NUR 1460C PRACTICE FINAL EXAM Verified Questions and Answers Florida State College, Exams of Nursing

Download NUR 1460C PRACTICE FINAL EXAM Verified Questions and Answers Florida State College and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!

NUR 1460C PRACTICE FINAL EXAM Florida State College at Jacksonville (FSCJ)

1. Which is the correct level for pH? a. 7.45-7. b. 7.35-7. c. 7.25-7. d. 7.35-7.
2. Which is the correct level for PaCO2? a. 45- b. 55- c. 35- d. 22-
3. Which is the correct level for HCO3? a. 35- b. 7.35-7. c. 22- d. 45-
4. A patient presents with anxiety, weakness/fatigue, dizziness, fast heartbeat, headache, blurry vision, shakiness, irritability, altered mental status, seizures and hunger… What is his patient experiencing? a. Hyperglycemia b. Hyperthyroidism c. Hypoglycemia d. Hypothyroidism
5. A patient present with stomach pain, irritability, excessive thirst, polyuria… What is this patient experiencing? a. Hyperglycemia b. Hypoglycemia c. Hypothyroidism d. Hyperthyroidism
6. Which organ is responsible for the production of insulin? a. Stomach b. Liver c. Pancreas d. Pituitary gland

a. Macronutrients b. Diabetes c. Micronutrients d. Tumor

13. Diabetics should have regular visits to which doctors? (Select all that apply) a. Cardiologist b. Podiatrist c. Ophthalmologist d. Endocrinologist
14. What is known as the diabetic pill? a. Metoprolol b. Atropine c. Lasix d. Metformin
15. Which insulin is responsible for regulating blood sugar during meals? a. Basal insulin b. Bolus insulin c. Lantus d. Lasix
16. Which insulin is responsible for regulating blood sugar after a meal? a. Basal insulin b. Bolus insulin c. Lantus d. Lasix
17. What does pre-prandial mean? a. Before a meal b. During a meal c. After a meal d. Before a snack
18. What does post-prandial mean? a. Before a meal b. During a meal c. After a meal d. Before a snack

19. What insulin is long acting? a. Levemir b. Lispro/Novolog c. Humulin/Novolin d. NPH
20. What insulin is fast acting a. Levemir b. Lispro/Novolog c. Humulin/Novolin d. NPH
21. What insulin is intermediate acting? a. Levemir b. Lispro/Novolog c. Humulin/Novolin d. NPH
22. What insulin is regular? a. Levemir b. Lispro/Novolog c. Humulin/Novolog d. Lispro
23. This is brought on by an infection, specific to type 1 diabetes, hyperglycemia, acidosis, iron losses, treatment is insulin, fluids and metabolic adjustments to get the patient out of acidosis… a. DKA (Diabetic Ketoacidosis) b. HHS (Hyperglycemic Hyperosmolar Syndrome)
24. This is also high blood sugar brought on by an infection, patient does NOT go into acidosis, onset is gradual usually within a 2 week period; treatment is insulin and fluids. a. DKA (Diabetic Ketoacidosis) b. HHS (Hyperglycemic Hyperosmolar Syndrome)
25. Diabetic patients have certain rules they must following when they are sick. They must do the following: notify doctor, monitor BG ever 4 hours, test urine for ketones when BG is more than 240, continue insulin, drink 8-

31. Your patient has been saying she has been taking her prescription for Lexapro for 5 days and it has not been working and she still feels depressed. What is the nurse’s best response? a. I’m sorry, let’s get you an Ativan. b. Maybe we should ask the doctor to switch your medication c. Maybe you should try to exercise d. SSRI’s usually take 2-3 weeks to start working, keep taking your medication.
32. Your patient has cancer and is experiencing anemia with a low platelet count; what action would make the nurse intervene? a. Using a soft bristled tooth brush b. Using an electric shaver c. Watching TV d. Using a hard bristled tooth brush and flossing
33. How long after radiation should patients avoid sun exposure? a. 1 year b. 2 years c. 8 months d. 10 months
34. Hemoglobin are packed red blood cells; what is their main functioning? a. Carrying oxygen through the blood b. Production of platelets c. Production of white blood cells d. Fighting infection
35. When should a radiation/chemotherapy patient shop for wigs? a. When treatment is over b. When hair starts to fall out c. Before treatment begins d. Never
36. You have just given your patient Phenergan for nausea; what statement needs further education? ‘ a. I will go for a walk once I am feeling better b. I want to take a nap c. I will watch TV in bed for awhile d. I want to call my friend

37. Which medication is appropriate for a patient experiencing short term anxiety? a. SSRI b. Benzodiazepines c. Anticholerginic d. Antiemetic
38. Which medication is appropriate for a patient experiencing long term anxiety or depression? a. SSRI b. Benzodiazepines c. Anticholerginic d. Antiemetic
39. How often should you check a patient’s port or IV for infiltration when infusing chemotherapy? a. At the beginning and end b. Every 25 minutes c. Every hour d. At the end of treatment
40. When a patient is having a panic attack, which of the following should you do? a. Tell the patient to calm down b. Help calm the patient and attend to physical symptoms c. Move the patient to a quiet room and leave them alone following medications d. Call a family member
41. When is the best time to take SSRI medications? a. In the morning with breakfast b. During a panic attack c. With dinner d. At night before bed
42. A woman is stressing and preparing to go out of town; she has a lot to do before she leaves in the morning; what is the product of this stress? a. Panic attack b. Not able to focus c. Motivation

c. When they begin having complications d. When they get over their fears

49. What should you NEVER ask your patient; when practicing therapeutic response? a. Why? b. Where is the pain? c. When did this pain begin? d. Where were you when this began?
50. When caring for a patient receiving brachy therapy; what precautions should the nurse take? (Select all that apply) a. Clustering all care into one time, if possible b. Spend lots of time with the patient to make them feel calm c. Not turning their back on the patient d. Wearing a led shield e. Limiting time spent with the patient
51. Cervical and breast exams are examples of what? a. Primary prevention b. Secondary prevention c. Tertiary prevention d. Smart thing to do
52. When handling chemotherapy medications; it is important to use what protection? a. A gown b. Mask c. Chemo gloves or double gloves d. Shoe covers
53. When speaking to a patient and showing therapeutic response, what does the nurse do to give the patient time to reflect? a. Silence b. Inspection c. Assessment d. Evaluation
54. Which type of tumor is tightly bound and stabilized? a. Malignant tumor

b. Growing tumor c. Cancerous tumor d. Benign tumor

55. A patient says she is experiencing sudden terror and tachycardia. What is this patient experiencing? a. Panic attack b. Fear c. Depression d. Neutropenia
56. A patient is experiencing neutropenia; what medication do you think the provider will order? a. Ibuprofen b. Antibiotics c. Nupogen d. Epogen
57. A patient is experiencing a huge deficit in his red blood cells. What medication do you think the provider will order? a. Ibuprofen b. Antibiotics c. Nupogen d. Epogen
58. Your neutropenic patient is not acting right.. What should you check for? a. Mental status b. Confusion c. Assess for signs and symptoms of infection d. Call the doctor
59. Tumor lysis syndrome causes: (Select all that apply) a. Hyperuricemia b. Hypokalemia c. Hypocalcemia d. High BUN
60. A patient experiencing a panic attack will present in which way? a. HR: 80 bpm RR: 16, BP: 100/ b. HR: 90 bpm, RR: 18, BP: 114/

67. Your patient has hypokalemia, what medication would you hold and talk to the provider? a. Aldactone b. Lasix c. Ibuprofen d. Antibiotics
68. Which are classified as recue drugs? (Select all that apply) a. Ventolin b. Xanax c. Albuterol d. Lexapro e. Plavix
69. Which medication would be used to prevent DVT, PE, stroke and MI? a. Lopressor b. Lasix c. Plavix d. Albuterol
70. Metabolic acidosis is indicated by which of the following? a. Vomiting b. Hyperventilation c. Kussumal respirations d. High fluid volume
71. Which patient is at risk for high magnesium? a. A patient who takes antacids daily b. A patient taking insulin c. A patient with hyperthyroidism d. A patient experiencing pain
72. A patient receiving NG suctioning is at risk for what? a. Hyperkalemia b. Hypokalemia c. Hypernatremia d. Hyponatremia
73. A patient experiencing vomiting and dehydration is at risk for? a. Metabolic acidosis

b. Metabolic alkalosis c. Respiratory acidosis d. Respiratory alkalosis

74. Your patient has an increased sodium level (hypernatremia); which food choice indicates a need for further education? a. Sardines b. Toast c. Strawberries d. Oranges
75. A patient is experiencing low blood pressure and confusion; what could be the cause? a. Tiredness b. Hypocalcemia c. Hyponatremia d. Hyperkalemia
76. What would you educate your patient about when taking Atrovent? a. This is to be used when you think it is time b. This medication can cause heart palpitations which are normal c. This medication will give you diarrhea d. This medication works after 2-3 weeks
77. What would you educate your patient about when taking Advair? a. Use this when you want b. Rinse your mouth after use c. Do not rinse your mouth after use d. This will not cause mouth lesions
78. Your patient’s blood pressure is 160/120; what should you NOT do? a. Give pain medication b. Administer oxygen if ordered c. Stay with patient if asked d. Administer fluids
79. Your patient is experiencing severe pain; their vital signs are HR: 110, RR: 26 and blood pressure is 80/50; what should you do first? a. Administer morphine b. Administer oxygen

d. Metabolic acidosis

86. Diabetic patients are at risk for which of the following? a. Hypoventilation b. PVD (Peripheral vascular disease) c. Hyperventilation d. DVT (Deep vein thrombosis)
87. A patient with chronic renal damage is at risk for what? (Select all that apply) a. Fluid overload b. Hyperkalemia c. Dehydration d. Hodgkin’s lymphoma
88. Which of the following are remedies for RSV? (select all that apply) a. Humidifier b. Essential oils c. Rest d. Fluids only when baby will take them e. Go outside at night
89. Which is the best method of preventing the spread of RSV at a daycare? a. Handwashing b. Keeping all sick kids together c. Closing the day care during flu season d. Enforcing sick kids to stay home
90. How often should a patient change their insulin pump needle? a. When it becomes dull b. Every other week c. Every week d. Every 2-3 days
91. Which medication is best to treat a patient with hypothyroidism? a. Synthroid b. Lasix c. Lexapro d. Metformin

92. A sudden job loss is classified as? a. Maturation crisis b. Situational crisis c. Adventitious crisis d. Horrible crisis
93. If a confused patient needs to go to surgery what is the nurse’s best action? a. Sign the consent for them b. Get the doctor to go ahead with surgery since the patient cannot give consent c. Do not allow the patient go to surgery since he/she cannot give consent d. Get a court order for surgery
94. A patient has NO skin breakdown or sores; what does this mean? a. Patient does not eat enough protein b. Patient does not have diabetes c. Patient was turned every two hours successfully d. Patient is not lazy
95. A patient with a morphine overdose is at risk for which of the following? a. Respiratory acidosis b. Respiratory alkalosis c. Metabolic acidosis d. Metabolic alkalosis
96. The EMTALA says what: a. Patients must have insurance to be treated b. Doctors have the right to deny patients care c. Patients without insurance must be treated and cannot be turned away d. Patients can deny their own care
97. Patient comes into the ER having an asthma attack which medication do you expect to give? a. Albuterol b. Xanax c. Diflucan d. Atropine
98. Your patient is experiencing shortness of breath; what should you do first? a. Administer oxygen

b. Diet c. Sugar d. Meditation

105. A diabetic needs further education when they state: a. “I should limit my sugar intake” b. “I should limit my carbohydrate intake” c. “I should limit my alcoholic drinks” d. “I should keep all carbs out of my diet”
106. Metabolic syndrome also known as “Syndrome X” is classified by which of the following: (Select all that apply) a. Increased blood pressure b. Increase blood glucose c. Body fat around waist d. Can lead to diabetes e. Increase in triglycerides f. Underweight people
107. How should you store open insulin vials? a. At room temperature for 28 days; after it must be thrown away b. Always in the refrigerator c. In the refrigerator for 28 days then thrown away after d. Wherever is most convenient
108. Glucotrol controls blood glucose levels and is an antidiabetic agent; which clinical manifestation must the patient have to be able to receive this medication? a. Must have liver function b. Must have pancreatic function c. Must have good heart function d. Must have type 1 diabetes
109. Which of the following is NOT a test for diabetes mellitus (DM)? a. Fasting glucose b. Oral glucose tolerance test c. Alkaline phosphate d. HgA1C

110. A type 1 diabetic with hyperglycemia leaves his high blood sugar untreated; what is he at risk for? a. DKA (diabetic ketoacidosis) b. HHNS (hyperglycemic hyperosmolar non-ketoic syndrome) c. Metabolic syndrome d. Hypoglycemia
111. A type 2 diabetic with untreated hyperglycemia has a blood glucose over 600; what is he experiencing? a. DKA (diabetic ketoacidosis) b. HHNS (hyperglycemic hyperosmolar non-ketoic syndrome) c. Hypoglycemia d. Metabolic syndrome
112. Regular insulin should be given when? a. An hour after a meal b. An hour before a meal c. 20-30 minutes before a meal d. 20-30 minutes after a meal
113. Which insulin is allowed to be given IV? a. Humulin R b. NPH c. Lantus d. Fast acting
114. Your patient has a BG of 60 and is awake; what should you give him to help bring up his BG? a. 4 oz of orange juice b. 12 oz of orange juice c. Zebra cake d. Oatmeal
115. A patient presents hypoglycemia and is unconscious; what should the nurse do? a. Give 1 mg of glucagon b. Give insulin c. Wait until you can get a Accu-check to see what to do d. Wait for the charge nurse