NU665/NU665B FINAL TEST QUESTION 2025, Exams of Nursing

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NU665/NU665B FINAL TEST

QUESTION 2025 REGIS

COLLEGE

[Document subtitle]

[DATE]

[COMPANY NAME] [Company address]

1. A rural and underserved community has an unusually elevated incidence of depression and drug use. This is detected among the teenage population. To address this issue, you will modify the environment and strengthen the capacity of families. You do this to ward off the development of new cases of depression and drug use. This is known as. Select one: a.primary prevention b.secondary prevention c.tertiary prevention d.protective factor prevention Answer: a. primary prevention 2. Contemporary therapy approaches are grounded on a core set of values, which are neither value-neutral nor applicable to all cultures.? T/F Answer: True 3. Any court of law that evaluates the standard of care provided by a PMHNP Select one: a.compares the action to the standard of care provided by a psychiatrist b.considers what a reasonably prudent healthcare provider would do c.evaluates patient satisfaction data d.reviews the nurse practitioner's charts for similar patients e.All of these answers are Answer: b. considers what a reasonably prudent healthcare provider would do 4. The tendency for individuals to relate external events to themselves, even when there is no basis for making this connection, is known as: Select one: a. labeling and mislabeling. b. overgeneralization. c. arbitrary inferences. d. personalization. Answer: d. personalization. 5. The first step in making an ethical decision is to: Select one: a. look at the relevant ethics codes. b. identify the problem. c. consider the applicable laws and regulations. d. seek consultation. Answer: b. identify the problem.

11. Clinicians who work in community mental health agencies, private practice, and other human service settings are generally expected to assess client problems within the framework of the National Association of Social Workers' Diagnostic and Assessment Protocol Manual (3rd ed.). Select one: True False Answer: False 12. The brain structure associated with new memories and consolidation of new memories is the. Select one: a.frontal cortex b.amygdala c.hippocampus d.hypothalamus Answer: c. hippocampus 13. Serotonin is produced in which part of the brain? Select one: a.Locus ceruleus b.Nucleus basalis c.Raphi nuclei d.Substantia nigra e.None of the answers are Answer: c. Raphi nuclei 14. Sarah has been diagnosed with MDD. She is started on Sertraline 25 mg for her depression. She will take one-half of the dose in the a.m. for two weeks. You will follow up with her. To effectively monitor the client's use of medication, which of the following steps will be part of her ongoing care? Select one: a.Monitoring for potential cardiac side effects b.Monitoring for potential abuse of the medication c.Monitoring of baseline labs of renal functioning d.Use of a standardized rating scale of depression Answer: d. Use of a standardized rating scale of depression 15. What teratogenic effects can occur by the psychotropics divalproex and lithium? Select one: a.Divalproex-Epstein Anomaly; lithium-cleft palate b.Lithium-spina bifida; divalproex-mental retardation c.Lithium-Epstein anomaly; divalproex-spina bifida d.Divalproex-limb malformations; lithium-seizure disorder Answer: c. Lithium-Epstein anomaly; divalproex-spina bifida

16. A 24-year-old female is brought to the ER after attempting suicide by swallowing a bottle of her pills. Select the nursing action of highest priority that the PMHNP will take initially, once the patient is medically stable. Select one: a.Take her vital signs. b.Assess her health history. c.Assess her coping behaviors. d.Assess her current level of suicidality. Answer: a. Take her vital signs. 17. Some family therapists focus primarily on the nuclear family, which is based on Western notions, and this could clearly be a shortcoming in working with clients in extended families.? Select one: True False Answer: True 18. All of the following are characteristics of the behavioral approaches except: Select one: a. behavior therapy relies on the principles and procedures of the scientific method. b. behavior therapy specifies treatment goals in concrete and objective terms. c. behavior therapy focuses on the client's current problems and the factors influencing them. d. behavior therapy employs the same procedures to every client with a particular dysfunctional behavior. Answer: d. behavior therapy employs the same procedures to every client with a particular dysfunctional behavior. 19. Which of the following is not a basic characteristic of behavior therapy? Select one: a.Treatment goals are specific and concrete. b.It is grounded in learning theory. c.Many specific techniques are supported by research. d.The therapist is manipulative and controlling. Answer: d. The therapist is manipulative and controlling. 20. The techniques of joining, boundary setting, unbalancing, reframing, ordeals, enactments, and paradoxical interventions are most likely to be part of which approach to family therapy?? Select one: a.Bowenian family therapy b.Adlerian family therapy c.Structural-strategic family therapy

d.Clarithromycin Answer: b. Propranolol

26. Suicide among those diagnosed with schizophrenia spectrum is: Select one: a.most common during the 1st few years of the illness b.low c.usually due to command hallucinations d.rare unless co-occurring with personality disorder Answer: c. usually due to command hallucinations 27. When talking to parents who have brought their child in to see you for what they believe might be ADHD, you inform them that. Select one: a.the incidence of ADHD is estimated to be 25-35% of U.S. school age children b.this disorder will definitely lead to difficulties with academics and substance abuse and probably employment issues c.it is equally common in boys and girls d.the pathology of the disease is not clear Answer: d. the pathology of the disease is not clear 28. Modeling methods have been used in treating people with anger management issues and in teaching new behaviors to children with attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder. Select one: True False Answer: True 29. Following are some of the main findings from the epidemiological research on PTSD. All are true EXCEPT. Select one: a.the majority of people will experience at least one traumatic event in their lifetime b.intentional acts of interpersonal violence, in particular sexual assault, and combat are more likely to lead to PTSD than accidents or disasters c.men tend to experience more traumatic events than women, but women experience higher impact events (that is, events that are more likely to lead to PTSD) d.children are not at risk to experience PTSD Answer: d. children are not at risk to experience PTSD 30. People at risk of PTSD include all of the following EXCEPT. Select one: a.victims of violent crime (such as physical and sexual assaults, sexual abuse, bombings, and riots) b.members of the armed forces, police, and prison service; journalists; fire service

members; ambulance and emergency personnel, including those no longer in service c.victims of war, torture, state-sanctioned violence or terrorism, and survivors of accidents or disasters d.women following traumatic childbirth and individuals diagnosed with a life-threatening illness e.All of the answers are Answer: e. All of the answers are

31. All of the following are true as they apply to self-instructional training, except that: Select one: a. it was developed by Meichenbaum. b. it is a form of cognitive restructuring. c. it is an outgrowth of an approach used widely by crisis intervention workers called self- induced change therapy. d. it is also known as cognitive behavior modification. Answer: c. it is an outgrowth of an approach used widely by crisis intervention workers called self-induced change therapy. 32. You are the PMHNP treating a combat veteran following a deployment to Afghanistan. You have diagnosed him with PTSD and have decided to start him on Paroxetine. Which of the following is the LEAST likely reason to use an SSRI with this client? Select one: a.SSRIs can improve sleep disturbances associated with PTSD. b.SSRIs reduce the re-experiencing, avoidance or numbing, and hyper-arousal associated with PTSD. c.SSRIs have been shown to be effective for treating dissociative and psychotic states with 80% efficacy in some trials. d.SSRIs can be effective for the treatment of co-morbid psychiatric disorders that often accompany PTSD. Answer: c. SSRIs have been shown to be effective for treating dissociative and psychotic states with 80% efficacy in some trials. 33. Commonly cited predictors of dangerousness to others include: Select one: a.Chronic anger or hostility b.Early loss of parent c.Prior violent acts d.All of the above Answer: c. Prior violent acts 34. A tell-tale sign that indicates trauma or psychopathology has taken place is. Select one:

e.All of the answers are Answer: e. All of the answers are

38. Serving as a member on a crisis team, a PMHNP provides crisis intervention to the survivors of a plane crash. Forty hours after the accident, the survivors describe vivid flashbacks, startle reactions, and disrupted sleep patterns. How should the NP respond? Select one: a.Advising the survivors to consider using a hypnotic medication for a brief period of time. b.Educating the survivors about prodromal symptoms of PTSD. c.Encouraging the survivors to rest during the day. d.Suggesting that the survivors join a post-trauma support group. e.All of the answers are Answer: d. Suggesting that the survivors join a post-trauma support group. 39. A screening tool developed specifically to screen adolescents for high risk alcohol and other drug use is. Select one: a.PACES b.HEEADSSS c.CRAFFT d.M-CHAT e.None of the answers Answer: c. CRAFFT 40. A 14-year-old boy is brought to the ED by the police after the boy assaulted a passerby. The patient is slurring his speech and appears unsteady. On physical exam, he is found to have nystagmus, generalized muscle weakness, and depressed reflexes. He is sluggish and complains that he is seeing double. Which substance is most likely causing his intoxication syndrome? Select one: a.Inhalants b.Stimulants c.Alcohol d.Amphetamines e.Hallucinogens Answer: c. Alcohol 41. Which medication has been FDA approved for treating both alcohol and opiate addiction? Select one: a. Verenicline (Chantax)

b. Wellbutrin (Buproprion) c. Naltrexone (Revia) d.Buprenorphine (Suboxone) Answer: c. Naltrexone (Revia)

42. Anorexia nervosa has a mortality rate of up to approximately: Select one: a.1% b.18% c.30% d.42% Answer: b.18% 43. Which of the following features can be associated with bulimia nervosa? Select one: a.Previous episode of anorexia nervosa b.Abnormal insulin secretion c.Undeveloped breasts d.Endocrine disorder Answer: a. Previous episode of anorexia nervosa 44. A two year old boy presents with his mother because of the parents' concern that he is not developing appropriately. The child relates poorly to others, is often unable to engage using eye contact, and does not play with other children during play dates. He has trouble expressing himself. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? Select one: a.Fetal alcohol syndrome b.Tourette's disorder c.Schizotypal personality disorder d.Autism Answer: d. Autism 45. Which screening tool is now being used consistently by pediatric providers to screen for autism? Select one: a.Conners b.Vanderbilt c.HAM-A d.M-CHAT e.A-CHAT Answer: d. M-CHAT

you have, what might be the best diagnosis at this time? Select one: a.Antisocial personality disorder b.Conduct disorder c.Oppositional Defiant Disorder d.Borderline Personality Disorder Answer: c. Oppositional Defiant Disorder

51. Which of the following statements about the relationship between therapist and client in behavior therapy is true? A. The therapist is solely responsible for setting treatment goals B. The relationship is considered collaborative C. Therapist and client work together in a fixed rigid manner D. The therapeutic relationship is not an important factor in treatment outcomes Answer: B. The relationship is considered collaborative 52. Which of the following characteristics are developmentally associated with preschool years? A. Initiative versus guilt B. Egocentricity C. Magical thinking D. Body image anxiety E. All answers are correct Answer: E. All answers are correct 53. The following statements about object relations theory is true? A. It is a product of psychoanalytic approach B. It emphasizes the mother child relationship C. Introjection and projection are important concepts D. It is concerned with how we relate with all that is outside of us E. These answer options are correct Answer: E. These answer options are correct 54. Serotonin is produced in which part of the brain? A. Locus coeruleus B. Nucleus basalis C. Raphe nuclei D. Substantia nigra E. None of these answer choices is correct Answer: C. Raphe nuclei 55. Which following anti psychotic drugs is least likely to cause significant weight gain? A. Clozapine

B. Olanzapine C. Risperdal D. Ziprasidone Answer: D. Ziprasidone

56. All of the following are positive and healthy effects of exercise and nutrition except which one? A. Decrease cardiac stroke volume B. Decrease heart rate at rest C. Decrease low density lipoprotein concentration D. Increase blood volume and circulating hemoglobin Answer: A. Decrease cardiac stroke volume 57. All of the following are biologic changes associated with aging except which one? A. Decreased glomerular filtration rate and renal blood flow B. Diminished cough reflex C. Increased acuity of taste, smell, and touch D. Increased transport across blood brain barrier Answer: C. Increased acuity of taste, smell, and touch 58. Approximately what percentage of the general population has a lifetime prevalence of PTSD? A. 20% B. 25% C. 16.3% D. 6.8% Answer: D. 6.8% 59. All of the following are evidenced-based psychotherapeutic interventions for PTSD except which one? A. Trauma focused cognitive behavioral therapy (TFCBT) B. Eye movement desensitization and reprocessing therapy (EMDR) C. Prolonged exposure therapy (PE) D. Forced exposure therapy (FET) Answer: D. Forced exposure therapy (FET) 60. All of the following are examples of the positive symptoms of schizophrenia that individuals will present except which one? A. Auditory and visual hallucinations B. Stereotyped behavior C. Religious delusions D. Affective flattening Answer: D. Affective flattening

D. The identification of specific, precise, and individualized symptoms reasoned to improve with medication Answer: D. The identification of specific, precise, and individualized symptoms reasoned to improve with medication

67. The mechanism of action of psychotropic drugs that accounts for both their therapeutic effects and their side effects is known as which of the following? A. Pharmacokinetics B. Pharmacodynamics C. Cytochrome p450 enzyme system D. Neurotransmission Answer: B. Pharmacodynamics 68. First pass effect refers to which of the following? A. Portion of the drug that is absorbed prior to reaching systemic circulation. B. Rate at which IV and IM medications are metabolized C. Metabolism of the drug in the liver , prior to reaching systemic circulation D. Effect of glucuronic acid on a drug Answer: C. Metabolism of the drug in the liver, prior to reaching systemic circulation 69. A 25 year old patient who is prescribed clozapine recently had labs drawn for clozapine monitoring. Which of the following laboratory values would require a pause in clozapine therapy? A. WBC: 4,400 er microliter B. ANC: 1000uL C. WBC: 6,000 per microliter D. ANC: 500uL Answer: D. ANC: 500uL 70. Which of the following medications is FDA approved for the treatment of depression in children? A. Fluoxetine (Prozac) B. Paroxetine (Paxil) C. Venlafaxine (Effexor) D. Mirtazapine (Remeron) Answer: A. Fluoxetine (Prozac) 71. Which of the following statements about antidepressant use during pregnancy is true? A. Paroxetine is considered a first line treatment for depression in pregnancy B. Pharmacokinetic changes in pregnancy may result in need for higher doses of medication to reach efficacy. C. Treatment recommendation are consistent in their recommendation to taper SSRIs in

the third trimester. D. The evidence has conclusively drawn a link between SSRI use and development of persistent pulmonary hypertension. Answer: B. Pharmacokinetic changes in pregnancy may result in need for higher doses of medication to reach efficacy.

72. Which of the following statements about antipsychotic use in pregnancy is true? A. Conventional antipsychotic use for the treatment of psychosis in pregnancy is well studied. B. Atypical antipsychotic use in pregnancy does not appear to be associated major congenital malformations. C. Atypical antipsychotic use in pregnancy does not appear to be associated with withdrawal syndromes. D. Atypical antipsychotic use in pregnancy does not appear to be associated with increased birth weights. Answer: B. Atypical antipsychotic use in pregnancy does not appear to be associated major congenital malformations. 73. An individual diagnosed with schizophrenia will display which of the following characteristics? A. Prominent delusions or auditory hallucinations, disorganized speech and/or behavior B. Disorganized speech and behavior and a flat affect C. Oddities of posturing, echolalia, and echopraxia; waxy flexibility D. Catalepsy, excessive movements Answer: A. Prominent delusions or auditory hallucinations, disorganized speech and/or behavior 74. Symptoms of an individual on antipsychotic medication such as motor restlessness, inability to remain still, rocking, pacing, and constant motion of unilateral limb with a subjective complaint of restlessness, would most likely be indicative of which of the following? A. Tardive dyskinesia B. Dystonia C. Akinesia D. Akathisia Answer: D. Akathisia 75. Dopamine inhibits prolactin. The blockade of dopamine in which pathway, by second generation antipsychotics can cause prolactin to increase resulting in galactorrhea and gynecomastia? A. Frontotemporal pathway B. Tuberoinfundibular pathway C. Nigrostriatal pathway

thoughts and disturbing dreams about what he was seeing during the day. (additional information removed) My wife says it's all in my head!" He thinks that he is having cardiac issues and that his PCP is missing it. Jack is well-dressed, fidgety, and anxious. His memory and concentration are impaired. He smokes 2 packs of cigarettes daily. He does not drink alcohol. His BMI is 31. What diagnosis is most likely with Jack's presenting symptoms? A. Bipolar I B. Social anxiety disorder C. Panic Disorder D. Reactive attachment Answer: C. Panic Disorder

81. How should the PMHNP separate comorbidity from complications of current diagnosis? A. Call the PCP and find out why they referred Jack B. Immediately discontinue the alprazolam C. Ask Jack why he thinks he has a cardiac condition D. Perform a complete assessment including a ROS, MSE, and lab studies. Answer: D. Perform a complete assessment including a ROS, MSE, and lab studies. 82. What medication adjustments should be made? A. Change alprazolam to midazolam B. Consider starting paroxetine C. Order eszopiclone 5mg D. No changes should be made Answer: B. Consider starting paroxetine 83. How should the PMHNP address any family issues? A. Start doing couples therapy although the PMNHP doesn't have any special training B. Provide psychoeducation and supportive therapy and discuss referrals C. Suggest that Jack's wife find her own therapist D. Call the PCP to get suggestions for therapy Answer: B. Provide psychoeducation and supportive therapy and discuss referrals 84. How should the PMHNP manage the alprazolam? A. The PMHNP should stop it immediately and not write a new prescription B. The PMHNP should call the PCP and find out their plan whether to continue the alprazolam C. The PMHNP should ask Jack and his wife about how long they want Jack to be on the medication D. The PMHNP should taper down the alprazolam as soon as an effective dose has been established for Jack

Answer: D. The PMHNP should taper down the alprazolam as soon as an effective dose has been established for Jack

85. True or False: Feminist, multicultural, and postmodern therapists are not encouraged to be self reflective of the power they have entering into already established systems, and they work to promote compliance through formal assessments only. True or False Answer: False 86. True or False: To be diagnosed with an adjustment disorder the stressor may have occurred sometime in the last 6 months when symptoms began. True or False Answer: True 87. What percent of individuals initially diagnosed with major depressive disorder will experience a manic episode 6-10 years after the first depressive episode? A. 5-10% B. 10-20% C. 20-30% D. 30-40% Answer: A. 5-10% 88. What screening tool is now being used consistently by pediatric providers to screen for autism? A. Conners B. Vanderbilt C. HAM-A D. M-CHAT E. A-CHAT Answer: D. M-CHAT 89. True or False: Older children are more at risk of being diagnosed with selective mutism. True or False Answer: False 90. True or False: Anxiety disorders are the most common group of psychiatric disorders and are characterized by the degree of anxiety experienced by the individual by the duration and severity of the anxiety and the typical manifestations of anxiety observed. True or False Answer: True 91. According to the DSM 5 TR, the criteria for insomnia disorder include "notable dissatisfaction with sleep quality or quantity associated with which of the following?