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Neurology and Liver Diseases Exam Questions, Exams of Nursing

Miami Dade College (MDC)Nursing

A series of multiple-choice questions related to neurological conditions, specifically focusing on strokes, traumatic brain injuries, and liver diseases. It covers key aspects such as risk factors, diagnostic tests, medication management, and nursing interventions. The questions are designed to assess understanding of the pathophysiology, clinical manifestations, and treatment strategies for these conditions. It also includes questions about hepatitis and musculoskeletal injuries, providing a comprehensive review of essential concepts in medical-surgical nursing. Useful for nursing students preparing for exams or healthcare professionals seeking to refresh their knowledge.

Typology: Exams

2024/2025

Available from 05/30/2025

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NUR 2790 PN3 EXAM 1|LATEST 2025-2026|QUESTIONS
WITH 100% CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS. GRADED A+
Neuro
1. For the client who is at risk for stroke, the most important guideline the
nurse should teach is to:
A.
monitor weight and activity.
B.
increase drinks with caffeine.
C.
increase amounts of sodium in the diet.
D.
monitor blood pressure.
2. A client is being evaluated for a stroke. The nurse knows that one
of the easiest and most common diagnostic tests used to
differentiate between strokes is:
A.
magnetic resonance imaging (MRI).
B.
positron emission tomography (PET).
C.
electrocardiography (EEG).
D.
computed tomography (CT).
3. While instructing a client on stroke prevention, the nurse mentions
medications that are useful in stroke prevention. The following
medications are effective in preventing a stroke, EXCEPT:
A.
anticholinergics.
B.
antiplatelets.
C.
anticoagulants.
D.
neuroprotective agents.
4. A client is being seen in the emergency department experiencing
symptoms of a stroke. The nurse realizes that the administration of a
medication to break clots, such as tPA, should be administered within
how many minutes of the client presenting to the emergency
department?
A.
120 minutes
B.
90 minutes
C.
30 minutes
D.
60 minutes
5. What is the major cause of traumatic brain injuries? MVC
6. A client is diagnosed with a mild brain injury. Which of the
following is an example of a mild injury?
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Download Neurology and Liver Diseases Exam Questions and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!

NUR 2790 PN3 EXAM 1|LATEST 2025-2026|QUESTIONS

WITH 100% CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS. GRADED A+

Neuro

  1. For the client who is at risk for stroke, the most important guideline the nurse should teach is to: A. monitor weight and activity. B. increase drinks with caffeine. C. increase amounts of sodium in the diet. D. monitor blood pressure.
  2. A client is being evaluated for a stroke. The nurse knows that one of the easiest and most common diagnostic tests used to differentiate between strokes is: A. magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). B. positron emission tomography (PET). C. electrocardiography (EEG). D. computed tomography (CT).
  3. While instructing a client on stroke prevention, the nurse mentions medications that are useful in stroke prevention. The following medications are effective in preventing a stroke, EXCEPT: A. anticholinergics. B. antiplatelets. C. anticoagulants. D. neuroprotective agents.
  4. A client is being seen in the emergency department experiencing symptoms of a stroke. The nurse realizes that the administration of a medication to break clots, such as tPA, should be administered within how many minutes of the client presenting to the emergency department? A. 120 minutes B. 90 minutes C. 30 minutes D. 60 minutes
  5. What is the major cause of traumatic brain injuries? MVC
  6. A client is diagnosed with a mild brain injury. Which of the following is an example of a mild injury?

A. A. Vegetative state B. Coma C. Locked-in syndrome D. Concussion

  1. The nurse is planning care for a client diagnosed with increased intracranial pressure after a head injury. Which of the following interventions can be used to reduce increased intracranial pressure? A. Perform range-of-motion exercises every hour. B. Keep the head of the bed in the flat position. C. Administer antibiotics as prescribed. D. Administer corticosteroids and osmotic diuretics as prescribed.
  2. The nurse, caring for a client recovering from a traumatic brain injury, knows the client and the family are eligible for specific federal programs because of the: A. Associated Brain Act. B. Traumatic Brain Injury Act of 2008. C. Brain Protection Act. D. Health Brain Act.
  3. Which of the following should be avoided when caring for a client diagnosed with increased intracranial pressure? A. Placing the client on bed rest B. Placing the bed in Trendelenburg C. Starting an intravenous access line D. Administering oxygen
  4. A client is being instructed on treatments available for a newly diagnosed brain tumor. The nurse realizes that this client's treatment could include all of the following EXCEPT: A. photo DNA therapy. B. radiation. C. surgery. D. chemotherapy.
  5. A client diagnosed with an embolic stroke is not a candidate for tPA. The nurse realizes that the client might be eligible for which of the following forms of treatment? A. Intravenous fluid therapy
  1. A child care worker complains of flu-like symptoms. On further assessment, hepatitis is suspected. The nurse realizes that this individual is at risk for which type of hepatitis? A. Hepatitis A B. Hepatitis D C. Hepatitis C D. Hepatitis B
  2. An older male is diagnosed with cirrhosis of the liver. The nurse knows that the most likely cause of this problem is: A. drinking excessive alcohol. B. eating bad food. C. traveling to a foreign country. D. being in the military.
  3. A client is scheduled for a liver biopsy. The nurse realizes that the most important sign to assess for is: A. Bleeding. B. Nausea and vomiting. C. infection. D. Pain.
  4. The nurse realizes that the organ which is a major site for metastases, harboring and growing cancerous cells that originated in some other part of the body, is the: A. gallbladder B. spleen. D. stomach.
  5. A school age child is placed on a waiting list for a liver transplant. The C. liver.

nurse knows that the most common reason for children to need this type of transplant is because of: A. cirrhosis due to hepatitis C B. diabetes. C. Crohn's disease. D. biliary atresia.

  1. Because health care workers are at a greater risk of hepatitis B infection, it is recommended that all health care workers: A. drink bottled water only. B. become vaccinated. C. wash their hands often. D. avoid foreign travel. 21.A client who usually smokes a pack of cigarettes a day tells the nurse that he cannot stand the smell of smoke. The nurse realizes that this client is in which phase of hepatitis? A. Recovery B. Icteric C. Preicteric D. Posticteric 22.A female client is surprised to learn that she has been diagnosed with hemochromatosis. Which of the following should the nurse respond to this client? A. "I would ask the doctor if he's sure about the diagnosis." B. "All women have the disorder but not the symptoms." C. "Females often do not experience the effects of the disease until menopause." D. "It doesn't affect people until they are in their 50s."
  2. A client is diagnosed with liver disease. Which of the following is one impact of this disorder on a client's fluid and electrolyte status? A. Hyponatremia B. Hypernatremia C. Hypercalcemia D. Hyperkalemia
  3. The nurse, caring for a client recovering from the placement of a shunt to treat portal hypertension, should assess the client for which of the following complications associated with this surgery?

Hemorrhoids E. Gastritis F. Gallstone formation Musculoskeletal

  1. A client tells the nurse that he has pain, swelling, fatigue, and numbness of his hands. The nurse should assess the client for which of the following occupations? A. Retail store clerk B. Bus driver C. Lifeguard D. Computer keyboard operator 31, A client who plays baseball on the weekends is experiencing an arm injury. The nurse realizes this client needs to be evaluated for: A. lateral epicondylitis. B. a rotator cuff tear. C. dislocation of the shoulder. D. patellar tendinopathy.
  2. A client, diagnosed with an ankle sprain, is prescribed ibuprofen to control pain and inflammation. What instruction should the client receive concerning this medication? A. "Take on an empty stomach to maximize its effect." B. "Take with food to minimize gastrointestinal irritation." C. "Wear sunscreen if outside to prevent a burn." D. “Bleeding is not a problem with this medication."
  3. A client, experiencing a fractured arm, asks the nurse why the splint is being applied. Which of the following should the nurse respond to this client? A. "It immobilizes the muscles and joints."

B. "It prevents the need for surgery." C. "It reduces the need for a cast." D. "It reduces bleeding, swelling and pain."

  1. A client has had a cast applied to immobilize a right ulnar fracture. Which of the following nursing interventions is most important? A. Giving pain medication B. Starting discharge teaching C. Checking capillary refill time D. Calling physical therapy for a sling
  2. A client with a right arm cast is experiencing signs of a serious complication. Which of the following would cause the nurse the most concern? A. Severe pain to the right arm continues after receiving pain medication B. Itching under the cast C. Finger movement D. Capillary refill time less than 3 seconds
  3. A client has been wearing a splint for carpal tunnel syndrome for 7 weeks. The nurse realizes that which of the following would be the next course of treatment for this client? A. Corticosteroid injection B. Casting C. Exercises D. Surgery
  4. The nurse is planning care for a client recovering from a meniscal injury. Which of the following should be included as strategies to avoid future injuries? A. Avoid skiing. B. Wear similar shoes for all activities. C. Avoid hamstring muscle exercises.

A. Paraplegia B. Pain C. Pulselessness D. Pressure E. Paresthesia F. Pink

  1. Disease processes that predispose pts to pathological fractures- A client with osteoporosis suffers a fracture, then falls. This type of fractureis called: Selected Answer: Patholog ical fracture Answers: Pathologica lfracture Greenstick fracture Comminuted fracture Impacted fracture
  2. Pt with #pelvis, dyspnea, and restlessness- what are S/S fat emboli: Sz, upper body petechiae, temp

A client, recovering from a fractured pelvis, begins to have dyspnea and restlessness. The nurse is concerned that the client is experiencing a fat emboli when which of the following are assessed? SATA Upper body petechia Seizures Temp 102 MISCELLANEOUS

  1. The nurse is admitting an older adult with decompensated congestive heart failure. The nursing assessment reveals adventitious lung sounds, dyspnea, and orthopnea. The nurse should question which doctor's order? A. Oxygen via face mask at 8 L/min B. Intravenous (IV) 500 mL of 0.9% NaCl at 125 mL/hr C. Furosemide (Lasix) 20 mg PO now D. KCl 20 mEq PO two times per day
  2. At change-of-shift report, the nurse learns the medical diagnoses for four patients. Which patient should the nurse assess most carefully for development of hyponatremia? A. Tumor that secretes excessive antidiuretic hormone (ADH) B. Tumor that destroyed the posterior pituitary gland C. Tumor that secretes excessive aldosterone D. Vomiting all day and not replacing any fluid
  3. The patient is receiving tube feedings due to a jaw surgery. What change in assessment findings should prompt the nurse to request an order for serum sodium concentration?

B. pH low, PaCO2 high, HCO3- normal C. pH low, PaCO2 low, HCO3- low D. pH high, PaCO2 high, HCO3- high

  1. The nurse has telephone messages from four patients who requested information and assistance. Which one should the nurse refer to a social worker or community agency first? A. "Is there a place that I can dispose of my unused morphine pills?" B. "I ran out of money and am cutting my insulin dose in half." C. "I want to lose at least 20 pounds without getting sick this time." D. "I think I have asthma because I cough when dogs are near."
  2. The nurse would incorporate which of the following into the plan of care as a primary prevention strategy for reduction of the risk for cancer? A. Colonoscopy at age 50 and every 10 years as follow-up B. Yearly prostate specific antigen (PSA) and digital rectal exam for men aged 50 and over C. Yearly mammography for women aged 40 years and older D. Using skin protection during sun exposure while at the beach
  3. While collecting a health history on a patient admitted for colon cancer, which of the following questions would be a priority to ask this patient? A. "Have you noticed any blood in your stool?" B. "Have you been experiencing nausea?"

C. "Do you have back pain?" D. "Have you noticed any swelling in your abdomen?"

  1. While planning care for a patient experiencing fatigue due to chemotherapy, which of the following is the most appropriate nursing intervention? A. Limiting visitors, thus promoting the maximal amount of hours for sleep B. Completing all nursing care in the morning so the patient can rest the remainder of the day C. Completing all nursing care in the evening when the patient is more rested D. Prioritization and administration of nursing care throughout the day
  2. The nurse is caring for a patient who received a bone marrow transplant 10 days ago. The nurse would monitor for which of the following clinical manifestations that could indicate a potentially life- threatening situation? A. Depression B. Mild temperature elevation (or low grade fever) C. Mucositis D. Confusion
  3. While the nurse is obtaining the health history of a 75 - year-old female patient, which of the following has the greatest implication for the development of cancer? A. Cigarette smoking as a teenager

A. tissue ischemia. B. intestinal blockage. C. cardiac dysrhythmia. D. brain malformations.

  1. A nurse is explaining to a student nurse about perfusion. The nurse knows the student understands the concept of perfusion when the student states, "Perfusion A. varies as a person ages, so I would expect changes in the body." B. is a normal function of the body, and I don't have to be concerned about it." C. is monitored by vital signs and capillary refill." D. is monitored by the physician, and I just follow orders."
  2. The nurse is assigned a group of patients. Which patient would the nurse identify as being at increased risk for impaired gas exchange? A. with a heart rate of 100 beats/min and blood pressure of 100/ B. with a blood glucose of 350 mg/dL C. with a hemoglobin of 8.5 g/dL D. who has been on anticoagulants for 10 days
  3. A 3 - month-old infant is at increased risk for developing anemia. The nurse would identify which principle contributing to this risk? A. The infant is unable to maintain an adequate iron intake. B. There is an increase in intake of breast milk or formula.

C. The infant is becoming more active. D. A depletion of fetal hemoglobin occurs.

  1. Which statement by a patient indicates additional teaching is required about the medication warfarin? A. "I will continue my diabetic diet and restrict sugar." B. "I will restrict the intake of foods high in vitamin C." C. "I will increase the intake of green, leafy vegetables for a more healthful diet." D. "I will increase the amount of protein in my diet to protect my kidneys."
  2. The nurse would expect to administer an anticoagulant to a patient following which surgery? A. Appendectomy B. Hip replacement C. Abdominal aorta aneurism (AAA) repair D. Hysterectomy
  3. A patient on a medical surgical unit has a platelet count of 90,000 per mm3. The nurse knows to include which of the following precautions in discharge instructions? A. Have aggressive dental care immediately to prevent dental caries. B. Use a soft bristle toothbrush. C. Do not eat fresh fruit. D. Use a standard safety razor for shaving.
  1. Which statement best exemplifies a client's understanding of rehabilitation after a full-thickness burn injury? A. "I will eventually be able to perform all my former activities." B. "My goal is to achieve the highest level of functioning that I can." C. "I am fully recovered when all the wounds are closed." D. "Full recovery from a major burn injury never occurs."
  2. A client with a new burn injury asks the nurse why he is receiving intravenous cimetidine (Tagamet). What is the nurse's best response? A. "This will help prevent stomach ulcers, which are common after burns." B. "Tagamet can help prevent hypovolemic shock, which can be fatal." C. "This drug will help prevent kidney damage caused by dehydration." D. "Tagamet will stimulate intestinal movement so you can eat more."
  3. A client who is burned is drooling and is having difficulty swallowing. Which action does the nurse take first? A. Measure abdominal girth and auscultate bowel sounds. B. Assess level of consciousness and pupillary reactions.

C. Auscultate breath sounds over the trachea and mainstem bronchi. D. Ascertain the time food or liquid was last consumed.

  1. The nurse assesses a client who suffered chest trauma and finds that the left chest sucks in during inhalation and out during exhalation. The client's oxygen saturation has dropped from 94% to 86%. What is the priority action by the nurse? A. Encourage the client to take deep, controlled breaths. B. Stabilize the chest wall with rib binders. C. Document findings and continue to monitor the client. D. Notify the health care provider and prepare for intubation.
  2. What is the best way for the nurse to communicate with a client who is intubated and is receiving mechanical ventilation? A. Ask the client to blink for "yes" and "no." B. Teach the client some simple sign language. C. Have the client mouth words slowly. D. Ask the client to point to words on a board.
  3. A client is experiencing sinus bradycardia with hypotension and dizziness. What medication does the nurse administer? A. Metoprolol (Lopressor) B. Lidocaine (Xylocaine) C. Atropine (Atropine) D. Digoxin (Lanoxin)