NUR2063 Essentials of Pathophysiology - Complete Mock Exam(Qns & Ans) - 2025, Exams of Pathophysiology

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NUR

Essentials of Pathophysiology

Complete Mock Exam

Questions & Answers

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Question 2

1 / 1 pts

If an ovum has chromosomal nondisjunction, which conditions(s) could result

in the embryo?

Monosomies and trisomies

Nondisjunction, or failure of a chromosome to separate during meiosis,

results in an ovum with two copies of the chromosome and an ovum with

no copies of the chromosome. When these ova encounter a male

gamete (sperm), the resulting embryo will have either an extra copy of

the chromosome (trisomy) or one copy of the chromosome (monosomy).

Chromosomal translocation

Broken chromosomes

Normal cell division

Question 3

1 / 1 pts

If a patient has Gaucher disease, which of the following organ(s) should the

nurse monitor?

Liver

Spleen

CNS/brain

All of the above

Gaucher disease is caused by the accumulation of a fatty substance

called glucocerebroside in the spleen, liver, and CNS. It also affects the

lungs and brain.

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Question 6

1 / 1 pts

The nurse is caring for a new mother who just gave birth to a baby with Down

syndrome. The nurse explains that this syndrome is a result of trisomy with

which chromosome?

The karyotype of an individual with Down syndrome shows trisomy 21.

Question 7

1 / 1 pts

The nurse documents "tattooing and stippling" in a trauma patient. Which

type of injury does this patient have?

Asphyxial injuries

Blunt force injuries

Gunshot wounds

Tattooing and stippling are caused by gunpowder and occur on the skin

surrounding the entrance wound. Asphyxial injuries are caused by a

failure of cells to receive or use oxygen. Blunt force injuries involve

tearing, shearing, or crushing of tissues. Injury to cells due to pathogens

are referred to as "infectious injuries."

Infectious injuries

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Question 10

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Question 8

1 / 1 pts

Which information indicates that the nurse has a good understanding of

clastogens? Clastogens are agents that cause:

chromosomal duplications.

single gene mutations.

chromosomal breakage.

Clastogens are harmful agents that cause chromosomal breakage. As a

result, sections of the chromosome have additions, deletions, or are

rearranged.

sex chromosome aneuploidies.

Question 9

1 / 1 pts

Which of the following statements by a clinician about mutations is correct?

Mutations always lead to genetic disease.

Spontaneous mutations occur as a result of exposure to a mutagen.

Mutations are alterations in a normal DNA sequence.

Mutations are alterations in a normal DNA sequence.

Mutations are always inherited.

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Question 14

1 / 1 pts

A couple has two offspring; one child has an autosomal recessive disease

trait and one is normal. What most likely conclusions can the nurse make

about the parents?

Only one parent must have the autosomal recessive disease.

Question 13

1 / 1 pts

If a patient has liquefactive necrosis, which organ should the nurse assess

first?

Brain

Hypoxic injury to the brain results in liquefactive necrosis because the

central nervous system contains little connective tissue.

Heart

Adrenals

Pancreas

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Question 16

1 / 1 pts

A nurse is describing primary immune deficiency. Which primary deficiencies

should the nurse include?

Question 15

1 / 1 pts

The nurse is caring for a patient with a genetic disease that is transmitted

through autosomal recessive inheritance. Which is the most likely diagnosis

for this patient?

Duchenne muscular dystrophy

Cystic fibrosis

Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive disease.

Hemophilia

Huntington disease

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Question 20

1 / 1 pts

A patient asks a nurse what leukotrienes do. Which of the following is the

best answer? Leukotrienes:

cause smooth muscle relaxation.

Question 19

1 / 1 pts

What is the role of plasmin in the inflammatory response cycle?

It inhibits the complement system.

It directly stimulates mast cell degranulation.

It stimulates proliferation of fibrocytes.

It controls clotting by breaking down fibrin.

Plasmin is an enzyme that will degrade fibrin during clot dissolution or at

the resolution of inflammation.

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Question 21

1 / 1 pts

What term does the nurse use to describe the process of endocytosis?

Defensins

Chronic inflammation

Engulfment

Engulfment is the term for endocytosis.

Wound healing

Question 22

1 / 1 pts

Which substance is released during a viral infection and signals neighboring

cells to enhance viral defenses?

Histamine

Interferon

Typical allergic responses are characterized as type I hypersensitivity

reactions.

Type II

Type III

Type IV

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Question 26

1 / 1 pts

The nurse is planning a community teaching event about systemic lupus

erythematosus (SLE). To which population should the teaching be primarily

targeted?

Question 25

0 / 1 pts

The nurse is caring for a patient with B-lymphocyte deficiency. The nurse

should protect the patient primarily from:

capsulated viruses.

T-lymphocyte deficiencies result in virus infections. B-lymphocyte

deficiencies result in an increased susceptibility to infection, especially

those caused by encapsulated bacteria.

fermented yeast.

wet fungi.

er

encapsulated bacteria.

activated by:

While discussing the complement system, which information should the

nurse include? The alternative pathway of the complement system is

1 / 1 pts

Question 28

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Question 27

1 / 1 pts

A nurse wants to teach about the most common primary immune deficiency

condition. Which of the following should the nurse describe?

Phagocyte deficiency

IgG subclass deficiency

Selective immunoglobulin A deficiency

Common variable immune deficiency

The three most commonly diagnosed deficiencies are common variable

immune deficiency (34%), selective immunoglobulin A (IgA) deficiency

(24%), and IgG subclass deficiency (17%).

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Score for this attempt: 29 out of 30

Submitted Apr 11 at 4:59pm

This attempt took 17 minutes.

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Question 1

1 / 1 pts

Which intervertebral disks should the nurse assess first for herniation?

C5-C

T6-T

T12-L

L4-S

Because of the loads and strain the lower back endures, the disks of

L4-L5 and L5-S1 are the most likely to herniate.

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Question 2

1 / 1 pts

A patient has a saccular aneurysm. What term can the nurse use to

describe this type of aneurysm?

Fusiform

Berry

Saccular aneurysms can be called berry aneurysms.

Radiculopathy

Penetrating

Question 3

1 / 1 pts

A patient with a spinal cord injury (T6 level) reports a headache. The

patient's blood pressure is 296 systolic, and the patient is sweating.

Which intervention is most appropriate?

Prepare the patient for surgery.

Administer pain medication for headache.

Start CPR.

Check the patient's bladder.

The most common cause is a distended bladder or rectum, but any

sensory stimulation can elicit autonomic hyperreflexia.

Alzheimer disease and spinal stenosis.

Parkinson disease and low back pain.

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Question 6

1 / 1 pts

Which of the following may cause an attack or an exacerbation of

symptoms for a patient with multiple sclerosis?

Cool environment

Administration of corticosteroids

Increased calcium levels

Conditions that cause short-lived attacks include minor increases in

body temperature or serum calcium (Ca++) concentration.

Decreased stress levels

Question 7

1 / 1 pts

While reviewing a patient’s health history, which finding will most alert the

nurse to the possible development of a chronic subdural hematoma?

Peripheral nerve trauma

Brain cancer

Prior brain atrophy

Prior brain atrophy is a major risk factor in the development of

chronic subdural hematomas.

Meningitis

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Question 9

1 / 1 pts

A patient's forehead hit the steering wheel during a motor vehicle

accident. Which part of the brain received the coup injury?

Occipital

Left hemisphere

Question 8

1 / 1 pts

A nurse is teaching the staff about classic cerebral concussions. Which

information should the nurse include? A classic cerebral concussion is

defined as a temporary axonal disturbance with loss of consciousness

lasting less than:

6 hours.

In classic cerebral concussion, consciousness is lost for up to 6

hours.

8 hours.

10 hours.

12 hours.