that are asymptomatic require no treatment and can be

monitored.

55.Which medication is indicated for emergency contraception within 72 hours of unprotected sex? A. Levonorgestrel B. Medroxyprogesterone C. Clomiphene D. Misoprostol

Levonorgestrel (Plan B) is effective for emergency contraception if taken

within 72 hours.

56.A patient reports wrist pain that worsens with thumb movement. What is the likely diagnosis? A. Carpal tunnel B. De Quervain’s tenosynovitis C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Gout

De Quervain’s is caused by inflammation of the thumb tendons and

worsens with movement.

57.Which cranial nerve is responsible for facial movement? A. CN VII (Facial nerve) B. CN V

C. CN IX

D. CN X

The facial nerve (CN VII) controls facial expression and is commonly

affected in Bell's palsy.

58.What is the initial test for a woman with a breast lump? A. MRI B. Ultrasound C. CT scan D. PET scan

Ultrasound is the first-line imaging for evaluating palpable breast

masses, especially in younger women.

59.Which lab abnormality is expected in SIADH? A. Hypernatremia B. Hyponatremia C. Hyperkalemia D. Hypoglycemia

SIADH causes water retention, leading to dilutional hyponatremia.

60.What is the most effective lifestyle change for lowering blood pressure? A. Weight loss B. Sodium supplementation C. Vitamin D D. Meditation