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NUR 3225 Adult Health Nursing HESI Adult
Health Exam Questions and Correct Answers
(Verified Answers) with Rationales 2025
1. A client with chronic kidney disease has elevated serum potassium. What is the priority nursing action? A. Administer sodium polystyrene sulfonate B. Place the client on cardiac monitor C. Encourage potassium-rich foods D. Prepare the client for dialysis
Placing the client on a cardiac monitor is essential to detect life-
threatening arrhythmias caused by hyperkalemia.
2. A client with COPD reports shortness of breath. What should the nurse do first? A. Administer prescribed corticosteroids B. Encourage fluid intake C. Elevate the head of the bed D. Notify the healthcare provider
Elevating the head of the bed promotes lung expansion and improves
oxygenation.
3. A patient with pneumonia is receiving IV antibiotics. What indicates treatment effectiveness? A. Decreased white blood cell count B. Increased respiratory rate C. Decreased oxygen saturation D. Continued fever
A decrease in WBC count suggests the infection is resolving.
4. Which assessment finding is expected in a client with left-sided heart failure? A. Jugular vein distension B. Pulmonary crackles C. Dependent edema D. Ascites
Pulmonary congestion due to fluid backup in the lungs causes crackles
in left-sided heart failure.
5. The nurse teaches a client with hypertension about DASH diet. What food choice indicates understanding? A. Bacon and eggs B. Grilled chicken with steamed broccoli C. Ham and cheese sandwich D. Fried shrimp with fries
DASH diet emphasizes low sodium, lean protein, fruits, and vegetables.
6. Which lab value requires immediate action in a client on warfarin? A. INR 2.
10. What is the priority intervention for a client with a high-pressure ventilator alarm? A. Increase sedation B. Assess for secretions and suction the airway C. Notify respiratory therapy D. Check ventilator settings
High pressure may indicate airway obstruction, often from secretions.
11. Which is a priority nursing diagnosis for a patient with acute pancreatitis? A. Risk for imbalanced nutrition B. Acute pain C. Risk for infection D. Deficient fluid volume
Pain is often severe and requires immediate attention.
12. A client is newly diagnosed with Type 2 Diabetes. What teaching is most important? A. Use of insulin pump B. Blood glucose self-monitoring C. Exercise planning D. Carb counting
Monitoring allows clients to manage their condition daily.
13. A client with cirrhosis has ascites. Which lab supports this diagnosis? A. Elevated BUN B. Low albumin
C. Elevated potassium D. High calcium
Low albumin contributes to fluid shift into the peritoneal cavity.
14. A client with a chest tube suddenly develops severe SOB. What should the nurse do first? A. Assess for tracheal deviation B. Increase oxygen C. Notify the provider D. Document findings
Tracheal deviation may indicate a tension pneumothorax.
15. A client receiving morphine IV develops shallow respirations. What is the priority? A. Call rapid response B. Apply oxygen C. Administer naloxone D. Notify provider
Naloxone reverses opioid-induced respiratory depression.
16. What is a priority concern in a client with a GI bleed? A. Constipation B. Decreased urine output C. Abdominal distention D. Hypotension
Hypotension indicates active blood loss and decreased perfusion.
These may indicate cardiovascular compromise due to severe
thyrotoxicosis.
21. The nurse is caring for a client with a Stage 4 pressure injury. What dressing is appropriate? A. Transparent film B. Gauze only C. Hydrocolloid with foam D. Dry sterile dressing
Hydrocolloid and foam maintain moisture and support healing of deep
wounds.
22. What is a classic sign of right-sided heart failure? A. Dyspnea B. Crackles C. Peripheral edema D. S3 heart sound
Right-sided heart failure causes venous congestion and dependent
edema.
23. Which nursing intervention prevents VAP in ventilated patients? A. Prone positioning B. Suctioning every 4 hours C. Elevate HOB 30–45 degrees
D. Limit oral care
Elevating HOB prevents aspiration and VAP.
24. The nurse notes a bruit over the dialysis fistula. What should the nurse do? A. Report to provider B. Document as expected C. Apply warm compress D. Administer antihypertensives
A bruit indicates blood flow and fistula patency.
25. What lab result supports the diagnosis of myocardial infarction? A. CK B. Troponin I C. ALT D. BNP
Troponin is the most specific marker for myocardial damage.
26. A client with atrial fibrillation has a new prescription for warfarin. What is the most important teaching point? A. Avoid all green vegetables B. Monitor INR regularly C. Expect bleeding gums D. Take aspirin with warfarin
Monitoring INR ensures therapeutic anticoagulation without bleeding
risk.
B. Apply heat C. Measure leg circumference and notify provider D. Massage the calf
These are signs of a DVT and require prompt evaluation.
31. Which assessment finding in a client with peritonitis requires immediate attention? A. Guarding B. Hypoactive bowel sounds C. Rigid, board-like abdomen D. Fever
A rigid abdomen is a sign of severe peritoneal inflammation or
perforation.
32. A client with cirrhosis has confusion and a musty breath odor. Which lab is most relevant? A. Bilirubin B. AST C. Ammonia D. Albumin
High ammonia levels cause hepatic encephalopathy.
33. A client is prescribed digoxin. Which finding should be reported before administration? A. Heart rate 74 bpm B. Potassium 3.0 mEq/L
C. BP 118/
D. Urine output 500 mL
Low potassium increases digoxin toxicity risk.
34. A nurse administers IV furosemide. Which outcome indicates the drug is effective? A. Increased BP B. Weight gain C. Decreased crackles in lungs D. Elevated potassium
Furosemide removes excess fluid, improving pulmonary symptoms.
35. Which action reduces the risk of skin breakdown in an immobile client? A. Apply powder under the sacrum B. Turn every 2 hours C. Massage reddened areas D. Elevate head of bed 90°
Frequent repositioning relieves pressure on bony prominences.
36. A nurse assesses a client with asthma experiencing wheezing and restlessness. What is the priority? A. Encourage coughing B. Administer short-acting bronchodilator C. Call rapid response D. Increase fluid intake
Bronchodilators relieve bronchospasm and improve oxygenation.
D. May cause tachycardia
High-flow oxygen in COPD can suppress respiratory drive.
41. A nurse reviews an EKG and notes a widened QRS and tall T waves. Which electrolyte is most concerning? A. Sodium B. Potassium C. Calcium D. Chloride
These are ECG changes consistent with hyperkalemia.
42. Which finding is a classic sign of tuberculosis? A. Weight gain B. Night sweats C. Bradycardia D. Constipation
Night sweats are a common symptom of TB.
43. The nurse is caring for a client with diabetic ketoacidosis. Which order is priority? A. Administer sodium bicarbonate B. Start IV fluids and insulin C. Insert NG tube D. Prepare for dialysis
Fluids and insulin correct dehydration and hyperglycemia.
44. What is the most reliable indicator of fluid volume status? A. Skin turgor B. Daily weight C. Mucous membranes D. BP and HR
Daily weight is the most sensitive measure of fluid balance.
45. Which assessment finding indicates a hemothorax? A. Diminished breath sounds on one side B. Loud wheezing C. Crackles bilaterally D. Hyperresonance on percussion
Blood in the pleural space reduces breath sounds unilaterally.
46. Which condition is associated with a positive Chvostek’s sign? A. Hyperkalemia B. Hypocalcemia C. Hypernatremia D. Hypoglycemia
Chvostek’s sign is a facial twitch indicating low calcium.
47. A client is admitted for a thyroidectomy. What should the nurse have at the bedside? A. Defibrillator B. Foley catheter C. Tracheostomy set
