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NUR 3225 Adult Health Nursing I – Practice Exam Questions and Correct Answers (Verified An, Exams of Nursing

NUR 3225 Adult Health Nursing I – Practice Exam Questions and Correct Answers (Verified Answers) with Rationales 2025

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2024/2025

Available from 06/23/2025

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NUR 3225 Adult Health Nursing I Practice Exam
Questions and Correct Answers (Verified Answers)
with Rationales 2025
1. A nurse is assessing a client with right-sided heart failure. Which of the
following findings is most likely?
Peripheral edema
Crackles in the lungs
Orthopnea
Hemoptysis
Right-sided heart failure leads to systemic congestion, causing peripheral
edema.
2. Which laboratory value is most important to monitor in a client receiving
furosemide?
Hemoglobin
Glucose
Potassium
Creatinine
Furosemide is a loop diuretic that causes potassium loss, risking
hypokalemia.
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NUR 3225 Adult Health Nursing I – Practice Exam

Questions and Correct Answers (Verified Answers)

with Rationales 2025

  1. A nurse is assessing a client with right-sided heart failure. Which of the following findings is most likely?
  • Peripheral edema
  • Crackles in the lungs
  • Orthopnea
  • Hemoptysis Right-sided heart failure leads to systemic congestion, causing peripheral edema.
  1. Which laboratory value is most important to monitor in a client receiving furosemide?
  • Hemoglobin
  • Glucose
  • Potassium
  • Creatinine Furosemide is a loop diuretic that causes potassium loss, risking hypokalemia.
  1. A client with COPD is prescribed oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula. Why is this rate important?
  • To prevent carbon dioxide retention
  • To improve gas exchange
  • To increase oxygen saturation quickly
  • To prevent oxygen-induced hypoventilation Clients with COPD may rely on hypoxic drive; high oxygen can suppress respiration.
  1. The nurse teaches a client with hypertension to reduce sodium intake. Which food should the client avoid?
  • Fresh apples
  • Boiled chicken
  • Canned soup
  • Whole grain rice Canned foods often contain high sodium content.
  1. A client with a new colostomy is concerned about body image. What is the nurse’s best response?
  • "You’ll get used to it soon."
  • "Don’t worry, it’s a common surgery."
  • "Let’s talk about how this is affecting you."

• ALT

Troponin I is specific to cardiac muscle and remains elevated for days post-MI.

  1. Which position is best for a client with dyspnea?
  • Supine
  • Side-lying
  • High Fowler's
  • Trendelenburg High Fowler’s maximizes lung expansion and facilitates breathing. 10.The nurse notes a stage 2 pressure injury. What is the best description?
  • Full-thickness tissue loss
  • Intact skin with redness
  • Partial-thickness skin loss with blister
  • Open wound exposing bone Stage 2 involves partial-thickness loss, often with a blister or shallow crater. 11.What is the best intervention for preventing VAP (ventilator-associated pneumonia)?
  • Use of incentive spirometry
  • Oral care with chlorhexidine
  • Administering mucolytics
  • Repositioning every hour Oral care reduces bacterial colonization and lowers VAP risk. 12.What finding indicates effective pain management postoperatively?
  • BP 150/95 mmHg
  • Facial grimacing
  • Patient states pain is 2/
  • Respiratory rate of 28/min Pain is subjective; verbal rating of low pain suggests management is effective. 13.The nurse prepares to give enoxaparin. What is an appropriate nursing action?
  • Massage the site after injection
  • Aspirate before injecting
  • Administer in the abdomen
  • Use the Z-track method Enoxaparin is given subcutaneously in the abdomen, avoiding aspiration/massage. 14.Which electrolyte imbalance causes muscle weakness and irregular heart rhythm?
  • Hypernatremia
  • Hypermagnesemia
  • Hypokalemia

18.The nurse is teaching about stroke symptoms. Which sign should be reported immediately?

  • Mild dizziness
  • Slurred speech
  • Blurred vision after reading
  • Fatigue Slurred speech can indicate a stroke and is an emergency. 19.A client has hyperthyroidism. What symptom is expected?
  • Weight gain
  • Cold intolerance
  • Tachycardia
  • Dry skin Hyperthyroidism increases metabolism, often causing tachycardia. 20.What is the priority assessment in a client with Guillain-Barré syndrome?
  • Muscle strength
  • Respiratory effort
  • Deep tendon reflexes
  • Urine output Guillain-Barré can impair respiratory muscles leading to failure. 21.A client receiving heparin reports abdominal pain and has a decreased platelet count. What condition should the nurse suspect?

• DVT

  • Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia
  • GI bleed
  • Acute pancreatitis HIT is a complication of heparin causing low platelets and thrombus risk. 22.A client post-hip replacement must avoid which movement?
  • Flexing the knee
  • Crossing the legs
  • Moving foot up and down
  • Lying on the unaffected side Crossing the legs increases the risk of hip dislocation. 23.Which lab value is elevated in dehydration?
  • Sodium 135 mEq/L
  • Hematocrit 38%
  • BUN 30 mg/dL
  • Glucose 90 mg/dL BUN increases with dehydration due to concentrated blood urea nitrogen. 24.What is the best indicator of fluid volume status?
  • Weight loss
  • Daily weight
  • Urine output
  • Monitoring blood pressure hourly Mismatched transfusions can be fatal; verify ID and compatibility first. 28.Which sign is associated with hypocalcemia?
  • Positive Chvostek's sign
  • Bradycardia
  • Muscle flaccidity
  • Decreased DTRs A positive Chvostek’s sign (facial twitch) is a classic sign of low calcium. 29.A client with a burn injury is at greatest risk for which complication during the first 24 hours?
  • Infection
  • Hypovolemic shock
  • Contractures
  • Renal failure Fluid loss from burns can cause life-threatening hypovolemia in early stages. 30.The nurse reviews ABG results: pH 7.31, PaCO₂ 50, HCO₃ 24. What condition is present?
  • Metabolic acidosis
  • Respiratory acidosis
  • Metabolic alkalosis
  • Respiratory alkalosis Low pH and high CO₂ indicate respiratory acidosis. 31.Which medication should be held in a client with a potassium level of 6. mEq/L?
  • Spironolactone
  • Furosemide
  • Metoprolol
  • Calcium carbonate Spironolactone is potassium-sparing and can worsen hyperkalemia. 32.A client with peptic ulcer disease is prescribed omeprazole. What is its purpose?
  • Neutralize stomach acid
  • Coat the stomach lining
  • Reduce gastric acid secretion
  • Promote gastric emptying Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor that reduces acid production. 33.The nurse is caring for a client with a new ileostomy. What is an expected finding?
  • Liquid stool output
  • Soft formed stool
  • Absence of stool
  • Bradycardia
  • Cough and hyperkalemia
  • Tachycardia
  • Hypernatremia ACE inhibitors may cause a dry cough and increase potassium levels. 38.What intervention helps prevent complications in a client with dysphagia?
  • Offering large meals
  • Positioning upright during meals
  • Restricting fluids
  • Using a straw for liquids Sitting upright reduces aspiration risk during swallowing. 39.A client is post-op with a PCA pump. Which statement requires follow-up?
  • “I press the button when I feel pain.”
  • “My family can push the button when I’m asleep.”
  • “It helps me stay ahead of the pain.”
  • “It’s set to deliver a fixed dose.” Only the client should activate the PCA pump to prevent overdose. 40.Which finding indicates a complication of immobility?
  • Skin is intact
  • Voiding every 4 hours
  • Decreased breath sounds at bases
  • Active bowel sounds Reduced movement can lead to atelectasis, shown by decreased breath sounds. 41.What is the priority action after noticing a client’s wound evisceration?
  • Apply warm compress
  • Irrigate with sterile saline
  • Cover with sterile saline dressing and call provider
  • Reinsert the organs Evisceration is an emergency. Keep the wound moist and notify the provider. 42.The nurse teaches a client with GERD to avoid:
  • Lean protein
  • Oatmeal
  • Caffeinated beverages
  • Applesauce Caffeine relaxes the LES, worsening reflux symptoms. 43.A client with Parkinson’s disease is at high risk for:
  • Infection
  • Seizures
  • Falls
  • Hyperthermia Shuffling gait and postural instability increase fall risk.
  • Hemoglobin 12 g/dL
  • Platelets 200,000/mm³ Elevated WBC count suggests infection. 48.A nurse is reinforcing education about insulin injection. Which site is best?
  • Upper arm
  • Abdomen
  • Thigh
  • Buttock The abdomen provides the most consistent absorption. 49.A client with hypothyroidism will most likely report:
  • Nervousness
  • Diarrhea
  • Cold intolerance
  • Weight loss Hypothyroidism slows metabolism, causing cold sensitivity. 50.Which client behavior requires further teaching about crutch use?
  • Weight is placed on hands
  • Leaning on axilla when standing
  • Looking forward when walking
  • Crutches are 6 inches from feet Leaning on axilla can cause nerve damage; weight should rest on hands.