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NUR 3145 – ATI Pharmacology Practice Exam
Questions Answer Key with Rationales
Included
- A nurse is reviewing a medication order for digoxin. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider before administration? A. Apical pulse 78 bpm B. Serum potassium 4.2 mEq/L C. Apical pulse 54 bpm D. Blood pressure 138/82 mmHg
Digoxin can cause bradycardia. An apical pulse below 60 bpm
indicates the need to hold the medication and notify the provider.
- A client taking lithium reports nausea, muscle weakness, and tremors. What should the nurse do first? A. Notify the provider immediately B. Hold the next dose C. Reassure the client D. Increase fluid intake
These are signs of lithium toxicity, which can become life-
threatening. The provider must be notified for further evaluation.
- A nurse is teaching a client prescribed warfarin. Which food should the nurse advise the client to limit? A. Bananas B. Spinach C. Cheese D. Tomatoes
Spinach is high in vitamin K, which can reduce the effectiveness of
warfarin.
- A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving IV furosemide. Which lab value requires immediate attention? A. Sodium 138 mEq/L B. Glucose 98 mg/dL C. Potassium 4.0 mEq/L D. Potassium 2.9 mEq/L
Hypokalemia is a potential side effect of furosemide and can cause
arrhythmias. A level of 2.9 is critically low.
- Which medication should a nurse question if prescribed with lisinopril? A. Spironolactone B. Furosemide C. Hydrochlorothiazide D. Metoprolol
Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic. Combined with
ACE inhibitors like lisinopril, it increases the risk of hyperkalemia.
C. Hematocrit D. Platelet count
aPTT is used to monitor the therapeutic effect of heparin.
10.A client with asthma is prescribed albuterol. What is a common side effect? A. Drowsiness B. Tachycardia C. Hypoglycemia D. Constipation
Albuterol is a beta-2 agonist that can cause tachycardia and
tremors.
11.A client taking gentamicin IV develops tinnitus. What is the nurse’s priority action? A. Stop the infusion and notify the provider B. Decrease the rate of infusion C. Administer diphenhydramine D. Reassure the client
Tinnitus is a sign of ototoxicity, a serious side effect of
aminoglycosides like gentamicin.
12.What is a serious adverse effect of clozapine? A. Hypertension B. Weight loss C. Agranulocytosis
D. Insomnia
Clozapine can severely suppress bone marrow function, requiring
regular WBC monitoring.
13.Which instruction is appropriate for a client prescribed tetracycline? A. Avoid milk and antacids B. Take with food C. Take at bedtime D. Take with iron supplements
Dairy, antacids, and iron interfere with tetracycline absorption.
14.Which medication should be withheld for a client with a heart rate of 48 bpm? A. Captopril B. Metoprolol C. Furosemide D. Lisinopril
Metoprolol is a beta-blocker that lowers heart rate. It should be
held if the HR is below 50–60 bpm.
15.Which lab result should the nurse review before administering atorvastatin? A. Hemoglobin B. Liver function tests C. Glucose D. Creatinine
B. Osteoporosis C. Weight loss D. Bradycardia
Long-term corticosteroid use can lead to bone density loss.
20.What instruction is essential for a client prescribed alendronate? A. Take with food B. Remain upright for 30 minutes C. Take at bedtime D. Take with calcium supplements
Alendronate can cause esophagitis. Staying upright helps prevent
it.
21.Which is a side effect of levodopa/carbidopa? A. Dyskinesia B. Drowsiness C. Tachycardia D. Constipation
Dyskinesias such as involuntary movements are common with
long-term use.
22.Which adverse effect is associated with hydrochlorothiazide? A. Hyperkalemia B. Weight gain C. Hypokalemia
D. Drowsiness
Thiazide diuretics can cause potassium loss.
23.A nurse is reviewing a prescription for enoxaparin. What is the preferred site of injection? A. Deltoid B. Abdomen C. Vastus lateralis D. Gluteus maximus
Enoxaparin is given subcutaneously in the abdomen for best
absorption.
24.Which medication is used to treat opioid withdrawal? A. Methadone B. Flumazenil C. Lorazepam D. Acetylcysteine
Methadone helps reduce withdrawal symptoms and cravings.
25.Which is an adverse effect of amiodarone? A. Weight gain B. Hypertension C. Pulmonary toxicity D. Hypokalemia
Amiodarone can cause lung damage, including fibrosis.
A. Take with dairy B. Avoid alcohol C. Use sunscreen D. Discontinue if urine darkens
Metronidazole combined with alcohol can cause a disulfiram-like
reaction (flushing, nausea, vomiting).
30.A client taking captopril reports a persistent dry cough. What should the nurse do? A. Encourage fluids B. Notify the provider C. Suggest hard candy D. Document and continue
ACE inhibitors commonly cause dry cough. The provider may
switch to an ARB.
31.A nurse is caring for a client on methylprednisolone. What finding requires immediate intervention? A. Blood glucose 245 mg/dL B. Mild weight gain C. Mood changes D. Increased appetite
Corticosteroids like methylprednisolone can cause hyperglycemia,
which requires monitoring and intervention.
32.What is the mechanism of action of omeprazole? A. Coats the stomach lining
B. Reduces gastric acid secretion C. Neutralizes acid D. Enhances GI motility
Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor that reduces acid
production in the stomach.
33.Which finding indicates effectiveness of epoetin alfa therapy? A. Decreased platelets B. Increased hemoglobin C. Increased WBCs D. Decreased potassium
Epoetin alfa stimulates red blood cell production, increasing
hemoglobin.
34.Which medication is contraindicated during pregnancy? A. Acetaminophen B. Isotretinoin C. Docusate sodium D. Folic acid
Isotretinoin is teratogenic and highly contraindicated in
pregnancy.
35.A client is receiving vancomycin IV. Which assessment finding requires intervention? A. Red flushing on neck and chest B. Temperature 98.7°F C. Mild nausea
C. Manage withdrawal D. Increase sedation
Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used in emergencies to reverse
respiratory depression.
39.Which antibiotic can cause tooth discoloration in children? A. Tetracycline B. Amoxicillin C. Erythromycin D. Cephalexin
Tetracyclines bind to calcium in teeth and bones, causing
permanent discoloration.
40.What is an expected outcome of levetiracetam therapy? A. Decreased pain B. Improved mood C. Decreased seizure activity D. Lower blood pressure
Levetiracetam is used to prevent or reduce seizure frequency.
41.Which instruction should be given to a client prescribed sildenafil? A. Take with nitrates B. Take before bedtime C. Avoid concurrent nitrate use D. Take on an empty stomach
Combining sildenafil with nitrates can cause life-threatening
hypotension.
42.A nurse is teaching a client about timolol eye drops. What is a potential systemic side effect? A. Bradycardia B. Hyperglycemia C. Dry mouth D. Urinary retention
Timolol is a beta-blocker and can be absorbed systemically,
causing bradycardia.
43.A client taking valproic acid should have which lab value monitored regularly? A. Liver enzymes B. Sodium C. Potassium D. Calcium
Valproic acid is hepatotoxic. Regular liver function tests are
required.
44.A client is starting allopurinol. Which instruction is essential? A. Limit fluid intake B. Report rash immediately C. Take with calcium D. Avoid potassium-rich foods
48.A nurse is preparing to administer IV potassium chloride. What is the priority action? A. Infuse using an IV pump B. Administer IV push C. Inject into a muscle D. Mix with dextrose
IV potassium must be infused slowly via a pump to avoid cardiac
complications.
49.What should the nurse monitor in a client taking furosemide? A. Heart rate B. Potassium levels C. INR D. Blood glucose
Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to hypokalemia.
50.Which instruction is appropriate for a client taking a MAOI like phenelzine? A. Avoid aged cheese and cured meats B. Take with grapefruit juice C. Increase potassium-rich foods D. Take on an empty stomach
MAOIs interact with tyramine-containing foods, which can cause
hypertensive crisis.
