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NU 545 – Advanced Pathophysiology Exam Questions And Correct Answers (Verified Answers) Plus Rationales 2025 Q&A | Instant Download PDF University of South Alabama
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B. It requires prior exposure to an antigen C. It is non-specific and innate D. It has immunologic memory Inflammation is an innate, non-specific response to injury, infection, or irritation. 10.Which mediator is primarily responsible for vasodilation in acute inflammation? A. Interleukin- 1 B. Tumor necrosis factor C. Complement C3b D. Histamine Histamine released from mast cells causes vasodilation and increased vascular permeability. 11.Which immune cell is predominant in acute inflammation? A. Macrophage B. Eosinophil C. Neutrophil D. Lymphocyte Neutrophils are the primary cells involved in the early phase of acute inflammation. 12.Which lab value best indicates chronic inflammation? A. Elevated neutrophil count B. Elevated C-reactive protein (CRP) C. Low ESR
D. Low interleukin levels CRP is an acute-phase reactant that increases with systemic inflammation, especially chronic states. 13.What is the primary function of opsonins? A. Neutralize toxins B. Enhance phagocytosis C. Cause vasoconstriction D. Activate T cells Opsonins coat pathogens to facilitate their recognition and ingestion by phagocytes. 14.Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is anaphylaxis? A. Type II B. Type III C. Type I D. Type IV Anaphylaxis is a rapid IgE-mediated Type I hypersensitivity reaction. 15.Which autoimmune disease involves antibodies against acetylcholine receptors? A. Multiple sclerosis B. Systemic lupus erythematosus C. Myasthenia gravis D. Rheumatoid arthritis In myasthenia gravis, antibodies target the acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction.
D. Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) SCID is an example of a congenital (primary) immunodeficiency affecting T and B cell function. 20.Which lab finding is expected in systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)? A. Decreased autoantibodies B. Positive antinuclear antibodies (ANA) C. Elevated hemoglobin D. Decreased ESR SLE is characterized by a positive ANA test and other autoantibodies. 21.Which electrolyte imbalance is most likely in a patient with severe diarrhea? A. Hyperkalemia B. Hypokalemia C. Hypercalcemia D. Hypernatremia Diarrhea causes excessive loss of potassium-rich fluids, leading to hypokalemia. 22.Which acid-base disturbance is expected in a patient with prolonged vomiting? A. Metabolic acidosis B. Respiratory acidosis C. Metabolic alkalosis
D. Respiratory alkalosis Vomiting leads to loss of gastric acid, resulting in metabolic alkalosis. 23.Which compensatory mechanism occurs in metabolic acidosis? A. Hypoventilation B. Hyperventilation C. Increased renal hydrogen retention D. Increased bicarbonate excretion The body compensates for metabolic acidosis by increasing respiratory rate to blow off CO₂. 24.Which condition is characterized by demyelination in the central nervous system? A. Guillain-Barré syndrome B. Multiple sclerosis C. Myasthenia gravis D. Parkinson’s disease Multiple sclerosis causes demyelination of neurons in the CNS. 25.Which neurotransmitter is deficient in Parkinson’s disease? A. Acetylcholine B. Dopamine C. Serotonin D. GABA Parkinson’s disease is associated with decreased dopamine in the substantia nigra.
D. Thyroxine Addison’s disease is characterized by adrenal insufficiency, leading to low cortisol levels. 30.Which is a classic sign of pheochromocytoma? A. Bradycardia B. Hypotension C. Hypertension D. Weight gain Pheochromocytoma is a catecholamine-secreting tumor that causes paroxysmal hypertension. 31.Which electrolyte imbalance can result from hyperparathyroidism? A. Hypocalcemia B. Hyperkalemia C. Hypercalcemia D. Hyponatremia Excess parathyroid hormone increases bone resorption, leading to elevated calcium levels. 32.Which disease process results in insulin resistance? A. Addison’s disease B. Type 1 diabetes mellitus C. Type 2 diabetes mellitus D. Hypothyroidism Type 2 diabetes mellitus is characterized by peripheral insulin resistance.
33.Which is a hallmark finding in diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)? A. Alkalosis B. Hypoglycemia C. Metabolic acidosis D. Hypernatremia DKA is defined by uncontrolled hyperglycemia, ketosis, and metabolic acidosis. 34.Which hormone imbalance causes Graves’ disease? A. Decreased TSH B. Increased T3 and T C. Increased cortisol D. Increased insulin Graves’ disease is an autoimmune disorder that leads to hyperthyroidism with elevated T3 and T4. 35.Which finding suggests nephrotic syndrome? A. Hematuria B. Pyuria C. Proteinuria D. Bacteriuria Nephrotic syndrome is characterized by massive proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, and edema. 36.Which organism is most commonly associated with urinary tract infections? A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa B. Escherichia coli
40.Which acid-base disorder is common in chronic kidney disease? A. Metabolic alkalosis B. Respiratory alkalosis C. Respiratory acidosis D. Metabolic acidosis CKD patients develop metabolic acidosis due to decreased acid excretion and bicarbonate retention. 41.Which condition is associated with portal hypertension? A. Pancreatitis B. Esophageal varices C. Peptic ulcer disease D. Diverticulitis Portal hypertension commonly causes varices in the esophagus and stomach due to increased venous pressure. 42.Which liver enzyme is most specific for hepatocellular injury? A. Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) B. Gamma-glutamyl transferase (GGT) C. Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) D. Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) ALT is more specific than AST for liver cell damage. 43.Which condition is characterized by skip lesions in the GI tract? A. Ulcerative colitis B. Crohn’s disease C. Celiac disease
Crohn’s disease is known for its transmural inflammation and skip lesions. 44.Which condition involves outpouchings of the colon wall? A. Ulcerative colitis B. Diverticulosis C. Crohn’s disease D. Irritable bowel syndrome Diverticulosis is the presence of diverticula in the colon wall. 45.Which type of shock is caused by severe allergic reactions? A. Cardiogenic shock B. Hypovolemic shock C. Neurogenic shock D. Anaphylactic shock Anaphylactic shock is a type of distributive shock triggered by a severe allergic reaction. 46.Which pathophysiologic process underlies septic shock? A. Decreased cardiac contractility B. Hypovolemia from bleeding C. Massive vasodilation due to inflammatory mediators D. Mechanical obstruction to blood flow Septic shock involves widespread vasodilation and increased capillary permeability due to sepsis. 47.Which is a common sign of left-sided heart failure? A. Peripheral edema
TNF-α is a major pro-inflammatory cytokine involved in the pathogenesis of sepsis. 51.Which mechanism explains edema in right-sided heart failure? A. Decreased plasma oncotic pressure B. Increased hydrostatic pressure in systemic veins C. Increased lymphatic drainage D. Decreased capillary permeability Right-sided heart failure increases venous hydrostatic pressure, pushing fluid into interstitial spaces. 52.Which condition is associated with pulsus paradoxus? A. Myocardial infarction B. Cardiac tamponade C. Heart block D. Aortic stenosis Pulsus paradoxus is a drop in systolic BP >10 mmHg during inspiration and is classic for cardiac tamponade. 53.Which best describes the pathophysiology of asthma? A. Destruction of alveolar walls B. Reversible airway inflammation and bronchoconstriction C. Permanent loss of elastic recoil D. Pulmonary fibrosis Asthma involves reversible bronchospasm, inflammation, and mucus production.
54.Which finding is most expected in emphysema? A. Restrictive pattern on PFT B. Low residual volume C. Decreased elastic recoil and air trapping D. Normal lung compliance Emphysema destroys alveolar walls, decreasing elastic recoil and causing air trapping. 55.Which respiratory disorder is associated with chronic productive cough for at least 3 months in 2 consecutive years? A. Emphysema B. Asthma C. Chronic bronchitis D. Bronchiectasis This is the classic diagnostic criterion for chronic bronchitis. 56.Which pathogen is the most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia? A. Klebsiella pneumoniae B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa C. Streptococcus pneumoniae D. Legionella pneumophila S. pneumoniae is the leading cause of community-acquired bacterial pneumonia. 57.Which type of pleural effusion is caused by heart failure? A. Empyema
Cystic fibrosis is caused by mutations in the CFTR gene leading to defective chloride transport. 61.Which change occurs with aging in the respiratory system? A. Increased vital capacity B. Decreased elastic recoil C. Increased alveolar surface area D. Increased chest wall compliance Aging lungs lose elastic recoil, leading to air trapping. 62.Which acid-base abnormality is expected in opioid overdose? A. Metabolic acidosis B. Metabolic alkalosis C. Respiratory alkalosis D. Respiratory acidosis Opioids cause hypoventilation, leading to CO₂ retention and respiratory acidosis. 63.Which factor is a risk for deep vein thrombosis? A. Increased mobility B. Thrombocytopenia C. Venous stasis D. Polyuria Venous stasis (e.g., prolonged immobility) is a major risk factor for DVT. 64.Which lab result indicates myocardial infarction? A. Elevated CRP B. High D-dimer
C. Increased ESR D. Elevated troponin I Troponin I is a highly specific marker for myocardial injury. 65.Which finding suggests left ventricular failure? A. Hepatomegaly B. Peripheral edema C. Bibasilar crackles D. Ascites Left heart failure causes pulmonary congestion, leading to crackles. 66.Which valve disorder is associated with widened pulse pressure and bounding pulses? A. Mitral stenosis B. Aortic stenosis C. Aortic regurgitation D. Mitral regurgitation Aortic regurgitation causes increased stroke volume and diastolic backflow, widening pulse pressure. 67.Which condition is a risk factor for bacterial endocarditis? A. Mitral valve prolapse B. Ventricular septal defect C. Both A and B D. None of the above Both structural valve abnormalities and congenital heart defects increase risk for endocarditis.