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NUR 2356 MDC1 MIDTERM EXAM||2025-2026|| NGN
QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT/VERIFIED
ANSWERS||A+ GRADE||RASMUSSEN COLLEGE
1. A client has cellulitis on his left arm. What statement by the client indicates a correct understanding of the symptoms management? a. “I can use tight bandage on my arm” b. “I should not apply heat on my arm” c. “I can use a warm moist towel on my arm” d. “I should use a cold dry source on my own” 2. What link in the chain of infection is broken on contact precautions are in place? a. Reservoir b. Mode of transmission c. Portal of entry d. Initiation phase 3. Which of the following statements by a client with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) requires further teaching? (select all that apply) a. “I will monitor my nutrition and fluids status.” b. “Because I have HIV, that means I am an AIDS patient.” c. “I can still have unprotected intercourse with my partner since he doesn’t have HIV.” d. “I need to ensure that I place my needles in a proper needle disposal container.” e. “I can spread this through contact with surfaces so I need to wear gloves in public.” 4. What are some of the expected outcomes when medications are given for rheumatoid arthritis? (select all that apply) a. Reduce inflammation b. Increased range of motion c. Cure the disease d. Decreased pain e. Increase quality of life 5. What is a priority nursing intervention for a client with lupus who is receiving steroids for a flareup? a. The nurse washes their hands before entering the room b. Assist with the enhancement of social well-being by providing activities c. Assessing the clients support system d. Ensure privacy by keeping the door always closed 6. The nurse assesses a deep wound. The area is covered by black and necrotic tissue. What term would the nurse use when documenting the wound? a. Blanching b. Cellulitis c. Tunneling d. Eschar 7. The nurse is providing medication education for a client with us your arthritis. What teaching should the nurse include in the education?
a. The main side effects of acetaminophen is gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding b. you should not take more than 4000 MG of Acetaminophen a day c. Nonsteroid anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDS) are very safe and are known to have no side effects. d. The most common adverse effects of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are liver failure and tinnitus
8. The client has been suffering from arthritis for many years and is experiencing an exacerbation. The client states that he has a lot of stress from his position as an administrative assistant and his job is not getting better what is the most appropriate response for the nurse? a. I feel stressed by my job, and I take a walk every day. You should do that b. You shouldn’t worry about your job. There is nothing to worry about. c. You are stating that this job is not getting better. Tell me more about that. d. Most people with this kind of stress have to quit their jobs are retired 9. A nurse is performing a psychosocial assessment on a client with severe rheumatoid arthritis. What would be the most appropriate statement by the nurse? a. “Tell me about what medication you are taking.” b. “What physical limitations are you experiencing?” c. “How does this impact your role in your family?” d. “What therapies are you using to reduce swelling?” 10. What nursing or interventions decreases the risk of pressure injuries? Select all that apply a. Padding hard surfaces b. Keep head of bed (HOB) at or less than 30° c. Keep head of bed (HOB) elevated to 75° d. Have clients sit in a wheelchair as much as possible e. Please pillows between bony surfaces 11. A client has acquired immunodeficiency syndrome aids(AIDS). Which of these assessment findings indicate possible infection? Select all that apply a. Temperature: of 101.3°F b. Oxygen saturation: 97% on room air c. Respiration: 22 breaths per minute d. Purulent drainage e. Client ambulates 20 feet 12. The 65 - year-old male client who is complaining of blurred vision reports he thinks his glasses need to be cleaned all the time, and he is denies any type of iPad. Which I disorder should the nurse expect the client has? a. Corneal dystrophy b. Conjunctivitis c. Diabetic retinopathy d. Cataracts 13. A client with systematic sclerosis (scleroderma) has been in bed for two weeks due to fatigue and abdominal pain. Today, the client came into the clinic complaining of leg being hot, red, and painful. What does the nurse suspect? a. Amputation b. Deep vein thrombosis
20. A nurse working on an orthopedic unit is caring for four clients. Which of the clients should the nurse identify as being at highest risk for skin breakdown? a. An adolescent who has a patella fracture and is in an immobilizer. b. A young adult who has a femur fracture and is going to surgery in two hours. c. A middle-aged adult who has fractured his radius and has a cast d. An older adult who has a hip fracture and is immobile. 21. The MG is 3000 MCG? (Record as a whole number. Type answer as numeric only.) 3 22. Which organization publishes the national patient safety goals? a. Medicare b. The American nurses Association c. The joint commission d. The Institute of medicine 23. Which of the following lab test may be used for diagnosing connective tissue disease? ( Select all that apply) a. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) b. C-reactive protein (CPR) c. Anti-nuclear factor (ANA) d. Rheumatoid factor (RF) e. Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) 24. I am with systemic sclerosis (scleroderma) is experiencing Raynaud’s phenomenon. What assessment finding does the nurse anticipate? a. Excessive heartburn b. Excess wrinkled skin c. Cyanosis of the lips d. Cold and purple nailbeds 25. A provider has ordered a wound culture for a client with a non-healing wound. What is the nurse’s first action? a. Put on a non-sterile glove b. Gently remove the soiled dressings c. Irrigate the wound d. Label the specimen tube 26. What is the priority intervention for the nurse to enhance meeting the psychosocial needs of a client on transmission-based precautions? a. Allow the client sleep to build up stamina b. Maintain a six-foot distance from the client c. Provide a timeframe for the isolation d. Provide the client with diversional activates 27. A client arrives speaking only Spanish. What is the priority nursing intervention? a. Call the chaplain for support b. Verify the reason for admission c. Request a medical interpreter d. Give the client a tour of the unit
28. A nurse assesses an audible grating sound(crepitus) when a client with osteoarthritis moves his knees. What is the cause of this sound? a. Popping bursae from standing b. A herniated disk in the diseased joint c. Pieces of bone and cartilage floating d. Years of an autoimmune process 29. The nurse is caring for a client who develops compartment syndrome from a severely fractured arm. The client asks the nurse how this happens. What is the best response by the nurse? a. “A bone fragment has injured the nerve supply in the area.” b. “An injured artery causes impaired arterial perfusion thorough the compartment.” c. “Bleeding and swelling causes increased pressure in an area that cannot expand.” d. “The fascia expands with injury, causing pressure on underlying nerves and muscles.” 30. *** A client states that he has been experiencing oozing from his wound. What is the nurse’s priority action? a. Culture the wound b. Apply topical ointment to the wound c. Inspect the wound and assess the drainage d. Call the provider to initiate antibiotic 31. What are risk factors for osteoarthritis? a. Female gender b. Older age c. Obesity d. Sports injuries e. Vegan diets 32. A nurse is teaching a client about adequate nutrition and hydration for the client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). What is important to teach the client? (Select all that apply.) a. Include many fresh fruits and vegetable in your diet b. Drink at least 2 to 3 L of fluids per day c. Eat high-calorie foods d. Lower your caloric intake e. Choose foods high in protein 33. Most adults with human immunodeficiency virus will exhibit which of the following laboratory values? a. Higher-than-normal number of CD4+T-cells and CD8+ T-cells are normal b. Lower-than-normal number of CD4+T-cells and CD8+ T-cells are normal c. Lower-than-normal number of CD4+T-cells and high than normal CD8+ T-cells d. Higher-than-normal number of CD4+T-cells and CD8+T-cells are low 34. The nurse is planning care for a post-operative client after a total hip arthroplasty. What is the priority nursing intervention?
42. The client is at risk for its skin integrity related to the need of several weeks of bed rest. The nurse evaluates the client after one week and finds the skin integrity is not impaired. In evaluating the of plan of care, what is the nurses best action? a. Remove the nursing diagnoses in the plan of care since it has not occurred b. Keep the nursing diagnoses in the plan of care the same since the risk factors are still present c. Modify the nursing diagnosis and plan of care to impaired skin integrity d. Change the nursing diagnosis and plan of care to impaired mobility 43. Nurse assesses the client’s pain prior to completing a dressing change. The client said his current pain is 5/10 but he has pain of 10/10 one dressing is changed. What is the priority intervention for this client? a. The old dressing with clean gloves b. Check medication administration record (MAR) for as needed orders (PRN) c. Teach the client about nonpharmacological pain control methods d. Offer the client protein with meals to promote healing 44. What nursing intervention is best to improve communication with a hearing- impaired client? a. Write down the message b. Talk loudly in the impaired ear c. Speak slowly and clearly while facing the client d. Talk in a regular voice in the good ear 45. What is the best goal for pain control in a client with rheumatoid arthritis? a. The client will have no pain throughout the entire day. b. The client will have pain less than 8/10 throughout the day. c. The client will eat three healthy meals today and stay hydrated. d. The client will have paid less than 3/10 for most of the day. 46. The client states “why am I getting proteins supplements while I’m healing from a bedsore?” What is the best response by the nurse? a. “Because it is easy to digest.” b. “If you don’t like it you don’t have to take it.” c. “The supplements have nothing to do with your wound.” d. “Protein has amino acid that promote wound healing.” 47. The nurse suspects a 3 - year-old child who is coughing vigorously has aspirated a small object. Which action should the nurse take? a. Deliver upward abdominal thrusts with a fisted hand. b. Complete five rapid back blows between the shoulder blades. c. Encourage the child to continue coughing. d. Perform a blind finger sweep of the child’s mouth 48. Of the following statements made by a client diagnosed with human immunodeficiency virus would require further teaching. a. “I will take all prescribed medication.” b. “I will only need to take HIV medication for 6 months and I will be cured.” c. “I will have to take medication for the rest of my life.” d. “I will have to be careful and avoid crowds.”
49. Which client is at the greatest risk for pressure injury development? a. 44 - year-old prescribed antibiotics for pneumonia b. A 26 - year-old bedridden client with a fractured leg c. A 65 - year-old with hemiparesis and incontinence d. A 70 - year-old requiring assistance to ambulate with a walker 50. What statement by the client indicates a correct understanding of the timing of progression of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) to acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)? a. “If I am re-exposed to HIV, the progression to AIDS may be faster.” b. “My diet does not influence the progression of HIV to AIDS.” c. “If I practice medication, I may develop AIDS faster. d. “Sexually transmitted infections will not make AIDS develop faster.” 51. The client with rheumatoid arthritis complains of intensely dry eyes. What does the nurse suspect? a. Chron’s disease b. Discoid lupus c. Systemic sclerosis d. Sjogren’s syndrome 52. A client is recovering from a fractured radius that occurred 7 weeks ago. Which stage of bone healing occurs at this time as the callus is resorbed and transformed into bone? a. Stage 4 b. Stage 3 c. Stage 5 d. Stage 1 53. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for ibuprofen to treat rheumatoid arthritis. The nurse should teach the client to monitor for what adverse effect of this medication. a. Constipation b. Bleeding c. Blurred vision d. Insomnia 54. What is not an appropriate nursing intervention for psoriasis? a. Apply corticosteroids as ordered b. Teach the client how utilize UV radiation c. Urge the client to consider participating in support groups d. Apply rubbing alcohol to plaques 55. The nurse assesses a wound with exudate. What should be included when documenting to exudate? (Select all that apply) a. Color b. Oder c. Heat d. Consistency e. Amount
a. These drugs kill the virus b. Only certain licensed drugs are effective c. A few missed doses per month are OK d. These drugs inhibit viral replication
65. What is a symptom of the expected disease pattern of rheumatoid arthritis? a. Unilateral joint pain b. Bilateral joint pain c. Contralateral join pain d. Obtuse variety join pain 66. A nurse enters the hospital room of a client with reduced immunity. What observation requires further action by the nurse? a. The client is in a private room b. The client has a dedicated vital sign machine c. The client has a vase of fresh flowers on the table d. There is hand sanitizer by the door 67. A client is diagnosed with systemic sclerosis (scleroderma). What symptoms is the first to occur? a. Joint pain b. Intense wrinkles c. Raynaud’s phenomenon d. Tachycardia 68. Which assessment is a nonverbal sign of pain? (Select all that apply.) a. Increased agitation b. Decreased attention span c. Grimacing d. Reported pain 5/ e. Increased in heart rate 69. What lifestyle habits negatively affects skin integrity? (Select all that apply.) a. Tanning b. Regular exercise c. Smoking d. Nutritious diet e. Tattoos 70. Antibodies are passed from mother to fetus through the placenta. What is this type of immunity called? a. Natural active b. Artificial active c. Natural passive d. Artificial passive 71. The nurse is caring for a 65 - year-old client and notes a temperature of 101 F. How does the nurse interpret this finding? a. Hypothermia b. Hyperthermia
c. Normal d. A cold environment
72. What does CREST syndrome stand for? a. Calcinosis Raynaud’s, Esophageal dysmotility, Sclerodactyly, and Telangiectasia b. Calcinosis, Reverse isolation, Esophageal dysmotility, Sclerodactyly, and Telangiectasia c. Calcinosis, Raynaud’s, Everted colon, Sclerodactyly, and Telangiectasia d. Calcinosis, Raynaud’s, Esophageal dysmotility, Sclerodactyly, and Telekinesis 73. A client just received a diagnosis of cancer. Which statement by the nurse demonstrates empathy? a. “Tomorrow will be better.” b. “This must be hard news to hear. Tell me more about it.” c. “What is you biggest fear about this diagnosis?” d. “I believe you can overcome this because I’ve seen how strong you are.” 74. The nurse will be using the Barden scale with each admit to the long-term care center. Which of these will be utilized in a Barden scale assessment? Select all that apply a. Sensory perception b. Age c. Friction and sheer d. Nutrition e. Mental state 75. sdjhfUIADF 76. Nurse is caring for any intubated and sedated geriatric client. What intervention is most appropriate for reducing the risk of friction and sheer injury? a. Post pone daily bed baths b. Elevate the clients head of the bed to 45 degrees c. Caregiver independently slides the client up in bed d. Use a mechanical lift to reposition the client every two hours 77. What medication class and decreased tissue inflammation but delay bone healing? a. Opioids b. Anticoagulants c. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) d. Narcotics 78. Which practice is recommended to prevent human immunity deficiency virus (HIV) transmission by healthcare workers? a. Using standard precautions b. Double gloving c. Applying hand sanitizer to gloves during cares d. Wearing a mask within 3 feet of the clients 79. What is the likely reason that a client with acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) would succumb to pneumonia while a healthy person exposed to the same infection did not?
a. Proceed to take the oral temperature b. Document the temperature was unable to be obtained c. Proceed to take the oral temperature d. Wait 30 minutes to take an oral temperature
87. The client asked the nurse what non-pharmacological intervention can be used to reduce pain and swelling in her join affected by rheumatoid arthritis. What is the most appropriate response by the nurse? a. “Ice packs can be used to reduce swelling but should be removed after 20 minutes.” b. “Apply ice packs. It is generally okay to keep them on for up to one hour at a time.” c. “Heat always makes the swelling go down. You don’t need any other interventions.” d. “Try high-impact exercise like running to loosen up your joints and reduce pain” 88. A nurse is providing education for a client who has glaucoma. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching? a. “Without treatment glaucoma can be black can cause blindness.” b. “Double vision is common symptoms of glaucoma” c. “Glaucoma is caused by inadequate production of fluid within the eye.” d. “Use of eyedrops will improve vision overtime.” 89. The nurse is most concerned about which of these findings in a client with systemic lupus erythematosus? a. The client has a butterfly rash b. Blood pressure of 126/85 mm Hg c. The client reports chronic fatigue d. Urine output of 20 mL/ hour 90. The nurse is caring for four clients. Which class should the nurse first? a. A client with chronic rheumatic pain b. A client with lupus asking for dinner c. A client on methotrexate with a fever d. A client with multiple trips children visiting 91. A client who is sitting in a high-Fowler’s position is at risk for what type of injury as the skin layers shift in opposite direction? a. Shearing injury b. Friction injury c. Pressure injury d. Traumatic injury 92. Nurse is caring for a client who has acute osteomyelitis. Which of the following interventions is the nurse’s priority? a. Provide the client with anti-pyretic therapy b. Administer antibiotics to the client c. Increase the client’s protein intake d. Teach relaxation breathing to reduce the client’s pain
93. A client is expecting numbness and tingling distal to a new arm cast with no increase in pain. The nurse assesses that the client fingers are pale cool and swollen. What action does the nurse take next? a. Encourage range of motion b. Apply heat to the affected hand c. Remove the cast to decrease pressure d. Raise the arm above the level of the heart 94. A client has sustained an open fracture. How can the nurse best prevent osteomyelitis in this client? a. Place the client in contact precaution b. Use proper hand hygiene and strict infection control c. Administer pain medication d. Delegate all client personal care to specific unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) 95. The client complains of fatigue and joint pain and reports that they are unable to walk due to pain in the knees? What is the most appropriate statement by the nurse? a. “You should avoid walking. This might be osteoporosis.” b. “You just have arthritis and should take some ibuprofen.” c. “Please tell me more about when your pain started?” d. “You need to lose weight, or the pain won’t go away” 96. Kuhjjvyfhk 97. Client is in skeletal traction. With the nurse’s assessment, it is noted that the pins appear red, swollen, and there is purulent draining. What action does the nurse take first? a. Cleanse the skin around the pins b. Collect a culture of the purulent fluid c. Administer an antibiotic d. Instruct the client to complete exercise of the affected extremity 98. What client is a susceptible host most at risk for infection? a. A client with leukemia b. A client who is in immunized c. A 60 - year-old client d. A hospitalized 35 - year-old client 99. What is an infectious disease that can be transmitted directly from one person to another? a. Susceptible host b. A communicable disease c. Portal of entry to a host d. A portal of exit from the reservoir 100. What nursing intervention is appropriate for a client with systematic lupus erythematosus (SLE) a. Administer topical hydrocortisone b. Intense cold therapy to the extremities c. Administer antibiotics d. Encourage ultraviolet (UV) light exposure 101. A wound has a blood-tinged liquid that is dripping from the surgical site. How
b. Chvostek’s sign c. Ovide’s sign d. Butterfly rash
107. A client is bedridden and appears to be frail and malnourished. Which nursing interventions will decrease the risk of pressure injury? Select all that apply a. Cleaning the skin routinely after coiling occurs b. Applying moisture to dry areas of skin c. Using a Hoyer lift for all transfers d. Repositing client once per shift 108. A client on bedrest complains of pain and burning in the right calf area. What is the nurses next action? a. Deeply palpate the area for a rebound tenderness b. Percuss over the area for a change in tone c. Compare the circumference to the left calf d. Medicate the client for pain and reassess and 60 minutes 109. When assessing the skin in the elderly, what age-related change the nurse considers? a. Loss of elasticity of the dermal layer b. Increased activity of the sebaceous glands c. Increased regeneration of healthy skin d. Loss of vernix caseosa 110. An area of erythema on the child’s skin is being assessed by the nurse. The nurse presses down on the area, and the area becomes white. What term does the nurse document for this finding? a. Blanching b. Warmth c. Redness d. Non-blanching 111. A client has a new diagnosis of human immunodeficiency virus HIV. The client is distraught and does not know what to do. What intervention by the nurse is best? a. Assess the clients can support system b. Call the hospital clergy to speak with the client c. Explained the legal requirements to tell sex partners d. Offered to tell the family for the client 112. The nurse notices a new area of skin breakdown near the site of a dressing. This would be an example of which phase of the nursing process? a. Diagnosis b. Assessment c. Implementation d. Evaluation 113. A nurse is assessing a client’s viral signs. The oxygen saturation is 85% what is the intervention should the nurse perform first? a. Call the provider b. Place the client in the lithotomy position
c. Raise the head of the bed d. Obtain pain medication
114. A homeless client arrives in the emergency room. The client verbalizes an inability to bathe for at least one month. What is the nurse’s priority? a. Inspect the client’s skin b. Provide a towel and show the client to the shower c. Ask if the client has been to a homeless shelter recently d. Call a social worker 115. The nurse is providing education to a client regarding the administration of eye drops. Which of the following action indicates the need for further client education? a. The client instills the prescribed number of eyes drops into the conjunctival sac b. The client washes her hands before instilling the eye drops. c. The client sets the cap to the eye drop container down in a manner that does not contaminate it d. The client touches the administration dropper her to the eye 116. The nurse will be using the Barden scale with each admit to the long-term care center. Which of these will be utilized in the Barden scale assessment? select all that apply a. Sensory perception b. Age c. Friction and sheer d. Nutrition e. Mental scale 117. When providing a routine bed bath, what action does the nurse complete first? a. Cleanse the clients’ hands b. Cleanses the clients’ feet c. Cleanses the client’s perineal area d. Cleanses the clients face 118. What are opportunistic infection associated with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)? (Select all that apply) a. Candidiasis b. Hodgkin’s lymphoma c. Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia d. Clostridium difficile e. Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma 119. Which of the following clients should be placed in isolation for airborne precautions? a. A client with an unknown skin infection b. A client that recently traveled and developed a fever with cough c. High school wrestling champion with a rash d. A client with a heart palpitation 120. A nurse is teaching a client who has gout about dietary recommendations. The nurse should teach the client which of the following beverages can trigger an attack?
128. A client sustained an injury to his heel while the unlicensed assistive personnel and the nurse are moving him up in bed. What force causes the injury? a. Shearing or friction b. Pressure or gravity c. Chemical or pressure d. Twisting or bending 129. A nurse is preparing a community presentation of a repetitive motion injury. Which of the following occupations should the nurse identify as an increasing client’s risk of carpal tunnel syndrome? a. Truck driver b. Nursing assistant c. Elementary school teacher d. Assembly line worker 130. What is a sign of inadequate perfusion? a. Bounding pulses b. Pink fingers c. Pallor in toes d. Intact sensation 131. What is the nurse’s priority action for a client with compromised immunity? a. Determine whether it is temporary or permanent b. Take the client’s vital signs every four hours c. Teach the family members to receive the flu shot annually d. Wash hands before entering the client’s room 132. A nurse is caring for an immobile client. What is the priority assessment in this client? a. Assessment for the presence of peripheral edema b. Auscultation of lungs sounds c. Auscultation of bowel sounds d. Assessment of skin turgor 133. Client is diagnosed with narcolepsy. What is the nurse’s priority intervention? a. Encourage the client to stop drinking caffeine after 6 PM b. Informed the client to drink 2 cups of regular coffee c. Encourage the client to participate in normal activity d. Informed the client that driving would be dangerous 134. The nurse has documented the following wound assessment: “shallow, open reddened ulcer with no slough on the interior region of the right heel?” What stage is the wound? a. Stage 1 b. Stage 2 c. Stage 3 d. Stage 4 135. What complication of wound healing is an abnormal passage that connects two body cavities or a cavity and the skin? a. Fistula
b. Hemorrhage c. Infection d. Evisceration
136. The nurse is preparing to administer medications to a client with osteoarthritis. What is the goal of medication therapy? a. Eradicate the disease b. Turn on the immune system c. Reduce pain and inflammation d. Manage weight loss 137. Client had surgery one day ago. What assessment is most likely related to pain? a. Heart rate 60 beats/minute b. Blood pressure of 175/90 mm Hg c. Oxygen saturation of 97% d. Respiration of 10 breaths per minute 138. What is not appropriate client education on the preventing the spread of methicillin-resistant staphylococcus resistance (MRSA)? a. Avoid contact sports until the infection has cleared b. Use an antibacterial soap when showering c. Use a bath sponge to cleanse the skin d. Wash hands with soap and water before and after touching the infected area 139. What should the nurse do first if they are struck by a needle? a. Flush the exposed skin with water b. Report the exposure c. Seek medical attention d. Complete an incident report 140. A nurse is caring for a client who has methicillin-resistant staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) in an abdominal wound. The nurse prepares to enter the room to check the client’s pulse. What personal protective equipment (PPE) should the nurse do? a. Gown b. Sterile gloves c. PAPR mask d. Surgical mask 141. Nurse is teaching a client who has fibromyalgia about strategies that might help reduce her symptoms what should the nurse include in the client education? a. Establish a regular sleep pattern b. Avoid exercise during flareups c. Do high-impact exercise like running d. Increase calcium and caffeine intake 142. What is an example of client’s primary defense to infection? a. Inflammation b. Fever c. Phagocytosis d. Intact skin
