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NUR 426 Exam 2 Practice Questions &
Answers
What is the most common form of Spina Bifida? A. Cerebral Palsy B. Meningocele C. Myelomeningocele D. Occulta (Ans- D What is the most severe form of spina bifida? A. Myelomeningocele B. Meningocele C. Occulta D. Cerebral Palsy (Ans- A Neonates with myelomeningocele before surgery should be placed in what position? A. Supine B. Prone C. Side-lying D. Trendelenburg (Ans- B The most common classification of cerebral palsy where muscles are tight or stiff? A. Dyskinetic B. Chorea C. Spastic D. Ataxic (Ans- C
Cerebral Palsy is not treatable A. True B. False (Ans- B The best medication for individuals with severe quadriplegic spasticity? A. Oral Baclofen B. Intramuscular botulism toxin C. Intrathecal Baclofen D. Diazepam (Ans- C Kernicterus would be considered a [blank] risk factor for cerebral palsy A. Maternal B. Prenatal C. Perinatal D. Postnatal (Ans- D What type of bacteria has a two layered cell wall that is easy to penetrate? A. Mycobacterium B. Gram negative C. Aerobic D. Gram positive (Ans- D What type of bacteria has a waxy cell wall that makes it tougher to kill? A. Gram Positive B. Mycobacterium C. Gram Negative D. Anerobic (Ans- B
C. Ancef D. Rocephin (Ans- A Which drug is given to treat malaria or use as a prophylactic measure against it? A. amphotericin b B. rifampin C. chloroquine D. isoniazid (Ans- C What is considered a polyene antibiotic and is given for severe systemic fungal infections? A. rifampin B. ketoconazole C. acyclovir D. amphotericin b (Ans- D During the first 12 hours after a kidney transplant, fluids are replaced on a 1:1 ration (T/F) (Ans- T Your patient is 15 hours post op from a kidney transplant. When emptying their foley, you note a output of 600 mL of urine. How many mL of fluid should you replace in your patient? A. 600 mL B. 100 mL per hour; output has no significance on fluid replacement C. 300 mL D. 1200 mL (Ans- C
Once a patient receives their new organ, immune suppression therapy is no longer needed as the body will acclimate to the new organ (T/F) (Ans- F Individuals after transplant need a dedicated caregiver to ensure proper healing and reduce the risk of rejecting the organ (T/F) (Ans- T Your patient is 6 hours post op from a kidney transplant. When emptying out their foley you notice that they have 800 mL of output. How much fluids would you give the patient for replacement? A. 400 mL B. 1200 mL C. 200 mL/ hr, output does not need to be assessed for replacement D. 800 mL (Ans- D What are the purposes of dialysis? (SATA)
- dialysis can be used to correct drug overdoses
- dialysis corrects fluid and electrolyte imbalance
- dialysis removes waste products
- dialysis cures kidney disease (Ans- 1, 2, 3 Which of the following is true about Continous Renal Replacement (CRRT)? (SATA)
- it is indicated for hemodynamically unstable patients
- hypotension is a common side effect
- a trained ICU nurse can run it
- anticoagulation is needed to prevent clotting (Ans- 1, 3, 4
C. If the patient has life threatening manifestations of uremia D. If the patient has a large amount of uremia toxins and hypervolemia (Ans- C Before beginning hemodialysis, the nurse weighs the patient and then compares this weight to the patients last postdialysis weight. What is the purpose of this assessment? A. To ensure the patient is drinking enough water B. To ensure that the patient is eating a proper diet C. There is no particular reason for this assessment D. To determine the amount of fluid to remove from the patient (Ans- D Which of the following is true regarding arteriovenous fistulas (AVF)? A. It is created with the arm as an anastomosis of an artery and a vein B. The arteriovenous fistulas (AVF) may be used the same day as it is placed C. It is made by attaching a synthetic material to form a bridge between the artery and the vein D. If a bruit is heard at the arteriovenous fistula (AVF) site, it is no longer functional. (Ans- A A patient has end-stage kidney disease and is receiving hemodialysis. During dialysis the patient complains of nausea and a headache and appears confused. On examination, the nurse discovers that the patient's BP is very low. What is the priority action by the nurse? A. Transfuse 1 unit PRBC B. Avoid excess coagulation C. Infuse 0.9% saline solution D. Infuse hypertonic glucose solution (Ans- C
The dialysis nurse is administering hemodialysis to a patient with chronic kidney failure. For what common complication should the nurse carefully monitor in this patient? A. Pneumonia B. Hypotension C. Hernia D. Lower back pain (Ans- B Several different whole and partial organs can be transplanted. The least common single organ transplant is? A. Heart B. Kidney C. Lung D. Intestines (Ans- D Organ transplant is a treatment option for any client experiencing end- organ failure. However, only a small amount of these patients ever receive a new organ. The nurse knows that this is due to which limiting factor? A. Donor Organs B. High mortality Rate C. Lack of caregiver support D. HLA incompatibility (Ans- A
- Magnesium
- BUN
- Creatinine (Ans- 1, 4, 5, 6 What type of cerebral palsy is the most common? A. Spastic B. Ataxic C. Dyskinetic D. Kinetic (Ans- A Cerebral Palsy affects the development of movement/ posture (T/F) (Ans- T Cerebral Paley can only happen during birth (T/F) (Ans- F - > can happen before, during, or right after birth Brain injury changes over the lifespan of an individual who has cerebral palsy (T/F) (Ans- F - > it doesn't change Symptoms of cerebral palsy may better, worsen, or stay the same with time (T/F) (Ans- T A young child has just been diagnosed with the spastic type of cerebral palsy. What clinical manifestations should the nurse expect to see? (SATA)
- Great motor control
- Increased DTR
- Hyperextension of joints
- Tense & contracted muscles
- Flexion
- Hypertonia (Ans- 2, 4, 5, 6 A young child is at a wellness visit. The child had a traumatic birth and is suspected to have a form cerebral palsy from previous wellness visits. The
nurse assesses the child to have a loss of voluntary control of muscles. The child has an abnormal tone, posture, and coordination. Which type of cerebral palsy does the nurse suspect this child to have? A. Kinetic B. Dyskinetic C. Ataxic D. Spastic (Ans- B Dystonic cerebral palsy is characterized by slow twisting movements (T/F) (Ans- T Athetoid cerebral palsy is characterized by abrupt, jerky, wormlike movements of limbs + facial muscles (T/F) (Ans- T What are the different types of dyskinetic cerebral palsy? (SATA) A. Dystonic B. Ataxic C. Athetoid D. Spastic (Ans- A, C What are some common issues related to dyskinetic cerebral palsy? (SATA)
- Wide based gait
- Hearing loss
- Muscles look squirmy
- Dysarthria
- Non spastic balance
- Swallowing difficulty
- Dry mouth
- Drooling (Ans- 2, 3, 4, 6, 8
A. Isoniazid B. Metronidazole C. Rifampin D. Chloroquine (Ans- A What medical term is used to describe numbness, tingling, and pain in the hands and feet? A. atelectasis B. tinnitus C. bruxism D. peripheral neuropathy (Ans- D What is a concern with isoniazid therapy, especially for older clients with alcoholism? A. nephrotoxic B. hepatotoxicity C. jaundice D. esophageal varices (Ans- B Topical acyclovir can cause [blank] and [blank] at the application site? (SATA)
- petechiae
- itching
- skin breakdown
- burning
- hives (Ans- 2, 4 Which antifungal can cause an acute reaction 1-2 hours after infusion and bone marrow suppression over time? A. metronidazole B. ketoconazole
C. amphotericin b D. flagyl (Ans- C What are the most common side effects of metronidazole? (SATA)
- diarrhea
- hematuria
- vomiting
- tendon rupture
- nausea (Ans- 1, 3, 5 What should a nurse advise a patient to take with metronidazole to prevent GI upset? A. ice water B. nothing C. food/ meal D. air (Ans- C A nurse is administering IV acyclovir and wants to monitor for IV infiltration. What do they instruct the client to notify them of? A. Pain/ Burning at IV site B. Warmth at IV site C. Drainage from IV site D. Red streaks running up arm at IV site (Ans- A What should a nurse encourage a client taking chloroquine to wear when outside to minimize visual effects? A. Sunglasses B. Glasses C. A Hat D. Sunscreen (Ans- A
C. baclofen D. amphotericin b (Ans- A A patient is taking metronidazole sustained release tablets. Which of the following statements demonstrates the patient has an understanding of the teaching? A. "If I miss a dose, I should just double my dose the next time" B. "I cannot crush or chew this medication" C. "I will place this medication under my tongue until it dissolves" D. "I cannot take this medication with any food or water" (Ans- B What medication treats oral thrush/ candidiasis and needs to be swished around the mouth before swallowing or spiting? A. zosyn B. fluconazole C. nystatin D. amphotericin b (Ans- C Oral - azole antibiotics need a [blank] type of environment to be absorbed A. acidic B. basic C. warm D. wet (Ans- A Which medication can cause a disulfiram-type reaction and reacts with several types of drugs? A. nystatin B. amphotericin b C. metronidazole D. baclofen (Ans- C
A nurse administered Acyclovir through an IV that was not patent. What is the patient at risk for? A. Swelling B. Tissue Necrosis/ Extravasation C. Nothing, the patient is at no added risk D. allergic reaction (Ans- B What labs should be drawn for amphotericin b, which is nephrotoxic? (SATA)
- Hgb/ Hct
- Mg
- BUN
- ALT
- Creatinine
- AST (Ans- 3, 5 Individuals taking rifampin should be advised that this medication greatly decreases the effectiveness of what other type of medication? A. opioids B. antihypertensives C. NSAIDs D. oral contraceptives (Ans- D Your patient is post-op from a kidney transplant. They have developed sepsis. Which statement below best reflects the interventions you will perform for this patient? A. Check blood glucose before anything else B. Collect cultures and start antibiotics STAT C. Administer norepinephrine before fluid resuscitation D. Administer low dose corticosteroid (Ans- B
A. Hypotension B. Potassium of 2. C. Jugular venous distention D. Elevated RBC count (Ans- C A patient with CKD does at home PD. She ran out of equipment and missed dialysis for 2 weeks. The physician has ordered stat hemodialysis. What is your priority? A. Ensuring the patient has a fistula placed B. Ensuring the patient has a temporary HD catheter placed C. Ensuring the patient's PD catheter is patent D. Ensuring the patient has calcium replacement available (Ans- B What should a patient do when taking acyclovir? A. Monitor liver function B. Go to an infusion center as acyclovir can only be given IV C. Take without any food D. Ensure they are hydrated (Ans- D What organ is Amphotericin B hard on? A. Heart B. Kidneys C. Liver D. Skin (Ans- B What should a patient do when taking metronidazole? A. Drink minimal water B. Let medication sit underneath the tongue until it dissolves C. Take with food/ meals to help reduce N/V D. Do not take with food (Ans- C
Why are TB drugs notorious with having difficulty regarding patient compliance? A. They need to be taken for months to years B. They taste really bad C. They cause staining to the teeth D. There is no issue with compliance (Ans- A Which medication treats tinea infections? A. Rifampin B. Isoniazid C. Vitamin B D. Ketoconazole (Ans- D What medications cause liver toxicity? (SATA)
- ketoconazole
- acyclovir
- antimycobacterials
- amphotericin b (Ans- 1, 3 What medications cause renal toxicity? (SATA)
- antimycobacterials
- amphotericin b
- acyclovir
- ketoconazole (Ans- 2, 3 Which medication can stain contact lenes? A. ketoconazole B. rifampin C. vitamin b
