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Nur 600 - Exam 1 with correct answers, Exams of Nursing

Nur 600 - Exam 1 with correct answers

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2024/2025

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Nur 600 - Exam 1 with correct
answers
Nurse practitioner prescriptive authority is regulated by:
A. The National Council of State Boards of Nursing
B. The U.S. Drug Enforcement Administration
C. The State Board of Nursing for each state
D. The State Board of Pharmacy - ....🔰VERIFIED ANSWERS....
✔✔C. The State Board of Nursing for each state
Physician Assistant (PA) prescriptive authority is regulated by:
A. The National Council of State Boards of Nursing
B. The U.S. Drug Enforcement Administration
C. The State Board of Nursing
D. The State Board of Medical Examiners - ....🔰VERIFIED
ANSWERS.... ✔✔D. The State Board of Medical Examiners
Clinical judgment in prescribing includes:
A. Factoring in the cost to the patient of the medication
prescribed
B. Always prescribing the newest medication available for the
disease process C. Handing out drug samples to poor patients
D. Prescribing all generic medications to cut costs - ....🔰
VERIFIED ANSWERS.... ✔✔A. Factoring in the cost to the patient
of the medication prescribed
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Nur 600 - Exam 1 with correct

answers

Nurse practitioner prescriptive authority is regulated by: A. The National Council of State Boards of Nursing B. The U.S. Drug Enforcement Administration C. The State Board of Nursing for each state D. The State Board of Pharmacy - ....🔰VERIFIED ANSWERS.... ✔✔C. The State Board of Nursing for each state Physician Assistant (PA) prescriptive authority is regulated by: A. The National Council of State Boards of Nursing B. The U.S. Drug Enforcement Administration C. The State Board of Nursing D. The State Board of Medical Examiners - ....🔰VERIFIED ANSWERS.... ✔✔D. The State Board of Medical Examiners Clinical judgment in prescribing includes: A. Factoring in the cost to the patient of the medication prescribed B. Always prescribing the newest medication available for the disease process C. Handing out drug samples to poor patients D. Prescribing all generic medications to cut costs - ....🔰 VERIFIED ANSWERS.... ✔✔A. Factoring in the cost to the patient of the medication prescribed

Criteria for choosing an effective drug for a disorder include: A. Asking the patient what drug they think would work best for them B. Consulting nationally recognized guidelines for disease management C. Prescribing medications that are available as samples before writing a prescription D. Following U.S. Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA) guidelines for prescribing - ....🔰VERIFIED ANSWERS.... ✔✔B. Consulting nationally recognized guidelines for disease management Nurse practitioner practice may thrive under health-care reform due to: A. The demonstrated ability of nurse practitioners to control costs and improve patient outcomes B. The fact that nurse practitioners will be able to practice independently C. The fact that nurse practitioners will have full reimbursement under health-care reform D. The ability to shift accountability for Medicaid to the state level - ....🔰VERIFIED ANSWERS.... ✔✔A. The demonstrated ability of nurse practitioners to control costs and improve patient outcomes A patient's nutritional intake and lab work reflects hypoalbuminemia. This is critical to prescribing because: A. Distribution of drugs to target tissue may be affected

D. Are most common in collagen tissues - ....🔰VERIFIED ANSWERS.... ✔✔C. Increase the length of time a drug is available and active The NP chooses to give cephalexin every 8 hours based on knowledge of the drug's: A. Propensity to go to the target receptor B. Biological half-life C. Pharmacodynamics D. Safety and side effects - ....🔰VERIFIED ANSWERS.... ✔✔B. Biological half-life Azithromycin dosing requires the first day's dose be twice those of the other 4 days of the prescription. This is considered a loading dose. A loading dose: A. Rapidly achieves drug levels in the therapeutic range B. Requires four to five half-lives to attain C. Is influenced by renal function D. Is directly related to the drug circulating to the target tissues - ....🔰VERIFIED ANSWERS.... ✔✔A. Rapidly achieves drug levels in the therapeutic range The point in time on the drug concentration curve that indicates the first sign of a therapeutic effect is the: A. Minimum adverse effect level B. Peak of action C. Onset of action

D. Therapeutic range - ....🔰VERIFIED ANSWERS.... ✔✔C. Onset of action Phenytoin requires a trough level be drawn. Peak and trough levels are done: A. When the drug has a wide therapeutic range B. When the drug will be administered for a short time only C. When there is a high correlation between the dose and saturation of receptor sites D. To determine if a drug is in the therapeutic range - ....🔰 VERIFIED ANSWERS.... ✔✔D. To determine if a drug is in the therapeutic range A laboratory result indicates the peak level for a drug is above the minimum toxic concentration. This means that the: A. Concentration will produce therapeutic effects B. Concentration will produce an adverse response C. Time between doses must be shortened D. Duration of action of the drug is too long - ....🔰VERIFIED ANSWERS.... ✔✔B. Concentration will produce an adverse response Drugs that are receptor agonists may demonstrate what property? A. Irreversible binding to the drug receptor site B. Up-regulation with chronic use C. Desensitization or down-regulation with continuous use

When a medication is added to a regimen for a synergistic effect, the combined effect of the drugs is: A. The sum of the effects of each drug individually B. Greater than the sum of the effects of each drug individually C. Less than the effect of each drug individually D. Not predictable, as it varies with each individual - ....🔰 VERIFIED ANSWERS.... ✔✔B. Greater than the sum of the effects of each drug individually Which of the following statements about bioavailability is true? A. Bioavailability issues are especially important for drugs with narrow therapeutic ranges or sustained release mechanisms. B. All brands of a drug have the same bioavailability. C. Drugs that are administered more than once a day have greater bioavailability than drugs given once daily. D. Combining an active drug with an inert substance does not affect - ....🔰VERIFIED ANSWERS.... ✔✔A. Bioavailability issues are especially important for drugs with narrow therapeutic ranges or sustained release mechanisms. Which of the following statements about the major distribution barriers (blood brain or fetal-placental) is true? A. Water soluble and ionized drugs cross these barriers rapidly. B. The blood-brain barrier slows the entry of many drugs into and from brain cells. C. The fetal-placental barrier protects the fetus from drugs taken by the mother.

D. Lipid soluble drugs do not pass these barriers and are safe for pregnant women - ....🔰VERIFIED ANSWERS.... ✔✔B. The blood- brain barrier slows the entry of many drugs into and from brain cells. Drugs are metabolized mainly by the liver via Phase I or Phase II reactions. The purpose of both of these types of reactions is to: A. Inactivate prodrugs before they can be activated by target tissues B. Change the drugs so they can cross plasma membranes C. Change drug molecules to a form that an excretory organ can excrete D. Make these drugs more ionized and polar to facilitate excretion - ....🔰VERIFIED ANSWERS.... ✔✔C. Change drug molecules to a form that an excretory organ can excrete Once they have been metabolized by the liver, the metabolites may be: A. More active than the parent drug B. Less active than the parent drug C. Totally "deactivated" so that they are excreted without any effect D. All of the above - ....🔰VERIFIED ANSWERS.... ✔✔D. All of the above All drugs continue to act in the body until they are changed or excreted. The ability of the body to excrete drugs via the renal system would be increased by: A. Reduced circulation and perfusion of the kidney

D. Reducing the dosage of both drugs - ....🔰VERIFIED ANSWERS.... ✔✔C. Prescribing a third drug to counteract the adverse reaction of the combination Phase I oxidative-reductive processes of drug metabolism require certain nutritional elements. Which of the following would reduce or inhibit this process? A. Protein malnutrition B. Iron deficiency anemia C. Both A and B D. Neither A nor B - ....🔰VERIFIED ANSWERS.... ✔✔D. Neither A nor B The time required for the amount of drug in the body to decrease by 50% is called: A. Steady state B. Half-life C. Phase II metabolism D. Reduced bioavailability time - ....🔰VERIFIED ANSWERS.... ✔✔B. Half-life An agonist activates a receptor and stimulates a response. When given frequently over time the body may: A. Up-regulate the total number of receptors B. Block the receptor with a partial agonist C. Alter the drug's metabolism

D. Down-regulate the numbers of that specific receptor - ....🔰 VERIFIED ANSWERS.... ✔✔D. Down-regulate the numbers of that specific receptor Drug antagonism is best defined as an effect of a drug that: A. Leads to major physiologic psychological dependence B. Is modified by the concurrent administration of another drug C. Cannot be metabolized before another dose is administered D. Leads to a decreased physiologic response when combined with another drug - ....🔰VERIFIED ANSWERS.... ✔✔B. Is modified by the concurrent administration of another drug Instructions to a client regarding self-administration of oral enteric-coated tablets should include which of the following statements? A. "Avoid any other oral medicines while taking this drug." B. "If swallowing this tablet is difficult, dissolve it in 3 ounces of orange juice." C. "The tablet may be crushed if you have any difficultly taking it." D. "To achieve best effect, take the tablet with at least 8 ounces of fluid." - ....🔰VERIFIED ANSWERS.... ✔✔D. "To achieve best effect, take the tablet with at least 8 ounces of fluid." The major reason for not crushing a sustained release capsule is that, if crushed, the coated beads of the drugs could possibly result in: A. Disintegration B. Toxicity

D. Distributed equally - ....🔰VERIFIED ANSWERS.... ✔✔A. Absorbed rapidly Drugs that use CYP 3A4 isoenzymes for metabolism may: A. Induce the metabolism of another drug B. Inhibit the metabolism of another drug C. Both A and B D. Neither A nor B - ....🔰VERIFIED ANSWERS.... ✔✔C. Both A and B Therapeutic drug levels are drawn when a drug reaches steady state. Drugs reach steady state: A. After the second dose B. After four to five half-lives C. When the patient feels the full effect of the drug D. One hour after IV administration - ....🔰VERIFIED ANSWERS.... ✔✔B. After four to five half-lives Up-regulation or hypersensitization may lead to: A. Increased response to a drug B. Decreased response to a drug C. An exaggerated response if the drug is withdrawn D. Refractoriness or complete lack of response - ....🔰VERIFIED ANSWERS.... ✔✔C. An exaggerated response if the drug is withdrawn

Which of the following patients would be at higher risk of experiencing adverse drug reactions (ADRs): A. A 32-year-old male B. A 22-year-old female C. A 3-month-old female D. A 48-year-old male - ....🔰VERIFIED ANSWERS.... ✔✔C. A 3- month-old female Infants and young children are at higher risk of ADRs due to: A. Immature renal function in school-age children B. Lack of safety and efficacy studies in the pediatric population C. Children's skin being thicker than adults, requiring higher dosages of topical medication D. Infant boys having a higher proportion of muscle mass, leading to a higher volume of distribution - ....🔰VERIFIED ANSWERS.... ✔✔B. Lack of safety and efficacy studies in the pediatric population The elderly are at high risk of ADRs due to: A. Having greater muscle mass than younger adults, leading to higher volume of distribution B. The extensive studies that have been conducted on drug safety in this age group C. The blood-brain barrier being less permeable, requiring higher doses to achieve therapeutic effect D. Age-related decrease in renal function - ....🔰VERIFIED ANSWERS.... ✔✔D. Age-related decrease in renal function

B. When a drug is carcinogenic C. A delayed ADR, such as renal failure D. An allergic or idiosyncratic response - ....🔰VERIFIED ANSWERS.... ✔✔D. An allergic or idiosyncratic response Sarah developed a rash after using a topical medication. This is a Type __ allergic drug reaction. A. I B. II C. III D. IV - ....🔰VERIFIED ANSWERS.... ✔✔D. IV A patient may develop neutropenia from using topical Silvadene for burns. Neutropenia is a(n): A. Cytotoxic hypersensitivity reaction B. Immune complex hypersensitivity C. Immediate hypersensitivity reaction D. Delayed hypersensitivity reaction - ....🔰VERIFIED ANSWERS.... ✔✔A. Cytotoxic hypersensitivity reaction Anaphylactic shock is a: A. Type I reaction, called immediate hypersensitivity reaction B. Type II reaction, called cytotoxic hypersensitivity reaction C. Type III allergic reaction, called immune complex hypersensitivity

D. Type IV allergic reaction, called delayed hypersensitivity reaction - ....🔰VERIFIED ANSWERS.... ✔✔A. Type I reaction, called immediate hypersensitivity reaction James has hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis suppression from chronic prednisone (a corticosteroid) use. He is at risk for what type of adverse drug reaction? A. Type B B. Type C C. Type E D. Type F - ....🔰VERIFIED ANSWERS.... ✔✔B. Type C The treatment for a patient who experiences hypothalamic- pituitary-adrenal axis suppression while taking the corticosteroid prednisone, a Type C adverse drug reaction, is to: A. Immediately discontinue the prednisone B. Administer epinephrine C. Slowly taper the patient off of the prednisone D. Monitor for long-term effects, such as cancer - ....🔰VERIFIED ANSWERS.... ✔✔C. Slowly taper the patient off of the prednisone The ACE inhibitor lisinopril is a known teratogen. Teratogens cause Type ____ adverse drug reaction. A. A B. B C. C D. D - ....🔰VERIFIED ANSWERS.... ✔✔D. D

rugs that may cause a Type E adverse drug reaction include: A. Beta blockers B. Immunomodulators C. Antibiotics D. Oral contraceptives - ....🔰VERIFIED ANSWERS.... ✔✔A. Beta blockers Unexpected failure of drug therapy is a Type __ adverse drug reaction, commonly caused by____. A. B; cytotoxic hypersensitivity B. B; idiosyncratic response C. C; cumulative effects of drug D. F; drug-drug interaction - ....🔰VERIFIED ANSWERS.... ✔✔D. F; drug-drug interaction Clopidogrel treatment failure may occur when it is co- administered with omeprazole, known as a Type __ adverse drug reaction. A. A B. C C. E D. F - ....🔰VERIFIED ANSWERS.... ✔✔D. F The Pediatric Research Equity Acts requires: A. All children be provided equal access to drug research trials

B. Children to be included in the planning phase of new drug development C. That pediatric drug trials guarantee children of multiple ethnic groups are included D. All applications for new active ingredients, new indications, new dosage forms, or new routes of administration require pediatric studies - ....🔰VERIFIED ANSWERS.... ✔✔D. All applications for new active ingredients, new indications, new dosage forms, or new routes of administration require pediatric studies The Best Pharmaceuticals for Children Act: A. Includes a pediatric exclusivity rule which extends the patent on drugs studied in children B. Establishes a committee that writes guidelines for pediatric prescribing C. Provides funding for new drug development aimed at children D. Encourages manufacturers specifically to develop pediatric formulations - ....🔰VERIFIED ANSWERS.... ✔✔B. Establishes a committee that writes guidelines for pediatric prescribing The developmental variation in Phase I enzymes has what impact on pediatric prescribing? A. None, Phase I enzymes are stable throughout childhood. B. Children should always be prescribed lower than adult doses per weight due to low enzyme activity until puberty. C. Children should always be prescribed higher than adult doses per weight due to high enzyme activity.