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NUR 6121 Advanced Nursing II 2024 – 2025 NUR 612 Adv Nursing 2 Exam 3 Review Questions a, Exams of Nursing

DeVry University - FloridaNursing

NUR 6121 Advanced Nursing II 2024 – 2025 NUR 612 Adv Nursing 2 Exam 3 Review Questions and Answers Review Questions and Answers | 100% Pass Guaranteed | Graded A+ |

Typology: Exams

2024/2025

Available from 06/23/2025

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NUR 6121 Advanced Nursing II 2024 – 2025
NUR 612 Adv Nursing 2 Exam 3 Review
Questions and Answers Review Questions
and Answers | 100% Pass Guaranteed |
Graded A+ |
1. A patient receiving vancomycin begins to experience flushing,
hypotension, and a rash on the upper body. What is the most
likely diagnosis?
• Anaphylaxis
• Red Man Syndrome
• Serum sickness
• Stevens-Johnson Syndrome
Red Man Syndrome is a histamine reaction due to rapid
vancomycin infusion, not a true allergy.
2. Which electrolyte abnormality is most commonly associated
with loop diuretic use?
• Hyperkalemia
• Hypernatremia
• Hypokalemia
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Download NUR 6121 Advanced Nursing II 2024 – 2025 NUR 612 Adv Nursing 2 Exam 3 Review Questions a and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!

NUR 6121 Advanced Nursing II 2024 – 2025

NUR 612 Adv Nursing 2 Exam 3 Review

Questions and Answers Review Questions

and Answers | 100% Pass Guaranteed |

Graded A+ |

  1. A patient receiving vancomycin begins to experience flushing, hypotension, and a rash on the upper body. What is the most likely diagnosis?
  • Anaphylaxis
  • Red Man Syndrome
  • Serum sickness
  • Stevens-Johnson Syndrome

Red Man Syndrome is a histamine reaction due to rapid

vancomycin infusion, not a true allergy.

  1. Which electrolyte abnormality is most commonly associated with loop diuretic use?
  • Hyperkalemia
  • Hypernatremia
  • Hypokalemia
  • Hypercalcemia

Loop diuretics increase urinary potassium excretion,

leading to hypokalemia.

  1. What is the primary action of ACE inhibitors in heart failure management?
  • Increase heart rate
  • Decrease cardiac contractility
  • Reduce afterload and preload
  • Promote sodium retention

ACE inhibitors lower blood pressure by reducing

angiotensin II, thereby reducing preload and afterload.

  1. In acute pancreatitis, which lab value is most specific for diagnosis?
  • AST
  • Lipase
  • ALT
  • Amylase

Lipase is more specific than amylase for diagnosing

acute pancreatitis.

  1. Which condition is most associated with a widened QRS complex and peaked T waves?
  • Mycoplasma pneumoniae

S. pneumoniae is the most frequent pathogen in

community-acquired pneumonia.

  1. A hallmark sign of nephrotic syndrome is:
  • Hematuria
  • Proteinuria >3.5 g/day
  • Oliguria
  • Pyuria

Massive proteinuria is the defining feature of nephrotic

syndrome.

  1. In diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), the acid-base imbalance is:
  • Metabolic alkalosis
  • Respiratory alkalosis
  • Metabolic acidosis with an elevated anion gap
  • Respiratory acidosis

DKA causes an accumulation of ketones, leading to

metabolic acidosis.

  1. Which insulin has the longest duration of action?
  • Regular insulin
  • Lispro
  • NPH
  • Glargine

Glargine is a long-acting insulin with no peak and a

duration of ~24 hours.

  1. What is a common side effect of metformin?
  • Hypoglycemia
  • GI upset and lactic acidosis
  • Weight gain
  • Pancreatitis

Metformin commonly causes GI distress; lactic acidosis

is a rare but serious risk.

  1. What is the most effective initial treatment for status epilepticus?
  • Phenytoin
  • Lorazepam IV
  • Levetiracetam
  • Phenobarbital

Lorazepam is the first-line treatment due to its rapid

onset and effectiveness.

  1. Which medication is a potassium-sparing diuretic?
  • Furosemide
  • Spironolactone
  • Polyuria
  • Skin rash

Visual changes are classic signs of digoxin toxicity.

  1. What is the priority intervention for a patient with suspected pulmonary embolism?
  • Obtain ABGs
  • Administer oxygen and call rapid response
  • Order D-dimer
  • Start antibiotics

Oxygenation and urgent intervention are critical in

suspected PE.

  1. The first-line treatment for hypertensive emergency includes:
  • Hydralazine orally
  • IV labetalol or nicardipine
  • Oral clonidine
  • Furosemide

IV antihypertensives are needed to rapidly lower BP in

emergencies.

  1. A common cause of macrocytic anemia is:
  • Iron deficiency
  • Vitamin B12 deficiency
  • Chronic inflammation
  • Lead poisoning

B12 or folate deficiency causes enlarged RBCs

(macrocytosis).

  1. What lab finding suggests acute kidney injury?
  • Elevated albumin
  • Increased serum creatinine and BUN
  • Low potassium
  • Decreased liver enzymes

AKI is indicated by a sudden rise in creatinine and BUN.

  1. The drug of choice for severe asthma exacerbation is:
  • Inhaled corticosteroids
  • Short-acting beta-agonists (albuterol)
  • Leukotriene inhibitors
  • Anticholinergics

SABAs provide rapid bronchodilation during

exacerbations.

  1. Which condition is a contraindication to beta-blocker therapy?
  • Post-MI
  • GI bleeding and renal function
  • Bradycardia
  • Anemia of chronic disease

NSAIDs can cause gastric ulcers and nephrotoxicity.

  1. What clinical sign indicates meningitis?
  • Positive Murphy’s sign
  • Positive Brudzinski’s sign
  • Rebound tenderness
  • Cullen’s sign

Brudzinski’s sign (neck flexion causes hip flexion) is

classic in meningitis.

  1. What is a major concern when initiating an ACE inhibitor in a patient with bilateral renal artery stenosis?
  • Hypertension
  • Acute renal failure
  • Hyperglycemia
  • Bradycardia

ACE inhibitors reduce GFR in these patients,

precipitating renal failure.

  1. The best diagnostic test for pulmonary embolism is:
  • Chest x-ray

• ABG

  • CT pulmonary angiography
  • ECG

CT angiography is the gold standard for diagnosing PE.

  1. What is the most common cause of upper GI bleeding?
  • Peptic ulcer disease
  • Esophageal varices
  • Mallory-Weiss tear
  • Gastric cancer

Peptic ulcers remain the leading cause of upper GI

bleeds.

  1. A medication that increases insulin sensitivity is:
  • Glipizide
  • Metformin
  • Acarbose
  • Regular insulin

Metformin improves peripheral glucose uptake and

reduces hepatic glucose production.

  1. The hallmark sign of Parkinson’s disease is:
  • Muscle wasting
  • Diplopia
  1. What condition presents with moon face, buffalo hump, and central obesity?
  • Hypothyroidism
  • Addison’s disease
  • Cushing’s syndrome
  • Acromegaly

Excess cortisol causes characteristic Cushingoid

features.

  1. Which test confirms a diagnosis of hypothyroidism?
  • T3 resin uptake
  • TSH and free T
  • Anti-CCP antibodies
  • Cortisol level

High TSH with low free T4 confirms primary

hypothyroidism.

  1. A common side effect of SSRIs includes:
  • Weight loss and hypertension
  • Sexual dysfunction and GI upset
  • Tachycardia
  • Insomnia only

Sexual dysfunction and nausea are common SSRI side

effects.

  1. Which finding suggests a lower motor neuron lesion?
  • Spasticity
  • Flaccid paralysis and fasciculations
  • Hyperreflexia
  • Clonus

LMN lesions lead to decreased tone and reflexes.

  1. The antidote for benzodiazepine overdose is:
  • Flumazenil
  • Naloxone
  • Atropine
  • Protamine sulfate

Flumazenil competitively inhibits benzodiazepine

receptors.

  1. Which electrolyte imbalance prolongs QT interval and may cause torsades de pointes?
  • Hypernatremia
  • Hypomagnesemia
  • Hyperkalemia
  • Tiotropium

Non-selective beta-blockers may worsen

bronchospasm in COPD.

  1. What condition causes a positive Homan's sign?
  • Cellulitis
  • Deep vein thrombosis
  • PE
  • PVD

Calf pain on dorsiflexion suggests DVT.

  1. What symptom is most specific for rheumatoid arthritis?
  • Morning stiffness <30 min
  • Symmetric joint involvement
  • Uric acid crystals
  • Pain relief with activity

RA typically presents with symmetrical joint pain and

prolonged stiffness.

  1. Which drug can cause serotonin syndrome when combined with SSRIs?
  • Acetaminophen
  • Tramadol
  • Metformin
  • Ibuprofen

Tramadol has serotonergic properties and can

precipitate serotonin syndrome.

  1. An important side effect of isoniazid is:
  • Nephrotoxicity
  • Peripheral neuropathy
  • Hyperkalemia
  • Alopecia

Isoniazid depletes B6, causing neuropathy.

  1. Which cancer marker is associated with colon cancer?
  • CA- 125
  • AFP
  • PSA
  • CEA

CEA is used to monitor colon cancer progression.

  1. Which antibiotic is safe in penicillin-allergic patients with UTI?
  • Amoxicillin
  • Nitrofurantoin
  • Ceftriaxone
  1. Which medication is most appropriate to reverse opioid overdose?
  • Nalbuphine
  • Methadone
  • Naloxone
  • Flumazenil

Naloxone is a competitive opioid antagonist that

rapidly reverses overdose effects.

  1. Which of the following is a typical symptom of Graves’ disease?
  • Weight gain
  • Bradycardia
  • Exophthalmos
  • Constipation

Graves’ disease causes hyperthyroidism, often

accompanied by eye changes like exophthalmos.

  1. A key manifestation of Addison’s disease is:
  • Hypertension
  • Hyperpigmentation
  • Moon face
  • Hypoglycemia

Low cortisol levels in Addison’s lead to ACTH

overproduction, which increases skin pigmentation.

  1. A classic auscultatory finding in aortic stenosis is:
  • Systolic crescendo-decrescendo murmur
  • Holosystolic murmur
  • Diastolic murmur
  • Continuous murmur

Aortic stenosis produces a characteristic harsh systolic

murmur.

  1. Which electrolyte imbalance causes Chvostek's sign?
  • Hypocalcemia
  • Hypercalcemia
  • Hyperkalemia
  • Hyponatremia

Hypocalcemia increases neuromuscular excitability,

leading to facial twitching.

  1. What drug class is commonly used for rate control in atrial fibrillation?
  • ACE inhibitors
  • Beta-blockers